VTNE- Surgical Nursing Flashcards

0
Q

Preparing a patient’s skin for surgery

A

Reduces the bacterial flora to a level that can be controlled by the patient’s immune system

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1
Q

If during surgery you notice an time at the edge of a sterile field, you should

A

Consider it unsterile if you are not absolutely certain

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2
Q

Ovariohysterectomy is most commonly performed

A

In young female dogs

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3
Q
Which of the following do/does not have to be sterile during a surgical procedure to maintain aseptic technique?
A- mask
B- drapes
C- instruments
D- gloves
A

Mask

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4
Q

The effectiveness of a surgical scrub if the hands and arms with an antibacterial soap depends on the

A

Combination of contact time and scrubbing action

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5
Q

Which statement regarding first-intention wound healing is false?
A- it occurs without infection
B- it occurs when the skin edges are held together in apposition
C- it usually has some degree of suppuration
D- it occurs with minimal scar formation

A

C- it usually has some degree of suppuration

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6
Q

Which of the following statements about electrocautery is false?
A- if the patient is not properly grounded, the surgeon may get shocked
B- the intensity of the current passed through the unit is adjustable
C- small bleeding blood vessels are sealed with a controlled electrical current that burns the bleeding end
D- all portions of the electrocautery unit Cana no should be sterilized

A

D- all portions of the electrocautery unit can and should be sterilized

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7
Q

Before starting the surgical procedure, the technician who has scrubbed in with the surgeon should do all of the following except
A- count the gauze sponges in the pack
B- arrange the instruments to be quickly an easily located
C- place the scalpel blade on the handle
D- open the suture material

A

D- open the suture material

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8
Q
An ovariohysterectomy may be performed for all of the following reins except
A- prevention of prostate cancer
B- prevention of pyometra
C- sterilization of the animal
D- prevention of estrus
A

A- prevention of prostate cancer

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9
Q

Which of the following statements is true?
A- female cats over age 3 are too old to be spayed
B- female ferrets that are not bred or spayed are likely to develop a life-threatening anemia
C- all female animals become fate after spaying
D- it is beneficial to allow a female dog to have one litter before spaying

A

B- female ferrets that are not bred or spayed are likely to develop a life-threatening anemia

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10
Q

If an animal goes home with a bandage, the client should observe the bandage daily and remove it if any of the following are observed except
A- skin irritation at the edge of the bandage
B- all bandages should be removed 24 hours after being applied
C- the bandage is wet
D- the position of the bandage has shifted

A

B- all bandages should be removed 24 hours after being applied

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11
Q

Which of the following is not true about dogs being spayed before their first estrus cycle?
A- the hair coat will change and become easier to manage with less shedding
B- the surgery is generally considered easier to perform if the bitch has not been through an estrus cycle
C- mammary cancer is less likely to occur in a bitch that has been spayed before her first estrus cycle
D- the uterus and ovaries enlarge after the first estrus cycle. The necessitates a larger abdominal incision when the bitch is spayed

A

A- the hair coat will change and become easier to manage with less shedding

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12
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding pyometra is false?
A- the bitch that goes to surgery will have the ovaries and uterus removed
B- the bitch that goes to surgery will have only her uterus removed
C- the uterus may have ruptured before surgery begins
D- the patient represents a high-risk anesthesia case, because other organs in the body may be compromised

A

B- the bitch that goes to surgery will have only her uterus removed

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13
Q

All of the following statements regarding cesarean sections are true except
A- once the newborns are removed, the mother is out of danger, and most of the technician’s attention should be on the newborns
B- a cesarean section is also known as a hysterotomy
C- for some breeds of dogs, such as the English bulldog, it is expected that a cesarean section will need to be performed
D- wait to out the mother with the newborns until after she has adequately recovered from anesthesia

A

A- once the newborns are removed, the mother is out if danger, and most of the technician’s attention should be on the newborns

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14
Q

Which one of the following statements regarding cesarean sections is false?
A- bloody vaginal discharge is to be expected following surgery
B- the newborns delivered by cesarean section are under the effects of anesthesia
C- the surgical incision should be observed by the client after 1 week, because it is best not to disturb the nursing newborns
D- the newborn should be immediately removed from the membranous sac that covers its body when it is removed from the uterus

A

C- the surgical incision should be observed by the client after 1 week, because it is best not to disturb the nursing newborns

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15
Q

What a male dog is presented to the hospital for a castration procedure, the technician should do all of the following except
A- make sure that the dog is a male
B- make sure that there are two testifies in the scrotum
C- make sure that he is not in heat
D- make sure that there is a telephone number to reach the client

A

C- make sure that he is not in heat

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16
Q

When a tomcat is presented to the hospital for a castration procedure, the technician should do all of the following except
A- make sure the cat is a male
B- make sure that he has not been previously castrated
C- make sure that there are two testicles in the scrotum
D- make sure that he is not in heat

A

D- make sure that he is not in heat

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17
Q

When a bitch is presented to the hospital for an ovariohysterectomy, the technician should do all of the following except
A- make sure the dog is a female
B- get a telephone number where the client can be reached that day
C- make sure that she is not in heat, because it would significantly complicate the surgery
D- give the dog aspirin, because the surgical procedure will be painful

A

D- give the dog aspirin, because the surgical procedure will be painful

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18
Q

When a queen is presented to the hospital for an ovariohysterectomy, the technician should do all of the following except
A- make sure the cat is a female
B- get a telephone number where the client can be reached that day
C- make sure that the cat is not in heat, because it would significantly complicate the surgery
D- get the client or gaurdian’s signature on the consent form

A

C- make sure that the cat is not in heat, because it would significantly complicate the surgery

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19
Q

When a dog is to be castrated, the veterinary technician should prepare the surgical site. The incision is most commonly made in what location?

A

Prescrotal prepuce

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20
Q

When a cat is to castrated, the veterinary technician should prepare the surgical site. The incision is most commonly made in what location?

A

Scrotom

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21
Q

When a dog is to be spayed, the veterinary technician should prepare the surgical site. The incision is most commonly made in what location?

A

Abdominal ventral midline

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22
Q

The hair coat can be most efficiently and gently removed when preparing a dog to be spayed by which of the following methods?
A- plucking
B- clipping with sharp scissors
C- clipping against the grain of the hair with electrical clippers using a no. 40 blade
D- clipping against the grain of the hair with electrical clippers using a no. 10 blade

A

C- clipping against the grain of the hair with electrical clippers using a no. 40 blade

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23
Q

Which of the following statements would be false after serious oral surgery, such as mandibular fracture repair or oral-nasal tumor resection?
A- the patient may refuse to eat
B- the patient may need a gastrotomy tube
C- the patient may refuse to drink
D- the patient will no longer be in pain

A

D- the patient will no longer be in pain

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24
Q

When feeding the quotient through a tube, the technician should

A

Flush the tube with water

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25
Q

Which of the following statements about gastrointestinal (GI) surgery is false?
A- the patient should be fed immediately upon recovery from anesthesia
B- before closing the abdomen, the surgical team should check for sponges, instruments, strands of suture material, needles, and other possible foreign objects
C- during surgery additional sterile instruments, drapes, and gloves should be immediately available for the surgeon to exchange if contamination occurs
D- GI surgery comes with a high risk of bacterial contamination of the abdomen

A

A- the patient should be fed immediately upon recovery from anesthesia

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26
Q
A semipermanent feeding tube may be placed in all of the following ways except 
A- through the nose
B- through a pharyngostomy site
C- through a gastrostomy site
D- through the mouth
A

D- through the mouth

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27
Q

All of the following statements are true about GI surgery except
A- it is absolutely essential to fast all patients before GI surgery. The GI tract must be empty before surgery.
B- at no point is the GI tract sterile, therefore it is important to guard against contamination
C- irrigation of the peritoneal cavity with a sterile isotonic solution after a GI surgery helps reduce the number of microorganisms that remain free in the peritoneum following the procedure
D- the surgical assistant must be alert to the possibility of intestinal contents contaminating the abdominal cavity and must help the surgeon prevent this from happening

A

A- it is absolutely essential to fast all patients before GI surgery. The GI tract must be empty before surgery

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28
Q

It is important that the nursing care provided to paralyzed patients focuses on patient comfort. The prevention of decubital ulcers can be accomplished by all of the following procedures except
A- frequent turning or repositioning of the patient’s position
B- adequate padding in the cage or bed
C- appropriate analgesic therapy
D- whirlpool bath hydrotherapy

A

C- appropriate analgesic therapy

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29
Q

Proptosis of the globe

A

Can be caused by overzealous restraint of the animal

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30
Q

An abscess

A

Is a “walled-off” or circumscribed accumulation of pus

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31
Q

All of the following are instructions to give to clients of animals that have Pentose drains placed except
A- an Elizabethan collar may be needed
B- clean the skin around the drain with warm water or dilute chlorhexidine
C- the drain will fall out, and there is no need to return for removal
D- carefully watch the animal and prevent it from licking or chewing at the drain

A

C- the drain will fall out, and there is no need to return for removal

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32
Q

The client should be instructed to contact the veterinary hospital if any of the following occur with a splint or cast except
A- the animal chews at the splint or cast
B- the splint or cast is wet
C- the leg looks swollen above or below the cast
D- the animal is walking on or using the splinted or casted leg

A

D- the animal is walking on or using the splinted or casted leg

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33
Q

Proper splint and bandage care includes all of the following except
A- washing the splint or bandage daily
B- preventing the bandage or splint from becoming wet
C- inspecting the bandage or splint daily for ay change, such as swelling above or below the splint or bandage
D- inspecting the bandage or splint for any shifting or change in position on the limb

A

A- washing the splint or bandage daily

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34
Q

Which of the following is not true of an aural hematoma?
A- must be drained
B- is repaired by trimming back the pinna
C- is painful and bothersome to the animal
D- may be drained and bandaged by wrapping the head with the ear folded back across the top of the head

A

B- is repaired by trimming back the pinna

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35
Q

When a dog or cat is spayed, the surgical incision is most commonly made

A

Midline, caudal to the umbilicus

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36
Q

Suture materials

A

Can be braided or monofilament

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37
Q

When passing surgical instruments to the surgeon, the technician should do all of the following except
A- gently but firmly slap the palm of the surgeon with the instrument
B- pass the instrument in the open position
C- pass the instrument with the handle placed into the surgeon’s hand
D- pass the curved instrument so that it is oriented in the surgeon’s hand with the concave side up

A

B- pass the instrument in the open position

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38
Q

When assisting the surgeon, the technician should

A

Attach the scalpel blade using a pair of hemostasis or needle holders to hold the blade

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39
Q

Staples and other metal clips

A

Can be used in infected wounds

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40
Q

Surgical instruments should be

A

Placed on surfaces, never dropped or thrown

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41
Q
External fixation devices include all of the following except
A- cast
B- splint
C- bone plate
D- kirschner-Ehmer (K-E) apparatus
A

C- bone plate

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42
Q

Overinflated n or under inflation of the endotracheal tube cuff can result in all of the following except
A- prevention of fluid aspiration into the lungs
B- pressure necrosis of the cells lining the trachea
C- inability to keep the patient under anesthesia with the expected concentration of gas anesthetic
D- increased levels of waste gas anesthesia in the surgical room

A

A- prevention of fluid aspiration into the lungs

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43
Q

A chest tube is placed when an animal has

A

Pneumothorax

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44
Q

There is more concern about pulling out the endotracheal tube too soon in what breed of dog?

A

English bulldog

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45
Q

Dystocia is

A

Difficult or abnormal birth

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46
Q
Surgical procedures of the ear include all of the following except
A- otoplasty
B- bulla osteotomy
C- aural hematoma drainage
D- enucleation
A

D- enucleation

47
Q
Surgical procedure of the eye and ad exam structures include all of the following except
A- entropion repair
B- keratectomy
C- onychectomy
D- enucleation
A

C- onychectomy

48
Q

The animal is to be prepared for a cystotomy. What part of the body is prepped?

A

Ventral abdomen

49
Q

The animal is to be prepared for an ovariohysterectomy. What part of the body is prepped?

A

Ventral abdomen

50
Q

The animal is to be prepared for a femoral head ostectomy. What part of the body is prepped?

A

Hip

51
Q

The animal is to be prepped for an orchidectomy. What part of the body is prepped?

A

Scrotal/prescrotal area

52
Q

The animal is to be prepared for a popliteal lymph node biopsy. What part of the body is prepped?

A

Caudal aspect of the stifle

53
Q

A declaw is also known as an

A

Onychectomy

54
Q
Which of the following is not part of the spermatic cord?
A- pampiniform plexus
B- vas deferens
C- testicular artery
D- epididymis
A

D- epididymis

55
Q
Which of the following is not completely removed in an ovariohysterectomy?
A- broad ligament
B- ovaries
C- uterine horns
D- oviducts
A

A- broad ligament

56
Q

Enucleation may be required to correct

A

Proptosis of the eye

57
Q
Which of the following is a needle driver that is also able to cut sutures?
A- Hegar-Olsen
B- mayo-Hegar
C- brown-adson
D- Rochester-Pean
A

A- hegar-Olsen

58
Q
Which of the following forceps has the best crushing action?
A- Rochester-carmalt
B- Rochester-Pean
C- ochsner
D- crile
A

A- Rochester-carmalt

59
Q
Which of the following does not describe a characteristic of ethylene oxide?
A- carcinogenic
B- teratogenic
C- mutagenic
D- mitogenic
A

D- mitogenic

60
Q
Which of the following suture materials persists in the body for the longest period?
A- polydioxanone 
B- Prolene
C- chromic catgut
D- vicryl
A

B- Prolene

61
Q

Scrotal swelling after orchidectomy is most likely due to a

A

Hematoma

62
Q
Which of the following instruments is the only one appropriate for handling tissues during surgery?
A- dressing forceps
B- standard surgical scissors
C- sponge forceps
D- rat-tooth forceps
A

D-rat-tooth forceps

63
Q

What suture pattern is commonly used to close the skin of cattle following a rumenotomy?

A

Continuous horizontal mattress

64
Q
Which of the following suture materials is most appropriate to close the muscle layers of a cow following a left-displaced abomasum surgery?
A- 3-0 catgut
B- 3-0 polydioxanone
C- 3 chromic catgut
D- 3 polydioxanone
A

C- 3 chromic catgut

65
Q

Which of the following statements regarding pyometra is incorrect?
A- ovariohysterectomy is usually curative
B- a perulent vaginal discharge is always present
C- affected females usually have polyuria and polydipsia
D- it often occurs soon after a heat cycle

A

B- purulent vaginal discharge is always present

66
Q
Which of the following is not considered an elective procedure?
A- orchidectomy
B- ovariohysterectomy 
C- onychectomy 
D- enucleation of a proposed eye
A

D- enucleation of a proposed eye

67
Q

Nephrectomy refers to

A

The removal of a kidney

68
Q

When preparing for an orthopedic surgery, shaving the surgical site should be done

A

Just after induction of anesthesia

69
Q

Fracture apposition refers to

A

Placing the bones back to their normal position

70
Q

A caslick operation is done in horses to

A

Improve fertility

71
Q
Which if the following agents can be used as both an antiseptic as well as a disinfectant?
A- quarternary ammonium compounds
B- mercurial compound
C- isopropyl alcohol
D- formaldehyde
A

C- isopropyl alcohol

72
Q
For which of the following surgeries are stay sutures not normally necessary?
A- cystotomy
B- gastrotomy
C- intestinal anastomosis 
D- hepatic biopsy
A

D- hepatic biopsy

73
Q

What is the minimum number of throws required when making a surgical knot?

A

Two

74
Q

When is it appropriate to use a hand tie instead of an instrument tie?

A

A hand tie can be used any time an instrument can

75
Q

What technique can be used to help prevent a suture from slipping off the uterine stump?

A

Transfixation

76
Q
Which of the following is an advantage of monofilament material over multifilament material?
A- greater knot security
B- greater suture strength
C- less likely o cause suture reactions
D- passes through tissue more easily
A

D- passes through tissue more easily

77
Q
Which of the following suture sizes is most appropriate for eye surgeries?
A- 0
B- 3-0
C- 6-0
D- 10-0
A

C- 6-0

78
Q

Why is it important to minimize the amount of dead space when suturing?

A

To decrease the chance of seroma formation

79
Q
Which of the following is an absorbable suture material?
A- polydioxanone 
B- Prolene
C- silk
D- cotton
A

A- polydioxanone

80
Q

What factor will not influence how rapidly suture materials are absorbed by the body?

A

Age of the patient

81
Q
Which of the following is not considered a contaminated surgery?
A- anal sac removal
B- dental extractions
C- intestinal anastomosis
D- gastrotomy
A

A- anal sac removal

82
Q
Which of the following forceps should not be used to hold the edges of the incision open?
A- rat tooth
B- brown-Adson
C- crile
D- Allis tissue
A

C- crile

83
Q
Which of the following does not describe a type of surgical scissor?
A- mayo
B- metzenbaum
C- iris
D- Lembert
A

D- Lembert

84
Q

A sponge count should be done

A

At the beginning of the surgery and before closure

85
Q

When performing a canine orchidectomy, the location of the incision is usually

A

Prescrotal

86
Q
Which of the following clinical signs would not normally be seen if a dog were suffering from hemorrhage after an ovariohysterectomy?
A- decreased heart rate
B- pale mucous membranes
C- slow recovery from anesthesia
D- slow capillary refill time
A

A- decreased heart rate

87
Q

You are monitoring a cat during an exploratory surgery and notice the pupils are central and dilated. The cat is

A

Impossible to determine without more information

88
Q
Which of the following does not cause an increase in respiratory rate in an anesthetized animal?
A- increased blood CO2
B- anesthesia is too light
C- increased PaO2
D- hyperthermia
A

C- increased PaO2

89
Q

What is the proper term for trimming the edges of a jagged tear before suturing?

A

Debridement

90
Q
Which of the following is not a factor influencing the formation of exuberant granulation tissue?
A- presence of infection
B- amount of missing tissue
C- depth of the wound
D- location of the wound
A

C- depth of the wound

91
Q

If a surgical incision is dehiscing, the discharge, if present, is most likely to be

A

Serosanguineous

92
Q
Which of the following agents has been associated with causing neurological disorders in cats?
A- chlorhexidine
B- povidone iodine
C- quarternary ammonium compounds
D- hexachlorophene
A

D- hexachlorophene

93
Q

If a nonsterile person must move to the other side of a sterile person, the nonsterile person should pass

A

Facing the back of the surgeon

94
Q

When opening a double-wrapped gown pack, nonscrubbed surgical personnel may touch the

A

Autoclave tape

95
Q
Which of the following suture materials is most likely to cause stitch granulomas if left in too long?
A- silk
B- cotton
C- nylon
D- Prolene
A

C- nylon

96
Q

When scrubbing, the hands should be held

A

Above the elbows

97
Q

When cleaning instruments, the instruments should first be soaked in a surgical soap solution to

A

Remove blood

98
Q
Which of the following patterns is not suitable for the closure of an intestinal biopsy incision?
A- simple continuous
B- simple interrupted
C- everting
D- inverting
A

C- everting

99
Q

Which of the following does not need to be included when labeling a surgical pack?
A- contents of the pack
B- date the lack was made up
C- initials or name of the person making up the pack
D- date the pack must be used by

A

D- date the pack must be used by

100
Q
Which of the following hemostatic forceps has strait ions different from the others?
A- halstead Mosquitos
B- crile
C- Rochester-Pean
D- Rochester-carmalt
A

D- Rochester-carmalt

101
Q
Which of the following is not the formal name of a retractor?
A- finochietto
B- Gelpi
C- Lembert
D- Balfour
A

C- Lembert

102
Q
Which of the following is not a requirement for fracture healing?
A- apposition
B- shearing
C- fixation
D- reduction
A

B- shearing

103
Q

Using the dissection method, which parts of the distal forelimb are removed in an onychectomy?

A

Distal phalanx and nail

104
Q

Anterior drawer movement detects a problem with the

A

Stifle

105
Q

An incision into the bladder is known as a

A

Cystotomy

106
Q
Which of the following conditions does not require surgical repair?
A- gastric dilatation and volvulus
B- intussusception
C- mesenteric torsion
D- ileus
A

D- ileum

107
Q

A laminectomy is used to treat

A

Intervertebral disk disease

108
Q

If a fracture is found on the proximal part of the tibia, it is

A

Distal to the femur

109
Q

If the testicles are not palpable, and a crypt orchidectomy is performed, the incision would most likely be

A

Ventral midline

110
Q

.

A

In dogs, the most common location for a thorax tommy incision is

111
Q

What is the minimum number of air changes per hour required for adequate ventilation in a surgical suite?

A

15

112
Q

Which of the following disinfectants has the weakest virucidal activity?

A

Quarternary ammonium compounds at standard concentrations

113
Q
Which of the following does not describe a type of surgical scissors?
A- iris
B- metzenbaum
C- wire-cutting
D- mayo-Hegar
A

D- mayo-Hegar

114
Q
Which if the following instruments is most suitable for the removal of bone to perform spinal surgery?
A- rongeurs
B- curette
C- periosteal elevator
D- trephine
A

A- rongeurs