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pharmacology final Flashcards

0
Q

Define therapeutic index and its significance.

A

TI is LD50 / ED50. This is the number that is used to identify that which is least minimal side effects.

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1
Q

How are drugs scheduled ie. the difference between schedule I v schedule II?

A

Schedule I drugs have a higher propensity to be abused by humans than Schedule II. Schedule II have a higher propensity than schedule III and so on to schedule V drugs

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2
Q

Explain therapeutic range.

A

The range in which the drug is doing what it is meant to do with least amount of side effects

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3
Q

What is the fastest route of administration in regards to drug delivery/bioavailability?

A

IV or intra-articular

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4
Q

What are the four basic movements of diffusion…explain each.

A

Passive diffusion- no energy required or used
Facilitated diffusion- requires carrier molecule-no energy
Active transport- requires carrier moloecule and energy- against concentration gradient
Phagocytosis/pinocytosis- cell engulfs molecule

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5
Q

T/F
In regards to metabolism/excretion of drugs hydrophilic drugs are passed back into the blood stream after leaving the duodenum and recirculate through the liver

A

False

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6
Q

T/F

IV drugs have 100% bioavailability

A

True

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7
Q

Describe why it takes more and more phenobarbital to reach the desired effect over a period of time.

A

It induces and releases CP450 that breaks it down

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8
Q

Describe first pass effect

A

Oral drugs–>stomach–>liver and are either activated or passed to feces

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9
Q

What is the half-life of a drug?

A

Period of time at which 1/2 drug is delivered to body

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10
Q

An increased affinity of a drug for a receptor means what in regards to the dose of said drug?

A

Increased affinity means less drug dose

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11
Q

Describe brand name v generic name and give me an example

A

Brand name is the company name of a drug
Generic name means that the actual name.
The brand name must meet the same criteria as the generic name
Rompum–>xylazine

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12
Q

What concerns are associated with compounding pharmacies?

A

The compounding pharmacy is responsible for creating the medication correctly and are not regulated by a governing body

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13
Q

1L = _______ mL

A

1000

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14
Q

1kg = _______ lbs

A

2.2

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15
Q

1 grain = ________ mg

A

65

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16
Q

Define solute and solvent

A

Solute is dissolved
Solvent does the dissolving
Together equals solution

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17
Q

The ratio 1:50 = what % concentration?

A

1:50 = 1/50 x 100 = 2%

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18
Q

How much sterile water is needed to make 1L of a 5% from a 40% stock solution?

A 
VsCs = VdCd
X(40) = 1000(5)
40X = 5000
X = 125 mL 
1000 mL - 125 mL = 875 mL sterile water
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19
Q

How much a 1:30 NaCl solution is needed to make 1L of 1:60 solution of NaCl

A

1:30 = 1/30 x 100 = 3.33
1:60 = 1/60 x 100 = 1.67
X/1000 = 1.67/3.3
X=501

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20
Q

If the dose of a drug is 20g how many doses (in grams) are contained in 100,000 mg?

A

100,000 mg x 1g/ 1000 mg = 100 g

100 g/ 20 g = 5 doses

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21
Q

The metric system fundamental unit of measure is?

A

Gram

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22
Q

How much sterile water is needed o make a 2.5% solution from a 5g bottle of drug powder?

A

.5g/.025=200 mL

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23
Q

When you have a 1 to 20 dilution describe exactly what this means to you.

A

1:20

1 part per 20 total parts or 1/20 x 100 = 5% concentration

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24
Q

The dosage for a drug is 10mg/kg PO SID for 3 days. Answer the following questions:
A- how many mg would u give a 7lb cat?
B- this drug comes in a 20% solution….how many mg/mL is that?
C- how many mL would this cat get per dose?
D- how many total mL would this cat get per treatment regimen?

A

A- 7/2.2=3.18kg. 3.18kg x 10mg/kg = 3.18 mg/dose
B- 20g/100ml x 1000mg/1g = 20000mg/100ml= 200mg/1mL
C- 3.18/200 = .16mL
D- .16 x 3= .48 mL

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25
Q

What does hydrophilic and lipophilic mean to you?

A

Hydrophilic: water loving- tissue perfusion easily
Lipophilic: fat loving- cell membrane absorption easily

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26
Q

What are the 3 types of neurons?

A

Sensory
Motor
Associative

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27
Q

What is a neurotransmitter? Give me 2 examples.

A

Neurotransmitter: a transmitter that is released from one neuron to the next over the synapse
Ex: acetylcholine; epinephrine

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28
Q

How many cranial nerves are there and what part of the nervous system are they located?

A

12 cranial nerves

Peripheral nervous system

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29
Q

What are the 2 main divisions of the ANS?

A

1- sympathetic

2- parasympathetic

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30
Q

Compare the 2 main divisions of the ANS as to their role in the body.

A

1- sympathetic- fight or flight

2- parasympathetic- returns the body to normal

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31
Q

True/False

Alpha and Beta receptors are located within the parasympathetic system

A

False

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32
Q

True/False

The parasympathetic system is known as the homeostasis system

A

True

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33
Q

How do anticonvulsants work?

A

They do not stop the cause of the seizure but stop the abnormal electrical impulse to the causative

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34
Q

Give me an example of an anticonvulsant

A

Valium

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35
Q

Give me an example of an 2 agonist used as a tranquilizer.

A

Xylazine

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36
Q

Describe nociceptive v neuropathic pain.

A

Nociceptive- pain stimulus

Neuropathic- phantom pain

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37
Q

Why is multimodal analgesia advantageous?

A

Because you can give less of each medicine Lessening the side effects

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38
Q

What are all opioids compared to?

A

Morphine

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39
Q

Give me an example of a local anesthetic drug

A

Lidocaine

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40
Q

Define MAC and how it’s relevant in regards to anesthetic drugs

A

Minimum ________ concentration

Dictate how much of a drug you are going to give

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41
Q

How does blood has solubility of a drug affect patients undergoing anesthesia?

A

Higher induction time

Higher recovery time

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42
Q

What are the neurotransmitters in the parasympathetic system?

A

Acetylcholine

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43
Q

Give me an example of an adrenergic drug used in veterinary medicine

A

Xylazine

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44
Q

How do adrenergic blocking agents work?

A

Bind to receptors preventing the attachment of ________

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45
Q

What inhalant anesthetic agent is a bad choice for GDV/bloat surgeries?

A

Nitrous oxide

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46
Q

Which node in the heart is responsible for signaling ventricular emptying?

A

AV

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47
Q

Describe the electrical conduction through the heart

A

Conduction starts at the SA node and sends a signal to the AV node which moves through the purkinje fibers causing contraction

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48
Q

Define systole and diastole

A

Systole- contraction of myocardium

Diastole- relaxation of myocardium

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49
Q

Cardiac output is dependent upon what?

A

Cardiac output = stroke volume x heart rate

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50
Q

True/False

Afterload is the volume of blood entering the right side of the heart.

A

False

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51
Q

What are the four ways the body can compensate for a low cardiac output?

A

Increase heart rate
Increase stroke volume
Enlarge heart
Decrease vascular tone

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52
Q

True/False

All arteries carry oxygenated blood to the body

A

False

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53
Q

What significance does the renin- angiotensin system have in regards to blood pressure?

A

Angiotensin I converts to angiotensin II causing an increase in blood pressure

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54
Q

What group of cardiac drugs act directly on the renin- angiotensin system?

A

Ace inhibitors

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55
Q

True/False

Digitalis and Digoxin are a positive inotropes

A

True

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56
Q

List two drugs that are catecholamines.

A

Epinephrine

Dopamine

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57
Q

What are the main effects of epinephrine on the body?

A

Increase heart rate
Increase contractility
Increase blood glucose

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58
Q

Describe what happens when an animal is experiencing premature ventricular complexes

A

The ventricles are contracting before they are meant to causing insufficient blood flow

59
Q

What is the class and type of drug most commonly used to treat hypertrophic cardiomyopathy in cats?

A

Propranolol

Class 2

60
Q

What group of drugs blocks angiotensin I —- angiotensin II?

A

Ace inhibitors

61
Q

Give me a drug used to treat rodenticide poisoning.

A

Vitamin K

62
Q

Contrast and compare ventilation and respiration

A

Ventilation- intake of fresh air

Respiration- exchange of O2 and CO2 in the body

63
Q

True/False

The pharynx and larynx are part of the upper respiratory system

A

True

64
Q

What group of respiratory drugs increase secretions allowing mucous to be coughed up?

A

Expectorants

65
Q

What is the most effective route of administration for acetylcystein?

A

Nebulized

66
Q

What is the centrally acting antitussive that is also used to treat pruritus?

A

Temaril-P

67
Q

True/False

Decongestants are a widely used drug in veterinary medicine

A

False

68
Q

What is the mode of action for anticholinergics as a bronchodilator?

A

Binds acetylcholine and prevents constriction

69
Q

What kind of drug is theophylline and how does it work?

A

Methylxanthine- inhibits smooth muscle enzyme

70
Q

What antihistamine is used to treat feline asthma and equine cushings?

A

Terbutaline

71
Q

What is COPD?

A

Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease- a noninfectious disease caused be allergens such as mold in hay

72
Q

Give me an example of positive feedback loop and how it works

A

Oxytocin during parturition. As the contractions continue the body tells the anterior pituitary there is a need for more and more oxytocin. It is positive because it keeps going more and more

73
Q

What is considered the master gland of the endocrine system?

A

Pituitary gland

74
Q

Follicle stimulating hormone is produced by what gland? What is/are the target organs? What is its main function?

A

Hypothalamus
Target organs: uterus and mammary glands
Main function: uterus contractions and milk let down

75
Q

Oxytocin is produced in what gland? What are the target organs? What is its main function?

A

Anterior pituitary gland and targets testes/ovaries

The main function is egg or sperm production

76
Q

What is the controversial drug used as a growth stimulant in dairy cows?

A

Bovine somatotropin (BST)

77
Q

Where is insulin produced and what effect does it have on blood glucose?

A

Produced in pancreas and insulin lowers blood glucose

78
Q

What is the drug of choice for long term regulation of diabetes mellitus in cats and why?

A

Lantus because it is ultra-long lasting

79
Q

What are some clinical signs associated with hypothyroidism? How is it treated?

A

Heat-seeking, poor coat

Treated with T4, if that doesn’t work use T3

80
Q

What would the treatment options be for this cat?

Crazy cat picture

A

Hyperthyroidism
Surgery
Iodine 131
Antithyroid drugs

81
Q

Where are the adrenal glands located?

A

Cranial aspect of the kidneys

82
Q

True/False

Cortisol is the primary mineralocorticoid

A

False

83
Q

True/False

ACTH stimulation test is the diagnostic test of choice for hyperadrinocorticism

A

False

84
Q

What is the diagnostic test of choice for cushing’s disease

A

Low dose dee

85
Q

Mitotane is used for treatment of what?

A

Cushings

86
Q

Describe what happens in the Luteal phase if there is no pregnancy…include all anatomical structures and relative hormones

A

Luteal phase–>no pregnancy–>prostaglandins–>CL regresses–>progesterone decreases–>cycle starts over

87
Q

What is the main androgen used in veterinary medicine?

A

Testosterone

88
Q

What are some of the side effects of the estrogen drug DES?

A

Bone marrow suppression, follicular cysts, endometrial hyperplasia

89
Q

What is the main use if progesterone and progestins in veterinary medicine?

A

To synch cycles

90
Q

How do prostaglandins affect the estrous cycle?

A

CL regression/lysis

91
Q

What is a use for prostaglandins in small animal medicine?

A

Treat pyometra, abortion, induce parturition

92
Q

Describe superovulation and how it can be used in veterinary medicine

A

When the animal is stimulated to have multiple eggs ovulated. Ova released from multiple follicles. Can be used to treat a made that is worth a lot of money because you can take the eggs and freeze them and implant them on other mare and now you have multiple babies from that one horse–>big money!

93
Q

True/False

Antibiotics can be used as growth promotants in veterinary medicine

A

True

94
Q

What drug would you use to treat cystic ovaries in cattle?

A

HCG or GnRH

95
Q

What is the mode of action for ketoconazole in the treatment of canine cushing’s disease?

A

Blocks enzyme needed for steroid production

96
Q

How do anticholinergics such as atropine function as an antidiarrheal drug?

A

Anticholinergics block angiotensin I to angiotensin II decreasing secretions to slow down diarrhea

97
Q

How do probiotics work to decrease GI upset?

A

Increase good normal bacteria flora

98
Q

What type of laxative is lactulose and how does it work?

A

Osmotic laxative–>works in a hyperosmolar environment pulling fluid into the GI allowing softer stools

99
Q

Give me tow categories of laxatives and their mechanism of action

A

1- bulk forming- increase bulk- Metamucil/bran

2- osmotic laxative- hyperosmolar environment- lactulose

100
Q

Describe the different pathways by which vomiting is stimulated in animals

A

1- higher cortisol centers- stimulated by smell
2- inner ear- stimulated by equilibrium
3- CRTZ- stimulated by stomach/intestines

101
Q

What antiemetic is contraindicated in an animal that may have a GI obstruction?

A

Meta loperamide (Reglan)

102
Q

True/False

Ondansetron is not safe to use in patients that are prone to seizure activity

A

False

103
Q

How does Cerenia work as an antiemetic?

A

Blocks substance P- centrally acting

104
Q

WHat are the two types of emetics? Give an example of each.

A

1- centrally acting- xylazine

2- peripherally acting- ipecac

105
Q

Explain why sucralfate should not be given with famotidine.

A

Sucralfate needs to work in an acidic environment

106
Q

What drug used to treat equine cushing’s is also an effective appetite stimulant?

A

Ciproheptadine

107
Q

What is the main function of the urinary system?

A

To remove waste products

108
Q

What is the function of a diuretic and it’s consequential effects on the body?

A

1- decrease fluid volume and decrease blood pressure

2- effects on body-increase urine

109
Q

Give an example of a potassium sparing diuretic

A

Spironolactone

110
Q

What type of diuretic is used to treat head trauma. Give an example

A

Osmotic diuretic–>mannitol

111
Q

Describe how ACE inhibitors work and their effect on BP

A

Ace inhibitors stop angiotensin I –> angiotensin II stopping the angiotensin cascade decreasing blood pressure

112
Q

Propranolol is what type of drug?

A

Diuretic-beta 2 blocker

113
Q

Urine acidifiers are used to dissolve and treat what type of urinary condition?

A

Struvite crystals–>incontinence

114
Q

What are the three types of muscle?

A

1- smooth
2- cardiac
3- skeletal

115
Q

What is the neurotransmitter involved at the neuromuscular junction?

A

Acetylcholine

116
Q

True/False

Depolarization of the postsynaptic membrane occurs just prior to the neurotransmitter binding to the receptor sites

A

False

117
Q

What are the two groups of anti-inflammatory drugs?

A

Steroidal and non-steroidal

118
Q

True/False

The majority of neuromuscular blockers are competitive nondepolarizers

A

True

119
Q

Edrophonium is used to diagnose what neuromuscular disease?

A

Myasthenia Gravis

120
Q

What is the antidiote used to decrease the effects of succinylcholine?

A

No antidote is needed

121
Q

What is the centrally acting spasmolytic drug that is used to treat IVDD?

A

Methancarbonmol

122
Q

True/False

Dantrolene is a centrally acting spasmolytic used to treat malignant hyperthermia in swine

A

False

123
Q

What are the two ways antimicrobals function to counteract infection?

A

Cidal- kills the microorganism

Static- inhibits the microorganism’s growth relying on the patient’s body/immune system to kill it

124
Q

What is MIC and how is relevant to antibiotics?

A

Minimum inhibitory concentration–>visually inhibits the growth of the bacteria

125
Q

What is antibiotic resistance and how is it perpetuated in the medical field?

A

Resistance–>the bacteria change and become resistant to drug –> perpetuated by
1- giving the wrong drug
2- not giving the drug long enough
3- not giving the right dose

126
Q

What is withdrawal time and why is it important in regards to public health?

A

The minimum amount of time given between giving a drug to a food animal and the amount of time before that animal is safe to eat. In regards to public health if the animal still has that drug in them it can cause an allergic reaction or bacteria resistance in people

127
Q

True/False

Penicillin and cephalosporin are antibiotics that work by inhibiting bacteria cell protein synthesis

A

False

128
Q

Give me a natural antibiotic that has a narrow spectrum of action and is inactivated by gastric acid.

A

Pen G

129
Q

What is meant by potentiated antibiotics?

A

Potentiated –> the combination of two drugs to enhance the benefits of both

130
Q

What antibiotic is never given to hamsters and why?

A

Penicillin, it decrease the natural flora allowing the ad bacteria to grow

131
Q

What generation of cephalosporin has the broadest spectrum of activity which includes pseudomonas?

A

4th generation

132
Q

True/False

Convenient is a good 4th generation cephalosporin

A

False

133
Q

True/False

Amino glycosides inactivate penicillin and are acceptable to use in food animals

A

False

134
Q

What protein synthesis agent can cause yellow discoloration on teeth if used in young growing animals?

A

Tetracycline

135
Q

What precautions should you take when using doxycycline in cats and why?

A

Can cause esophageal constriction so instruct client to give with lots of water

136
Q

What group of antibiotics can cause blindness in cats?

A

Fluroquinolones

137
Q

What is the drug of choice for canine diarrhea?

A

Metronidazole

138
Q

Why are antifungals more likely to cause toxicity problems in animals than antibiotics?

A

Because they are similar to animal cells in structure

139
Q

WHat is the difference between a disinfectant and an antiseptic?

A

Disinfectant –> kills on inanimate objects

Antiseptic–> kills on living tissue

140
Q

What is the drug that can be used as disinfectant as well as an antiseptic?

A

Clorhexadine –> depending on concentration

141
Q

What potentiated sulfonamide is used as a coccidiostat?

A

Albion

142
Q

Antiparasitic drugs are used to treat what two main groups of parasites?

A

Endoparasites and ectoparasites

143
Q

What averse ton is used as an antinematodal and heartworm prophylactic drug?

A

Ivermectin

144
Q

True/False

Albion is a coccidiocidal drug

A

False

From Flashcardlet (28 decks)

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