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From Flashcardlet > Anesthesia Final > Flashcards

Anesthesia Final Flashcards

0
Q

In normal occlusion, the bite is termed

A

Scissor bite

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1
Q

To protect the pulp tissue of teeth from thermal damage ultrasonic scaling, one should

A

Use constant irrigation

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2
Q

The purpose of polishing during the dental prophy is to

A

Smooth out the rough areas and retard plaque formation

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3
Q

Flow meters that have a ball for reading the gauge should be read from the _________ of the ball

A

Middle

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4
Q

The term balanced anesthesia refers to:

A

Administration of multiple drugs concurrently in smaller quantities than would be required if each were given alone

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5
Q

In small animal anesthesia, when the patient is bagged, the pressure manometer reading should not exceed:

A

20 cm H2O

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6
Q

Apical means “toward the ___________.”

A

Root tip

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7
Q

What term identifies the hard, mineralized substance on the tooth surface?

A

Calculus

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8
Q

The dental formula for the permanent teeth in the dog is 2 (13/3 and C1/1) plus

A

P4/4 and M2/3=42

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9
Q

Charcoal canisters attached to the exhaust of the anesthesia machine

A

Remove waste anesthetic gases

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10
Q

A scaler is used to

A

Scale large amounts of calculus from the tooth’s surface

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11
Q

The approximate volume of oxygen in a full E cylinder is

A

660L

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12
Q

Oxygen canisters are painted what color?

A

Green

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13
Q

A scavenging system is generally attached to:

A

The pop-off lab

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14
Q

Using the ASA physical status classification system, a patient that is moderately anemic or moderately dehydrated would be classified as

A

Class P3

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15
Q

The tidal volume of an anesthetized animal is considered to be ____________ mL/kg of body weight.

A

10

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16
Q

Using the triadan system, the proper way of describing a dog’s first upper left permanent premolar is

A

205

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17
Q

A drug-induced state of calm in which the patient is reluctant to move and is aware of but unconcerned about its surroundings

A

Tranquilizer ion

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18
Q

Which of the following examples of species associations is not correct?

A

The use of anticholinergics is recommended in ruminants to avoid airway occlusion

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19
Q

Which of the following is not a crystalloid solution?

A

Dextran

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20
Q

Which of the following fasting times is least advisable?

A

Horse: 2 to 4 hours

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21
Q

The amount of oxygen an animal is receiving is indicated by the:

A

Flow meter

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22
Q

The delivery rate of a microdrip administration set is:

A

60 gtt/mL

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23
Q

If the carbon dioxide canister is exhausted, the patient may become

A

Hypercapnic

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24
Q

Once plaque has formed on a tooth, how long does it take to mineralize into calculus?

A

3-5 days

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25
Q

The carnassial teeth in dogs are

A

P4 and M1

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26
Q

In gathering a patient history, which if the following would be the best way to frame a question about a patient’s exercise level?

A

How many times a week does your pet go for a walk or exercise, Mrs. Jones?

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27
Q

When the oxygen tank is half full, the tank pressure gauge will read approximately:

A

1100 psi

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28
Q

Which of the following statement regarding physical examination findings is incorrect?
A- patients with bruising may be at a higher risk for potentially life-threatening intraoperative and postoperative bleeding
B- dehydration increases the risk of hypotension
C- anemia predisposes the patient to hypoxemia
D- a dog with a body condition score of 8/9 will require more anesthetic per unit body weight than a dog of the same breed with a body condition score of 5/9

A

D- a dog with a body condition score 8/9 will require more anesthetic per unit body weight than a dog of the same breed with a body condition score 5/9

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29
Q

The term regional anesthesia refers to:

A

Loss of sensation in a limited area of the body produced by administration of a local anesthetic or other agent in proximity to sensory nerves

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30
Q

The following statements are all true except
A- a sulcus depth up to 3mm is normal in a cat
B- sulcus depth is measure using a probe
C- probing is best done after plaque and calculus have been removed
D- the probe is inserted gently into the gingival sulcus

A

A- a sulcus depth up to 3mm is normal in a cat

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31
Q

Some anesthetists routinely bag the patient under inhalation anesthesia once every 5-10 minutes to help prevent

A

Atelectasis

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32
Q

Using the standard fluid infusion rate of 10 mL/kg/hr and a macrodrip administration set with a delivery rate of 15 gtt/mL, a 53lb patient would require which if the following infusion and drip rates?

A

240 mL/hr; 1 gtt/sec

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33
Q

The purpose of fluoride treatment is to

A

Strengthen enamel and help desensitize teeth

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34
Q

Which of the following statements regarding IV catheter placement and use in surgery patients is incorrect?

A

Choose a catheter that is small in diameter to minimize the risk of bleeding

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35
Q

Non-rebreathing systems should have maintenance flow rates that are:

A

Very high (at least 200 mL/kg/min)

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36
Q

The minimum size for the reservoir bag can be calculated as:

A

60 mL/kg or 6xTV

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37
Q

Which of the following is a proper dental term for describing a tooth surface?

A

Buccal- facing the cheek

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38
Q

Using the triadan system, the proper way of describing a cat’s first lower right molar is

A

409

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39
Q

The pop-off valve is part of the anesthetic machine and helps:

A

Prevent excess gas pressure from building up within the breathing circuit

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40
Q

Rebreathing systems are best reserved for animals weighing more than 7kg

A

True

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41
Q

The flutter valves on an anesthetic machine help:

A

Control the direction of movement of gases

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42
Q

The last step in a complete prophy is ___________

A

Home care

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43
Q

If possible demonstrate _________ to the client.

A

Tooth brushing

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44
Q

____________ brushing is advised.

A

Daily

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45
Q

The main objective of a home care plan is ____________

A

Plaque prevention

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46
Q

A circular motion with emphasis on the __________ direction is recommended to demonstrate tooth brushing to the client

A

Coronal

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47
Q

Old oral hygiene is achieved by periodic ____________ and home care.

A

Dental prophylaxis

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48
Q

In 1997 the American Dental College formed the _______________.

A

Veterinary Oral Health Council

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49
Q

The client must be reminded that all toys should be used under ____________

A

Supervision

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50
Q

True/False

A neuromuscular blocking agent not only will paralyze skeletal muscle, but also will give some analgesia

A

False

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51
Q

True/False

Tasting pain does not improve wound healing

A

False

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52
Q

Caudal epidural administration of lidocaine in the dog is

A

An excellent caudal analgesic

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53
Q

The responsibilities of the anesthetist during a surgical procedure include continuous monitoring of the patient’s vital signs and recording observations at approximately

A

5-minute intervals

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54
Q

Use of an indwelling catheter in an artery to monitor blood pressure is termed

A

Direct monitoring

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55
Q

Some anesthetists routinely bag the patient inn inhalation anesthesia once every 5 minutes to help prevent

A

Atelectasis

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56
Q

Throughout anesthesia, the animal’s temperature should be maintained as close to normal as possible. Hypothermia can be prevented by all of the following measures except

A

Heating pad

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57
Q

A 10-year-old dog has been anesthetized for removal of a skin tumor and is now maintained on 2% isoflurane. The anesthetist observes that its respirations are 8/min and shallow, it’s heart rate is 80 beats/min, it’s pupils are centrally positioned, it’s jaw tone is slack, and all of its reflexes are absent. What should be your response or actions to the condition of this animal?

A

You should reduce the vaporizer setting and continue to monitor for signs of decreased depth

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58
Q

A drug is considered an _________ if its action at the receptor is to stimulate.

A

Agonist

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59
Q

A/an ________________ in the blood stimulates the animal to take a breath

A

Increase in carbon dioxide

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60
Q

___________ pain originates from internal organs

A

Visceral

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61
Q

Treatment for hypotension during anesthesia includes

A

Increasing the drip rate of the IV fluids

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62
Q

It is generally safe to extubate the patient when the patient

A

Swallows

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63
Q

An epidural agent would be administered where in a dog?

A

Between L7 and the sacrum

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64
Q

What drug is an antagonist of dexmedetomidine?

A

Atipamezole

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65
Q

Naloxone is classified as a(an) opioid

A

Antagonist

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66
Q

Nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drugs used to control mild postoperative pain include

A

Carprofen and ketoprofen

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67
Q

All are true statements regarding transdermal use if fentanyl except

A

Analgesic effect is immediate on placement of the patch

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68
Q

Which of the following anesthetic agents may provide some analgesia in the postoperative period?

A

Ketamine

69
Q

An alpha 2 agonist that provides sedation, muscle relaxation, and analgesia is

A

Dexmedetomidine

70
Q

A capnograph measures

A

Expired CO2

71
Q

An esophageal stethoscope can be used to monitor

A

Heart rate

72
Q

Which of the following is not an opioid drug?
A- diazepam
B- fentanyl
C- butorphanol

A

Diazepam

73
Q 
Which of the following cannot be used to detect blood pressure?
A- oscillometer
B- Doppler
C- sphygmomanometer 
D- pulse oximeter
A

D- pulse oximeter

74
Q 
Which of the following monitoring devices is invasive?
A- pulse oximeter
B- central venous pressure manometer
C- Doppler blood pressure monitor
D- oscillometric blood pressure monitor
A

B- central venous pressure manometer

75
Q

The plane of anesthesia most suitable for surgical procedures is generally conspired to be:

A

Stage III, plane 2

76
Q

Pulse oximetry allows accurate estimation of:

A

Percent saturation of hemoglobin with oxygen

77
Q

During anesthesia, a mean arterial blood pressure of less than 60mmHg indicates

A

Inadequate tissue perfusion

78
Q

A pulse oximeter reading of 89% indicates:

A

A need for supportive therapy

79
Q

An ETCO2 level of 65 would commonly be caused by:

A

Decreased tidal volume

80
Q

Regarding oxygen transport:

A

PAO2 is closely related to SPO2 (as one goes up, the other does also)

81
Q

The normal VT in an awake animal is _______ mL/kg.

A

10-15

82
Q

Local anesthetics block transmission of nerve impulses from:

A

Sensory, motor, and autonomic neurons

83
Q

What is the most common acid-base abnormality in anesthetized patients?

A

Respiratory acidosis

84
Q

When intermittent mandatory manual ventilation is applied to a patient that is connected to a circle system with a precision vaporizer, it is customary to:

A

Decrease the vaporizer setting

85
Q

Idiopathic pain is defined as:

A

Pain that is of unknown cause

86
Q

The process by which thermal, mechanical, or chemical noxious stimuli are converted into electrical. Signals called action potential is:

A

Transduction

87
Q

Where in the pain pathway does secondary sensitization or “windup” occur?

A

Spinal cord

88
Q

Which of the following statements regarding multimodal analgesic therapy is true?

A

The dose of each drug is decreased when several drugs are used

89
Q

Which if the following anesthetic plans includes multimodal analgesic therapy?

A

Dexmedetomidine, morphine, ketamine

90
Q

Which one of the following analgesic plans targets three different pain receptor mechanisms?

A

Morphine IM, ketamine CRI, lidocaine nerve block

91
Q

What is the mechanism of action of nonsteroidal anti inflammatory drugs?

A

They inhibit prostaglandin synthesis

92
Q

In the healthy awake animal, exhalation lasts at least _________ times as long as inhalation.

A

2

93
Q

Description of p wave

A

Atrial depolarization

94
Q

Description of QRS complex

A

Contraction of ventricles

95
Q

Description of T wave

A

Repolarization of the ventricles in preparation of the next contraction

96
Q

Diazepam is considered to be a good choice in patients when which body system is compromised?

A

Cardiovascular

97
Q

The combination drug Telamon contains

A

Zolazepam and tiletamine

98
Q

Which drug is not classified as a barbituate?

A

Propofol

99
Q

Glycopyrrolate is an anticholinergic with all of the following advantages over atropine except

A

Crosses the placental barrier

100
Q

What effect does atropine have on the heart rate?

A

Increases

101
Q

The advantage of xylazine over acepromazine is that it

A

Produces a short period of analgesia

102
Q

Routine use of atropine in horses should be avoided, because it may

A

Cause colic

103
Q

Which drug should be avoided in the stallion because it may cause permanent prolapse of the penis?

A

Acepromazine

104
Q

A 10% solution of thiopental sodium for anesthetic induction contains

A

100 mg/mL

105
Q

Diazepam is used to produce

A

Muscle relaxation

106
Q

What volume of thiopental sodium should be administered intravenously to a 500-kg horse for induction of anesthesia? The dosage is 8 mg/kg, and you are using a 10% solution.

A

40 mL

107
Q

Propofol is a/n

A

Nonbarbituate, intravenous anesthetic with hypotensive potential

108
Q

Acepromazine should be avoided in

A

Patients with a history of seizures

109
Q

Which drug is a dissociative anesthetic?

A

Ketamine

110
Q

A neuroleptanalgesic is a combination of:

A

An opioid and a tranquilizer

111
Q

Anticholinergic drugs such as atropine block the release of acetylcholine at the:

A

Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system

112
Q

Severe bradycardia caused by dexmedetomidine is best treated with the following drug:

A

Atipamezole

113
Q

Etomidate is particularly well suited for induction of dogs with which of the following problems?

A

Severe cardiac disease

114
Q

Compare with methoxyflurane, isoflurane is considered to have a:

A

Higher vapor pressure

115
Q

An anesthetic agent that has a low blood-gas partition coefficient will result in __________ induction and recovery time.

A

Feast

116
Q

Which of the following has the lowest blood-gas partition coefficient?

A

Sevoflurane

117
Q

As rough guideline, to safely maintain a surgical plane of anesthesia, the vaporizer should be set at about:

A

1.5 x MAC

118
Q

Propofol sometimes causes transient apnea. To avoid this, the anesthetist should:

A

Titrate this drug in several blouses

119
Q

Which if the following statements about how to induce anesthesia in a young healthy patient using an IV agent such as thiopental or Propofol is least accurate?
A- if, after giving the initial amount, the patient is not adequately anesthetized to allow intubation, give the rest of the calculated dose
B- draw up the calculated dose, give about 1/4 to 1/2 first, and give the rest to effect
C- you must be sure the drug gets in the vein
D- old, sick, or debilitated patients often require less

A

A- If, after giving the initial amount, the patient is not adequately anesthetized to allow intubation, give the rest of the calculated dose

120
Q

Which if the following statements concerning endotracheal intubation is false?

A

Choosing a tube that is too short may cause increased mechanical dead space

121
Q

Which of the following is an indicator that the endotracheal tube has been place in the esophagus instead of the trachea?

A

The unidirectional valves don’t move

122
Q

After an anesthetic procedure, when is it best to extubate a dog?

A

When the animal begins to swallow

123
Q

Which of the following protocols would result in the fastest induction time and the best control over anesthetic depth?

A

IV induction with an ultra short acting agent, and maintenance with an inhalant

124
Q

Which volatile anesthetic agent is the most potent?

A

One with a MAC of 0.09

125
Q

Glycopyrrolate should be used in rabbits, instead of atropine, because:

A

Many rabbits have high levels of atropinase, so atropine is relatively ineffective

126
Q

Pulse oximeters can be used in small mammals, but they may not be reliable because:

A

The heart rate of the animal may exceed the upper range of the instrument

127
Q

The position of the eye cannot be used to assess the depth of anesthesia in rodents because:

A

The position of the eye does not change during anesthesia

128
Q

An advantage of using medetomidine combined with ketamine for anesthesia of rodents and rabbits is that:

A

It can be partially reversed using atipamizole, allowing faster recovery

129
Q

An adult mouse weighing 40g will have a blood volume of approximately:

A

3 mL

130
Q

When fluids such as lactated ringers solution are given to small mammals, they should be:

A

Warmed to body temperature before administration, to avoid causing hypothermia

131
Q

Anesthetic breathing circuits for use in small rabbits should:

A

Have low equipment dead space

132
Q

When small rodents are anesthetized with injectable anesthetics:

A

Oxygen should be administered, because most anesthetics depress respiration

133
Q

Postoperative analgesic should be given to rodents and rabbits to alleviate pain, but:

A

Opioids must be given with care if a neuroleptanalgesic mixture has been used for anesthesia

134
Q

If postoperative pain is not alleviated in rabbits, then:

A

They will not eat or drink normally

135
Q

When an animal scheduled for a surgical procedure is brought in by a neighbor who is in a hurry, the best thing to do is:

A

Have the neighbor sign the consent form and ensure that the owner is called before the procedure is initiated.

136
Q

In preparation for an anesthetic procedure, you have drawn up a syringe of barbiturate and an identical syringe if saline. Your are then called to the examination rom to assist the veterinarian. About 10 minutes later you return to prepare the animal for induction. With the IV catheter in place, you are just about to inject some saline into the animal when you realize that you are not sure if the syringe contains saline. The best thing to do would be to:

A

Discard both syringes, label some new syringes, and start over

137
Q

You are about to use the anesthetic machine and notice that although the flow meter is working, the pressure gauge on the oxygen tank reads close to zero. The best thing to do would be to:

A

Change the oxygen tank

138
Q

While monitoring a patient on an anesthetic machine, you realize that the oxygen tank has become empty. The best thing to do would be to:

A

Disconnect the patient from the circuit, put on a new oxygen tank, and then reconnect the patient to the circuit

139
Q

If the pop-off valve is inadvertently left shut off, it will:

A

Cause a significant rise of pressure within the circuit

140
Q

You look at the oxygen tank and not that 1000 psi of pressure is left in the tank, but the flow meter now reads zero and you cannot obtain a flow by twisting the knobs. The best thing to do would be to assume:

A

The animal is not getting oxygen, and you need to remove the animal from the circuit until a new machine is found or the problem is corrected

141
Q

A geriatric patient is considered to be one that:

A

Has reached 75% of its life expectancy

142
Q

Brain damage may occur when there is inadequate oxygenation of the tissues for longer than _______ minutes.

A

4

143
Q

When a technician is performing CPR alone, the ratio of cardiac compressions to ventilation should be:

A

10:2

144
Q

To ensure that the benefit an animal obtains from CPR is not lost, one should not discontinue cardiac compressions for longer than:

A

3 to 5 seconds

145
Q

True/False

Respiratory arrest is always fatal

A

False

146
Q

One may suspect that the endotracheal tube is malfunctioning even if it in the trachea because:
A- compression of the reservoir bag does not result in the raising of the chest
B- the animal is dyspneic
C- the animal cannot be kept at an adequate plane of anesthesia
D- the reservoir bag is not moving or is moving very little

A

A, B, C, D

147
Q

One may suspect that the pop-off valve has been closed or that it is malfunctioning if the:

A

Reservoir bag is distended with air & patient has difficulty exhaling

148
Q

Administration if the normal rate of fluids (10 mL/kg/hr) during an anesthetic procedure may result in over hydration in the:

A

Patient with cardiac disease & pediatric patient

149
Q

Brachycephalic dogs may be at increased anesthetic risk because of their:

A

Excess tissue around the oropharynx
Increased Vagal tone
Small trachea in comparison with their physical body size

150
Q

To decrease the anesthetic risk associated with a brachycephalic dog, the anesthetist may elect to:
A- use atropine as part of the anesthetic protocol
B- preoxygenate the animal before giving any anesthetic
C- use an injectable anesthetic to hasten induction rather than masking
D- ensure intubation is done quickly after induction

A

A, B, C, D

151
Q

Animals that undergo cesarean section are at increased risk during anesthesia because of:
A- decreased respiratory function
B- increased chance of aspiration vomitus
C- increased chance of hemorrhage
D- increased workload of the heart

A

A, B, C, D

152
Q

Anesthetic agents or drugs that one may want to avoid in the animal with cardiovascular disease include:

A

Halothane

Xylazine

153
Q

An animal that has liver dysfunction may be hypoproteinemic and therefore requires ______________ for induction compared with that needed for a normal dog.

A

Less barbiturate

154
Q

Too light a plane of anesthesia may be the result of:
A- a flow rate that is too low
B- an incorrect vaporizer setting
C- incorrect placement of the endotracheal tube
D- use of an anesthetic with a low MAC

A

A, B, C

155
Q

Tachypnea may result from:

A

Increased levels of arterial CO2

Too light a plane of anesthesia

156
Q

When the blood pressure drops the veterinarian may ask the technician to infuse a colloid. Which of the following is not a colloid?

A

Hypertonic saline

157
Q

True/False

Laryngospasm is more common in the dog than in the cat.

A

False

158
Q

True/False

Treatment of bradycardia can always be reversed with an anticholinergic.

A

False

159
Q

Tachyarrhythmias it the cat are best treated with:

A

Propranolol

160
Q

True/False

Waste anesthetic gases are a potential hazard to personnel, but problems that arise are only of long-term nature.

A

False

161
Q

True/False
Long-term toxicity of inhalation anesthetics is thought to be caused by the release of toxic metabolizes during the breakdown of these drugs within the body

A

True

162
Q

The anesthetic most clearly associated with neurological and adverse reproductive effects is:

A

Nitrous oxide

163
Q

In the United States, the National Institute for Occupational Safety and Health (NIOSH) recommends that the levels of waste anesthetic gases for anesthetics such as isoflurane,halothane, or methoxyflurane should not exceed ________ ppm.

A

2

164
Q

The odor of halothane may be detected by a person when the levels reach a minimum of ________ ppm

A

33

165
Q

True/False

Rooms in which animals are recovering from anesthesia may be highly contaminated with waste gases.

A

True

166
Q

Which of the following can be used to effectively monitor waste anesthetic gas levels?

A

Passive dosimeter badge

167
Q

How often should a test for low-pressure leaks be conducted?

A

Each day that the machine is used

168
Q

The safest way to transport a large high-pressure tank, such as an oxygen tank, is by:

A

Using a handcart

169
Q

How many air changes per hour should be available in a room in which waste anesthetic gases are present?

A

15

170
Q

A technician may reduce the amount of waste gases by:

A

Using cuffed endotracheal tubes
Ensuring that the anesthetic machine has been tested for leaks
Using an injectable agent rather than a a mask or chamber

171
Q

To conduct a low-pressure test on an anesthetic machine (circle system), you must:

A

Close the pop-off valve and occlude the end of the circuit
Compress the reservoir bag
Pressurize the circuit with a volume of gas

From Flashcardlet (28 decks)

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