1301 to 1400 Flashcards
(100 cards)
- The biological parents of a child with CF come to you to know about the chances of their future children with the same disease. What would you say to them? a. There is a 1:4 chance that your future child will have this disease b. All their unaffected children will be carriers of CF c. Nothing can be predicted d. It can 100% dx antenatally
Ans. The key is A. There is a 1:4 chance that your future child will have this disease. [It is autosomal recessive disease. As one child is affected both parents are carrier. So in this case next child will be normal in 1:4 case, carrier in 1:2 cases and diseased in 1:4 cases].
- A 14yo boy presents with recurrent abdominal pain, malaise and weight loss over 6m. Exam: vague mass is felt in RIF. Colonoscopy shows transmural inflammation and granulomata. What is the most appropriate management? a. Sulfasalazine b. Paracetamol c. Metronidazole d. Ibuprofen
Ans. The key is C. Metronidazole. It is a wrong key. Correct key should be A. Sulfasalazine. [Drug of 1st preference is Steroids, then immunosuppressants, then amynosalicylates (such as sulfasalazine). Metronidazole is used if there is infective complications like infected perianal fistula
- A 62yo prv shipyard worker complains of breathlessness and chest pain for 6m. He has now developed a large pleural effusion. Which is the single best diagnostic inv? a. ABG b. Bronchoscopy c. CXR d. Pleural biopsy e. Transfer factor
Ans. The key is D. Pleural biopsy. [Shipyard worker is exposed to asbestos and the likely diagnosis here is mesothelioma for which single best investigation is pleural biopsy].
- A 67yo man presents with a hx of increasing confusion and drowsiness. He had a fall 2wk ago. CT head reveals a chronic subdural hematoma. What is the best management for this pt? a. Craniotomy b. Burr hole drainage c. Conservative management d. Excision and biopsy
Ans. The key is B. Burr hole drainage.
- A 45yo male with epigastric discomfort has been given triple therapy. He has now returned after 4wks of epigastric discomfort. What inv would you do for him? a. ECG b. H.pylori breath test c. Endoscopy and biopsy d. US
Ans. The key is C. Endoscopy and biopsy. This is a wrong key! Correct key is B. H. pylori breath test.
- A 13yo boy with umbilical pain for the last 12h presents with anorexia, nausea and has not passed a bowel motion 24h. What is your dx? a. Acute appendicitis b. IBD c. IBS d. Meckel’s diverticulum e. Muscle strain f. Ovarian cysts g. PID h. Psoas hematoma i. Pyelonephritis j. Uretric calculus
Ans. The key is D. Meckel’s diverticulum. [In appendicitis pain shifts to rt iliac fossa].
- A 46yo man with tachycardia has the following ECG. What is the most likely dx? a. SVT b. VT c. Mobitz I heart block d. Atrial fibrillation e. WPW syndrome
Ans. The key is E. WPW syndrome. [Short PR interval and slurred delta wave indicates WPW syndrome].
- A 24yo male is admitted with acute severe asthma. Tx is initiated with 100% oxygen, nebulized salbutamol and ipratropium bromide nebulizers and IV hydrocortisone. Despite initial tx there is no improvement. Which is the next step in management? a. IV aminophylline b. IV magnesium sulphate c. IV salbutamol d. IM adrenaline e. IV adrenaline
Ans. The key is B. IV magnesium sulphate.
- A 49yo man first presented with increasing difficulty in swallowing. Several months later he developed weakness in his right foot. Now he can no longer feed himself, he chokes on food and has become confined to a wheelchair. What is the most likely dx? a. Cerebral tumor b. Myasthenia gravis c. Lambert-Eaton syndrome d. Motor neuron disease e. Cerebro-vascular disease
Ans. The key is D. Motor neuron disease. [The picture is of amyotrophic lateral sclerosis with bulbar onset, so it has very bad prognosis].
- A 10yo boy with lower abdominal pain for the last 10d presents with a hx of passing 6-8 loose stools. Temp=38.8C. He is tender in the right lower quadrant and has an anal fistula. Choose the single most likely cause of abdominal pain. a. IBD b. IBS c. Pyelonephritis d. Uretric calculus e. Gastroenteritis
Ans. The key is A. IBD. [Likely diagnosis is crohn’s disease which is often associated with perianal fistula formation].
- A 28yo woman with hx of drug addiction wants to start a family and have a baby. She would like to stop taking heroin and asked for something to help her stay away from it. What drug tx would you give her? a. Naloxone b. Acamprosate c. Methadone d. Chlordiazepoxide e. Naltrexone
Ans. The key is C. Methadone. [Methadone is a powerful synthetic analgesic drug which is similar to morphine in its effects but less sedative and is used as a substitute drug in the treatment of morphine and heroin addiction].
- A pt with vesicles in the maxillary divison of trigeminal nerve. Which area of mucus membrane will be involved? a. Palate b. Cheek c. Cornea d. Conjunctiva
Ans. The key is B. Cheek. [It also involve soft palate but not hard palate. So cheek is more complete answer than palate. Conjuctiva is more affected in ophthalmic division of trigeminal nerve].
- A 52yo man presents with visual hallucinations and features of cognitive impairment. What is the most likely dx? a. Frontotemporal dementia b. Lewy body dementia c. Delirium tremens d. Alzheimer’s disease e. Huntington’s disease
Ans. The key is B. Lewy body dementia. [Visual hallucinations and cognitive impairment are suggestive of Lewy body dementia. Hallucination is prominent feature of LBD than Alzheimers. Again cognitive impairment goes more with LBD while prominent early memory loss symptom suggests Alzheimer’s].
- A 40yo woman who has recently returned from working in the middle east complains of thirst, episode of loin pain, urinary frequency, dysuria and has passed a urinary stone. All inv are normal. She plans to return to the Middle East in a month’s time. What is the single best advice to prevent recurrent stone formation? a. Drink less milk b. High fibre diet c. Increase fluid intake d. Low calc
Ans. The key is C. Increased fluid intake. [ Risk factors for renal stones include being overweight, certain foods, some medications, and not drinking enough fluids].
- A 32yo man presents with 3d of scrotal pain. Exam: thickening o the left testis and it is hot to touch. What is the most appropriate management? a. Analgesia b. Reassurance c. Antibiotics d. Referral to surgeon
Ans. The key is C. Antibiotics. [scrotal pain of 3 days with thickening of testis which is hot to touch suggests epididymoorchitis, which is treated with antibiotics].
- A 34yo woman presents with truncal obesity, easy bruising, hyperglycemia, high BP and depression. Which of the following inv’s will be most helpful in localizing the cause for Cushing’s syndrome? a. Serum cortisol b. 24h urinary cortisol c. Low dose dexamethasone suppression test d. High dose dexamethasone suppression test e. Overnight dexamethasone suppression test
Ans. The key is D. High dose dexamethasone suppression test. [High dose dexamethasone suppression test can identify whether pituitary adenoma or ectopic ACTH producing tumour].
- A 32yo man develops hematuria 2wks after a sore throat. What is the dx? a. Post infection nephritis b. IgA nephropathy c. Membranous nephritis d. Glomerulonephritis
Ans. The key is A. Post infection nephritis. [Hematuria 2 wks after sorethroat indicate post infection nephritis while hematuria after few days of sorethroat indicate IgA nephropathy].
- An elder man who has anorexia, prostate symptoms and HTN. There are small kidneys on US. What is the dx? a. Hypertensive renal disease b. Prostate ca c. BPH
Ans. The key is A. Hyperensive renal disease. [Small kidneys suggest chronic renal failure and uremia here is the cause of anorexia. As elder he may have associated prostate symptoms from concomitant BPH].
- A 55yo woman with breast ca which has spread to lung, liver and bone now presents with increasing constipation, weakness, thirst and anorexia for the past 3d. Her only medication is haloperidol for hiccoughs. Today she is disorientated and has left sided weakness. What is the most likely dx? a. Brain mets b. Hypercalcemia c. Liver failure
Ans. The key is A. Brain mets. [The patient has clinical hypercalcemia, but the neurological features of disorientation and left sided weakness can only be explained with brain metastasis].
- A 22yo man presents with a red, hot, swollen, metatarsal phalangeal joint, sarcoilitis and onycholysis. What is the single most likely cause of his condition? a. Gout b. RA c. Reiter’s syndrome d. Psoriatic arthropathy
Ans. The key is D. Psoriatic arthropathy. [Psoriatic arthritis initially can affects the toes very similar to gout. There can be sacroilitis and onycholysis.
- Which of the following conditions requires operative management? a. Cellulitis b. Dyshidrosi c. Erysipelas d. Fournier’s gangrene e. Lymphangitis
Ans. The key is D. Fournier’s gangrene. [Fournier’s gangrene: A horrendous infection of the genitalia that causes severe pain in the genital area (in the penis and scrotum or perineum) and progresses from erythema (redness) to necrosis (death) of tissue. Gangrene can occur within hours].
- A 55yo pt presents with collapse and complains of abdominal pain that radiates to the back. An expansile abdominal mass is felt on examination and the pt is in shock. What is the single most likely dx? a. Ruptured aortic aneurysm b. Renal colic c. Trauma d. Endocarditis e. Atheroma
Ans. The key is A. Ruptured aortic aneurysm.
- A house-bound 78yo man with severe COPD has had a gradual deterioration over recent months and is now breathless at rest. He is on maximal inhaled medical therapy. Result: pH=7.36, PaCO2=5.9kPa, PaO2=6.9kPa. What is the single most appropriate additional tx? a. Aminophylline PO b. ACEi PO c. Antibiotic PO d. Oxygen e. Steroid PO
Ans. The key is D. Oxygen. [In patients with chronic hypoxaemia, LTOT should usually be prescribed after appropriate assessment, when the PaO2 is consistently at or below 7.3 kPa (55 mm Hg) when breathing air during a period of clinical stability. Clinical stability is defined as the absence of exacerbation of chronic lung disease for the previous five weeks. The level of PaCO2(which may be normal
- A 79yo man has a swelling of the right groin which was clinically dx to be indirect inguinal hernia. What is the single feature of the hernia sac that would confirm the dx? a. Comes through femoral ring b. Doesn’t pass through the deep inguinal ring c. Lies below and lateral to the pubic tubercle d. Only passes through the superficial inguinal ring e. Passes through the deep inguinal ring
Ans. The key is E. Passes through the deep inguinal ring. [Ingunal hernia lies mostly above and medial (occasionally lateral particularly when small) to pubic tubercle. It first enters the inguinal canal through deep inguinal ring and then enters the scrotum through the superficial inguinal ring].