1101 to 1200 Flashcards
(100 cards)
- A lady comes with a missing IUCD thread. Her LMP was 2wks ago. What is the single most appropriate next step in management? a. Abdominal US b. Prescribe contraceptives c. CT d. Serum BHCG e. Vaginal exam
Ans. The key is A. Abdominal US. It is wrong key! Correct key is E. Vaginal exam. [LOST THREAD: First confirm the thread is not in position by vaginal examination. If not present ultrasound should be arranged to locate the device. If ultrasound does not locate the device and there is no definite history of expulsion then abdominal X- ray should be performed to look for an extrauterine device.Expul
- A 32yo woman presents with hx of lower abdominal pain and vaginal discharge. She had her menses 4wk ago. She has a temp of 38.6C. What is the most suitable dx? a. Acute appendicitis b. Acute PID c. Endometriosis d. Ectopic pregnancy e. UTI
Ans. The key is B. Acute PID. [Fever, lower abdominal pain and vaginal discharge are features of PID].
- A 40yo female was on COCP which she stopped 6m ago. But she has not had her periods since then. Labs: FSH=22, LH=24, prolactin=700, estradiol=80. What is the most appropriate dx? a. Hypothalamic amenorrhea b. Post pill amenorrhea c. Prolactinoma d. Pregnancy e. Premature ovarian failure
Ans. The key is E. Premature ovarian failure. [ FSH and LH are raised in ovarian failure; an FSH level ≥20 IU/l in a woman aged around 40 with secondary amenorrhoea indicates ovarian failure. In POF there is also a mild to moderate rise in prolactin].
- A 25yo woman presents with a single lump in the breast and axilla. The lump is mobile and hard in consistency. The US, mammogram and FNA turn out to be normal. What is the most appropriate inv to confirm the dx? a. FNAC b. MRI c. Punch biopsy d. Genetic testing and counselling e. Core biopsy
Ans. The key is E. Core biopsy. [The lump is suspicious but US, mammogram and FNA turn out to be normal. So most appropriate investigation to confirm diagnosis is core biopsy. It is often the preferred biopsy method because it is accurate and does not involve surgery].
- A 37yo lady stopped taking COCP 18m ago and she had amenorrhea for 12m duration. Labs: FSH=8, LH=7, prolactin=400, estradiol=500. What is the cause? a. Hypothalamic amenorrhea b. PCOS c. Prolactinoma d. Post pill amenorrhea e. POF
Ans. The key is D. Post pill amenorrhea. [Post pill amenorrhea= failure to resume menses within 6 months of stopping pill, but she was amenorrheic for 12 months!!].
- A lady with a firm smooth breast lump in outer quadrant had a FNAC done. Results showed borderline benign changes. She also has a fam hx of breast cancer. What is the your next? a. Mammography b. US c. Core biopsy d. Genetic testing and counselling e. Punch biopsy
Ans. The key is D. Genetic testing and counselling. Probably wrong key! Correct one should be C. Core biopsy. [Genetic testing is done for asymptomatic patients in their 30s and if positive SERMs are given which cause significant reduction in cancer . Since patient has firm breast lump in upper outer quadrant ( most common location for cancer) and FNAC has shown borderline benign changes plus pati
- A pt presents with mild dyskaryosis. 1y ago smear was normal. What is the most appropriate next step? a. Cauterization b. Repeat smear c. Swab and culture d. Cone biopsy e. Colposcopy
Ans. The key is E. Colposcopy. [In mild dyscariosis colposcopy should be done with HPV test].
- An African lady presents with heavy but regular periods. Her uterine size correlates to 14wks pregnancy. What is the most appropriate dx? a. Blood dyscrasia b. Hematoma c. Fibroids d. Adenomyosis e. Incomplete abortion
Ans. The key is C. Fibroids. [Regular heavy menstruation in a uterus of 14 wk size is highly suggestive of fibroid].
- A 29yo at 38wks GA presents with a 2h hx of constant abdominal pain. She then passes 100ml of blood per vagina. What is the next appropriate inv? a. USS b. CTG c. Clotting screen d. Hgb e. Kleihauer Betke test
Ans. The key is A. USS. [Ultrasonogram scan can detect placental abrubtion and fetal heart beat as well. So it is the preferred key over CTG].
- A 26yo woman had amenorrhea for 10wks and is pregnant. She experiences hyperemesis. Now she presents with vaginal bleed. Exam: uterus=16wks, closed os. What is the most probable dx? a. Thyrotoxicosis b. Hyperemesis gravidarum c. Twins d. Wrong dates e. Molar pregnancy
Ans. The key is E. Molar pregnancy. [In hytaditidiform mole uterus becomes more in size than actual gestational age and due to production of large amount of gonadotrophin by moles patient suffers from severe vomiting i.e. hyperemesis. There also occurs vaginal bleeding].
- A pregnant woman of G2, GA 11wks presents with heavy vomiting, headache and reduced urine output. Urine analysis shows ketonuria. Choose the next best step? a. US b. Oral fluid replacement c. Serum BHCG d. Parental anti-emetics e. IV fluids
Ans. The key is E. IV fluids. [Hyperemesis gravidarum with oliguria and ketonuria. IV fluid should be started to prevent renal failure].
- A pt had inflammatory changes on cervical smear. There is no vaginal discharge, no pelvic pain and no fever. What is the next step? a. Repeat smear in 6m b. Take swab c. Treat with antibiotics d. Colposcopy e. Cone biopsy
Ans. The key is B. Take swab. This is a wrong key! Correct key is A. Repeat smear in 6 months. [Ref: Samson notes].
- A 37yo infertile lady with 5cm subserosal and 3cm submucosal fibroid is trying to get pregnant. Which is the most suitable option? a.Clomifen therapy b. IVF c. Myomectomy d. Hysterectomy e. IU insemination
Ans. The key is C. Myomectomy. [Fibroids are preventing from her being pregnant. So myomectomy is the most suitable option to let her get pregnant].
- A young tall man and his wife are trying for babies and present at the infertility clinic. On inv the man has primary infertilitiy and azoopermia. What other inv should be done? a. Testosterone b. LSH c. FSH d. Estradiol e. Karyotyping
Ans. The key is E. Karyotyping. [The likely diagnosis is Klinefelter’s syndrome for which Karyotyping should be done to make the diagnosis established].
- A woman who is on regular COCP presented to you for advice on what to do as she has to now start to take a course of 7d antibiotics. What would you advice? a. Continue regular COC b. Continue COCP and backup contraception using condoms for 2d c. Continue COCP and backup contraception using condoms for 7d d. Continue COCP and backup contraception using condoms for 2wks
Ans. The key is D. Continue COCP and backup contraception using condoms for 2wks. This is wrong key! Correct key should be A. Continue regular COCP. [Before it was thought that antibiotics alter the gut flora and ethinyloestradiol is not conjugated. There is more ethinyloestradiol passed in the stool. So pregnancy and breakthrough bleeding can occur. But later it was established that except for st
- A lady presents with hot flashes and other symptoms of menopause. What is the tx option? a. Raloxifen b. HRT c. Bisphosphonate d. COCP e. Topical estrogen
Ans. The key is B. HRT
- A 28yo woman at 34wks GA for her first pregnancy attends antenatal clinic. Her blood results: Hgb=10.6, MCV=95, MCHC=350. What do you do for her? a. Folate b. Dextran c. Ferrous sulphate d. None e. IV FeSO4 f. Explain this physiologic hemodynamic anemia g. Blood transfusion
Ans. The key is F. Explain this physiologic hemodynamic anemia. [According to NICE, cut offs for iron supplements: at booking (8-10 weeks)- if less than 11 at 28 weeks and further- if less than 10.5 if less than these values=> give iron].
- A 34yo woman who never had fits or high BP developed fits 6h after delivery of a term healthy child. What is the most likely dx? a. Eclampsia b. Preeclampsia c. Epilepsy d. Pulmonary embolism e. Pregnancy induced HTN
Ans. The key is A. Eclampsia. [In eclampsia seizers occurs within 24 hours mostly and majority within 12 hours. Also single seizure doesn’t support epilepsy strongly. So likely answer is A. Eclampsia].
- A 30yo lady who already has one child through a prv C-section demands a reversible contraception. She presently experiences heavy and painful periods. What is the most appropriate contraceptive you will recommend for her? a. COCP b. POP c. Implanon d. Danazol e. Mirena f. IUCD
Ans. The key is E. Mirena.
- A 32yo woman comes with intermenstrual bleeding. Her last cervical smear was 1y ago and was negative. What test would you recommend for her initially? a. Colposcopy b. Cervical smear c. Endocervical swab d. Transvaginal US e. Pelvic CT
Ans. The key is B. Cervical smear. This is a wrong key! Correct key is C. Endocervical swab. [Smear can only be done if it is due or overdue, not in any time or not as needed basis].
- A 20yo woman has had abdominal pain in the LIF for 6wks duration. Over the past 48h, she has severe abdominal pain and has a fever of 39.1C. Pelvic US shows a complex cystic 7cm mass in the LIF. What is the most likely dx? a. Endometriosis b. Dermoid cyst c. Ovarian ca d. Tubo-ovarian abscess e. Ectopic pregnancy
Ans. The key is D. Tubo-ovarian abscess.
- A woman is 16wk pregnant and she is worried about abnormal chromosomal anomaly in her child. What is the definitive inv at this stage? a. Amniocentesis b. CVS (Chorionic Villous Sampling) c. Parents karyotyping d. Coomb’s test e. Pre-implantation genetic dx
Ans. The key is A. Amniocentesis. [Amniocentesis is done between 14 to 16 weeks of gestation. CVS is done prior to 15 weeks. So the option is A. Amniocentesis].
- A 28yo lady with a fam hx of CF comes for genetic counselling and wants the earliest possible dx test for CF for the baby she is planning. She is not in favor of termination. What would you recommend for her? a. CVS (Chorionic Villous Sampling) b. Amniocentesis c. Pre-implantation genetic dx d. Chromosomal karyotyping e. Maternal serum test f. Reassure
Ans. C. Pre-implantation genetic dx. [Patient is not yet pregnant but planning for pregnancy. Earliest possible diagnostic test for CF is Pre-implantation genetic dx. Preimplantation genetic diagnosis (PGD) is a procedure used prior to implantation to help identify genetic defects within embryos created through in vitro fertilization to prevent certain diseases or disorders from being passed on to
- A 39yo woman in her 36th week GA with acute abdominal pain is rushed for immediate delivery. Her report: BP=110/60mmHg, Hgb=low, bilirubin=22, AST=35, Plt=60, APTT=60, PT=30, Fibrinogen=0.6. What is the cause? a. Pregnancy induced hypertension b. DIC c. HELLP syndrome d. Acute fatty live e. Obstetric cholestasis
Ans. The key is B. DIC. [It is not HELLP syndrome as liver enzyme is not elevated. Acute abdominal pain may indicate concealed abruption placenta which may lead to DIC].