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From Flashcardlet > seminar review test #3 > Flashcards

seminar review test #3 Flashcards

0
Q

A route of infection by hookworms that is not shared by roundworms is

A

Skin penetration

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1
Q

What parasite has only the cat as its definitive host?

A

Toxoplasma Gondi

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2
Q

Finding pro glottis around a dog’s anus indicates infection with

A

Tapeworms

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3
Q

The intermediate host for heartworms is the

A

Mosquito

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4
Q

Serology tests can detect heartworm in a dog’s blood

A

Several Month’s after becoming infected

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5
Q

Heartworm treatment begins with killing the

A

Adult worms

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6
Q

What is not a type of coccidia?

A

Giardia

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7
Q

What are the two diagnostic forms of giardia?

A

Cysts and trophozoites

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8
Q

Compared to a roundworm ova, coccidia appear

A

Smaller

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9
Q

What ectoparasite is barely visible to the naked eye?

A

Mites

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10
Q

Which of these is a non burrowing mange mite?

A

Psi rooters cuniculi

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11
Q

What ectoparasite has zoonotic potential?

A

Sarcoptes

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12
Q

Which statement regarding Demodex is false?
A- live mites and/or eggs may be found in skin scrapings
B- it is cigar-shaped
C- it resides in the hair follicles and sebaceous glands of certain mammals
D- it is highly contagious

A

D- it is highly contagious

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13
Q

What tick is a soft tick?

A

Otobius

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14
Q

Which if the following parasite ova is collected using cellophane tape technique?

A

Oxyuris

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15
Q

It is possible to differentiate sucking lice and chewing lice by which of the following features?

A

Chewing lice have a head that is broader than the thorax, whereas sucking lice have a head that is narrower than the thorax

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16
Q

The parasite that is distinguished by white, operculated eggs that are cemented to the hairs of its host is the

A

Louse

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17
Q

What can the ELISA heartworm test detect that the Difil cannot?

A

Occult infection

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18
Q

In what host do the sexually mature adult parasites live?

A

Definitive

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19
Q

What major disadvantage is common to both the direct smear and fecal sedimentation methods of fecal examination?

A

Fecal debris will make microscopic examination difficult

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20
Q

The modified knitt technique for microfilaria has what two additives for ease of heartworm diagnosis?

A

Formalin and new methylene blue stain

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21
Q

Tapeworm infections are most often diagnosed in small animals by which of the following methods?

A

Gross examination

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22
Q

The least sensitive diagnostic technique for finding microfilariae is?

A

Direct examination of blood

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23
Q

What pair of parasites differ in morphology and size?

A

Ancylostoma versus toxoascaris

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24
Q

What is not a concentration method for parasite ova detection?

A

Direct smear

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25
Q

Focal specimens should be examined routinely with what objective?

A

10x

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26
Q

What is the minimum number of minutes a fecal flotation should stand before examination?

A

10 minutes

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27
Q

The instrument specifically designed to collect a fecal sample directly from the animal’s rectum is a

A

Fecal loop

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28
Q

In what analysis could heartworm microfilariae appear as an incidental finding?

A

Differential cell count

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29
Q

The fecal solution most likely to be successful in detecting giardia cysts is

A

Zinc sulfate

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30
Q

What is the main reason that flotation solutions with specific gravities over 1.300 are not commonly used?

A

They would distort ova

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31
Q

A 4-yr old dog has a chronic cough and the veterinarian has included Filaroides on his list of possible diagnoses. What is the common name of this parasite?

A

Lungworms

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32
Q

Which if the following nematode a are characterized by an ovoid egg with a thin shell and a modulated embryo?

A

Ancylostma caninum

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33
Q

The causative agent of Lyme disease is

A

Bordelaise burgdorferi

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34
Q

Which of these ectoparasites is zoonotic?

A

Sarcoptes

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35
Q

Which of the following mites is commonly found in rabbits and large animals?

A

Psoroptes

36
Q

What endparasite larva causes creeping eruptions in humans?

A

Hookworm

37
Q

Lyme disease is transmitted via

A

Deer tick

38
Q

What is the name of the time period between the ingestion of the infective stage of a parasite and the passing of eggs from the adult parasite in the feces?

A

Prepatent

39
Q

Cysts of what organism may be seen on a fecal flotation?

A

Giardia

40
Q

What is a tick-borne organism found in dogs

A

Ehrilichia

41
Q

Which if the following terms refers to an infestation of lice?

A

Pediculosis

42
Q

A skin scraping is used to diagnose what parasite?

A

Notoedres

43
Q

What parasite uses snails as intermediate hosts?

A

Paragonimus

44
Q

What heartworm diagnostic test uses a concentration technique that increases the chance of screening microfilariae?

A

Filtration test (Difil)

45
Q

Visceral larval migrans is caused by the larvae of

A

Toxocara canis

46
Q

Proglottids are produced by what parasite?

A

Tapeworm

47
Q

What lungworms is found in cats?

A

Capillaria aerophila

48
Q

What parasite causes blood loss, especially in young animals?

A

Hookworm

49
Q

Myiasis is an infestation of

A

Flies

50
Q

Ninety-nine percent of th domestic short-hair cats in the United States have what blood

A

A

51
Q

Trophozoites and cyst forms are associated with

A

Protozoans

52
Q

What is the morphology of Vibrio sp. Bacteria?

A

Bacillus

53
Q

Which of the following is an important function of bacterial fimbriae?

A

Attachment

54
Q

Bacterial endospores

A

Are resistant to heat and desiccation

55
Q

Sarcinae morphology refers to what kind of bacterial arrangement?

A

Cubes of eight

56
Q

In the gram stain procedure, the mordant is

A

Iodine

57
Q

A bacterial genus can best be described as

A

Composed of one or more species

58
Q

In the bacterial name Borrekia burgdorferi, what does burgdorferi represent?

A

Species

59
Q

A non-gram staining bacterium is

A

Leptospira

60
Q

Which of the following is a gram-positive bacterium?

A

Clostridium

61
Q

Which if the following is a gram-negative bacterium?

A

Pasteurella

62
Q

The counter stain in the gram stain is

A

Safranin

63
Q

Most bacteria grow best at pH

A

7

64
Q

Which of the following is an important function of bacterial flagella?

A

Locomotion

65
Q

Nutritive media will

A

Grow almost all types of bacteria

66
Q

Selective media grow

A

Some types of bacteria only

67
Q

Trypticase soy agar

A

Is a nutritive media

68
Q

MacConkey agar

A

Selects for gram-negative organisms

69
Q

Dermatophyte test medium

A

Is used to identify fungal pathogens

70
Q

Which of the following is considered sterile?

A

Lower respiratory tract

71
Q

When culturing a swab for bacterial identification, which of the following media should be used?

A

BAP, CNA, MAC

72
Q

Which of the following bacteria is a gram-negative spirochete?

A

Campylobacter

73
Q

Fungal cultures are

A

Incubated at room temperature

74
Q

Which of the following is a spreading organism when grown on agar plate?

A

Proteus

75
Q

Energy producing nutrients are

A

Carbohydrates, fats, protein

76
Q

Biological value

A

Evaluates protein usability by the body

77
Q

Which nutrient aids in the management of diarrhea and constipation?

A

Carbohydrates

78
Q

The maintenance energy requirements (MER) for an 8-month old, 22 kg Mastiff is

A

1460 kcal/day

79
Q

Characteristics of a canine geriatric diet include

A

Restricted protein and phosphorus; increased fiber

80
Q

Possible clinical signs associated with FLUTD may include

A

Hematuria

81
Q

An animal is considered obese when it’s weight exceeds what percentage of its ideal weight?

A

20%

82
Q

Manufactures are required to include which percentage of the following ingredients in the guaranteed analysis?

A

Minimum crude protein and fat

83
Q

A pet food claim that it is formulated to meet AAFCO cat food nutrient profile for growth and lactation means that the food

A

Has undergone AAFCO feeding trial testing growth and lactation

84
Q

The best way to compare the actual nutrients of two pet food labels is by

A

Dry weight analysis

85
Q

Which nutrient helps convert fat into energy and promotes lean muscle mass?

A

L-carnitine

86
Q

Tumor cells are efficient in using which nutrient as an energy source?

A

Carbohydrates

87
Q

Increased levels of omega-3 fatty acids in a renal diet

A

Improve blood flow to the kidneys

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