801 to 900 Flashcards
(100 cards)
- A 78yo gentleman suddenly collapsed. His HR=120bpm, BP=70/40mmHg. Exam: pulsatile mass in abdomen. What is the most appropriate dx? a. Aortic aneurysm b. Mesenteric cyst c. Umbilical hernia
Ans. The key is A. Aortic aneurism. [There is features of shock with pulse 120bpm and bp 70/40mmHg and sudden collapse of the patient with pulsatile mass in abdomen makes the likely diagnosis of ruptured aortic aneurism].
- A woman prv in good health presents with sudden onset of severe occipital headache and vomiting. Her only physical sign on exam is a stiff neck. Choose the most likely dx. a. Subarachnoid hemorrhage b. Subdural hematoma c. Cerebellar hemorrhage d. Migraine e. Cerebral embolus
Ans. The key is A. Subarachnoid hemorrhage. [Sudden onset severe occipital headache and vomiting with stiffness makes the likely diagnosis to be subarachnoid hemorrhage].
- A 34yo housemaid presents with headaches in the back of her head for several days and pain on flexing her neck. What is the most likely cause? a. Subdural hemorrhage b. Cervical spondylosis c. Subarachnoid hemorrhage d. Meningitis e. Cluster headache
Ans. The key is B. Cervical spondylosis. [Headache in the back of head and pain on flexing neck is early feature of cervical spondylosis which gradually progress to later symptoms like radiculopathies due to root compression in arms and hands]
- A 40yo man complains of thirst and lethargy. His BP=140/90mmHg, corrected Ca2+=3.7mmol/l. What is the most appropriate management at this stage? a. IV fluids b. Prednisolone c. IV hydrocortisone d. Calcium prep
Ans. The key is A. IV fluids. [Hypercalcemia is treated by IV fluids].
- A 75yo man on digoxin develops weakness in the right upper and lower limbs which resolves within a few hours. What is the most definitive inv for this condition? a. Carotid Doppler b. Angiography c. CT head d. Digoxin level
Ans. The key is B. Angiography. Probably wrong key! Correct key is C. CT head. [Patient on digoxin means he is being yreated for atrial fibrillation with heart failure and the cause of tia is cardiac in origine! So carotid dopplar or carotid angiography is not the answer. Again for tia investigation of choice is MRI (if not available CT) NICE guideline. So for this question definitove investigatio
- A 35yo man presents with balance problems, headache, SNHL and loss of coreneal reflex on the left side. What is the most definitive inv? a. CT scan of internal auditory meatus b. Nuclear imagine of the brain c. MRI of internal auditory meatus d. MRI brain
Ans. The key is D. MRI brain. Wrong key! “Most definitive” is MRI internal auditory meatus. [Probable diagnosis is left sided acaustic neuroma. For this most definitive investigation is MRI internal auditory meatus].
- A 52yo man has a painful, red, photophobic right eye with slightly blurred vision and watering for 3days. He has had no such episodes in the past. On slit lamp examination there are cells and flare in the ant chamber and pupil is sluggish to react. What is the single most appropriate clinical dx? a. Acute close-angle glaucoma b. Acute conjunctivitis c. Acute dacrocystitis d. Acute iritis e. C
Ans. The key is D. acute iritis. [In iritis there is flares and cells in anterior chamber. In iritis pupil may be irregular but in angle closure glaucoma pupil is slightly dilated and oval in shape. In iritis there is no halo around light but in glaucoma there is halo around light].
- A 55yo lady with swelling on the abdomen below the umbilicus on the right side. What is the single most appropriate lymph node? a. External iliac LN b. Pre-aortic LN c. Aortic LN d. Inguinal LN e. Iliac LN f. Submental LN g. Submandibular LN h. Deep cervical LN
Ans. The key is D. Inguinal LN.
- A 66yo male presents with painful swallowing. What is the most likely dx? a. Nesseria meningitides b. Cryptococcus neoformans c. Candida albicans d. Isospora belli e. Mycobacterium avium
Ans. The key is C. Candida albicans. [Oesophageal candidiasis].
- A 45yo lady complains of expressable galactorrhea, decreased libido and amenorrhea, weight gain and easy fatigue. Her serum prolactin levels are 1100um/l. what is the likely cause of hyperprolactinemia? a. Hypothyroidism b. Stress c. Pregnancy d. Prolactin secreting pituitary tumor e. PCOS
Ans. The key is D. Wrong key. Correct key should be A. Hypothyroidism. [ It is likely to be hypothyroidism because prolactin level in hypothyroidism may be 30-200ng/ml which means 630-4200 mIU/L. Though weight gain can occur but fatigue is not a feature of prolactinoma unless it is a macroadenoma causing suppression of other pituitary hormone! given prolactin level of 1100 IU/L is definitely from
- A 42yo female had sudden severe headache and vomiting. She took paracetamol and then collapsed. What is the most likely dx? a. SAH b. Viral encephalitis c. Meningitis d. Anaphylaxis
Ans. The key is A. SAH. [Sudden headache, vomiting, collapse are suggestive of SAH].
- Parents of a 3m baby are worried about cot death. What advice would you give? a. Lay on the back with feet towards head end b. Lay on the back with feet towards feet end c. Lay on side d. Lay on stomach
Ans. The key is B. Lay on the back with feet towards feet end.
- A child born at 36wks developed difficulty in breathing with intercoastal recession and nasal flaring. His temp is normal but his mother had PROM 48h ago. What is the most likely inv that will lead to tx? a. Blood culture b. CXR c. Stool culture d. Sputum culture
Ans. B. CXR. This is wrong key! Correct key is A. Blood culture. (please see the attachment below where the last line mentions investigations is for sepsis). [Probable diagnosis is Neonatal Pneumonia as there is respiratory signs and history of PROM. In extremes of age pneumonia or sepsis may be with normal temperature or even there may be hypothermia. Here pneumonia is a part of sepsis and invest
- A 68yo man has had increasing dysphagia for solid food for 3m and has lost 5kgs in weight. What single inv is most likely to lead to a def dx? a. Barium swallow b. CXR c. CT chest d. Endoscopy and biopsy e. Video-fluoroscopy
Ans. The key is D. Endoscopy and biopsy. [Likely cause is malignant stricture for which endoscopic biopsy is the definitive investigation].
- A 24yo male was trying to move his wardrobe but it fell on his thigh. It was there for a very long time before someone was able to remove it. When he was seen in ED he had casts in his urine but no RBCs. Other inv showed hypocalcemia and high serum creatinine. What is the cause for his renal failure? a. Acetylcholine b. Myoglobin c. Myotroponin d. Acetyl acetate
Ans. The key is B. Myoglobin. [The likely diagnosis is Rhabdomyolysis where renal failure occurs due to myoglobin (myoglobins are released after breakdown of skeletal muscles)].
- Anatomical structure to be pierced during surgery midline port during gallstone removal. a. External iliac muscle b. Cricoid cartilage c. Linea alba d. Rectus sheath muscle e. Duramater f. 1st tracheal cartilage g. Conjoined tendon h. Intercostal muscles
Ans. The key is C. Linea alba.
- A 48yo man has continuous ant chest pain which is worse on inspiration and has temp of 37.5C since 4wks after a MI. His ESR=45mm/h. What is the single most likely explanation for the abnormal inv? a. Acute pericarditis b. Cardiac tamponade c. Atrial thrombus d. Left ventricular aneurysm e. Dressler syndrome
The key is E. Dressler syndrome. [Dressler syndrome usually occurring two to five weeks after the initial event but it can be delayed for as long as three months. It is characterised by pleuritic chest pain, low- grade fever and pericarditis].
- An 8yo child swallowed 12 tablets of paracetamol 4h ago. Serum paracetamol levels when tested were at critical level. What would you do next? a. Activated charcoal b. IV N-acetylcysteine c. Gastric lavage d. Observation only
Ans. The key is B. IV N-acetylcystine. [As 4 hour paracetol level is at critical level start IV N-acetyltine at once]. Manaement of paracetamol poisoning: GI decontamination is recommended in those presenting <4h after OD. Activated charcoal 1g/kg (max 50g) is the treatment of choice, reducing serum levels more than gastric lavage and limiting liver injury. • Glucose, U&E, LFT, INR, ABG, FBC, HCO3
- A pt dx with DVT is taking warfarin. What is his cut off INR limit? a. <1 b. 1-2 c. 2-3 d. 3-4
Ans. The key is C. 2-3. [This range is appropriate for the prophylaxis or treatment of venous thromboembolism and reduction of the risk of systemic embolism for people with atrial fibrillation and valvular heart disease].
- Inserting a drain in the mid-axillary line. What is the single most appropriate anatomical structure? a. External iliac muscle b. Linea alba c. Rectus sheath muscle d. Conjoined tendon e. Intercostal muscles
Ans. The key is E. Intercostal muscles.
- A 29yo man presents with hx of cough, weight loss and night sweats. Exam: pansystolic murmur. What is the most appropriate dx of underlying cause? a. Malaria b. HSP c. HIV d. Dengue fever
Ans. The key is C. HIV. [Though not mentioned IV drug abusers may have tricuspid regurgitation causing pansystolic murmur and HIV also very common in this group].
- A 15yo boy presents with recurrent breathlessness and wheeze especially after exercise. What is the most diagnostic inv? a. CXR b. Lung function test c. PEFR d. CT scan
Ans. The key is B. Lung function test. [Assessment of severity of airflow obstruction can diagnose asthma and COPD].
- A 34yo man was walking along the country side when an insect bit him. After which he started to complain of an annular rash spreading upwards. a. Penicillin PO b. Doxycycline PO c. Flucloxacillin PO d. Gentamicin PO e. Ciprofloxacin PO f. Antihistamine PO g. Antihistamine IV h. Corticosteroid IV i. Corticosteroid IM j. Adrenaline IM k. Adrenaline IV l. Atropine IV m. Reassurance
Ans. The key is B. Doxycycline PO. [Described rash is erythema migrans which is characteristic skin lesion seen in lyme disease. Lyme disease is treated with Doxycycline].
- A 60yo man was brought in by his wife complaining of ataxia, urinary incontinence and erectile dysfunction. He also complains of rigidity and slowing of movement with a pill rolling tremor of the hands. What is the likely dx? a. Parkinson’s disease b. Idiopathic parkinson’s disease c. Shy-drager syndrome d. Huntington’s disease
Ans. The key is C. Shy-drager syndrome. [Shy-drager syndrome is characterized by parkinsonism (rigidity, slowing of movement with hand tremors) plus a more pronounced failure of the autonomic nervous system (urinary incontinence and erectile dysfunction) and there may also cerebellar sign like ataxia be present]. [Please note the discrepancy of this question (may be a bad recall) that classic pill