901 to 1000 Flashcards
(100 cards)
- A 27yo pt met with a RTA. While the NGT is passing, bowel sounds are heard in the chest. CXR shows NGT curled. What is the dx? a. Diaphragm rupture b. Aortic rupture c. Splenic rupture d. Bowel rupture e. Liver rupture
Ans. The key is A. Diaphramatic rupture.
- A 62yo man dx with T2DM with BMI=33. Lifestyle modifications have failed to control blood sugar. Labs: urea=3.6mmol/l, creatinine=89mmol/l. what is the next appropriate management? a. Biguanide b. Sulfonylurea c. Insulin d. Glitazone e. Sulfonylurea receptor binder
Ans. The key is A. Biguanide. [Patient is obese type 2 diabetic. So biguanide is the tx of choice].
- A pt presents with progressive dyspnea. He complains of cough, wheeze and a table spoonful of mucopurulent sputum for the last 18m. Spirometry has been done. FEV1/FVC=2.3/3.6. After taking salbutamol, the ratio=2.4/3.7. What is the most likely dx? a. Chronic bronchitis b. Asthma c. Bronchiectasis d. Lung fibrosis e. Sarcoidosis
Ans. The key is A. Chronic bronchitis. [Progressive dyspnoea, wheeze productive cough and the result of spirometry (prebronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of 64% and postbronchodilator FEV1/FVC ratio of 65%] points towards the diagnosis of chronic bronchitis. Some may think of bronchiectasis! But in bronchiectasis there is copious purulent sputums (as cup full of sputum not table spoon full!!!)].
- A 62yo man presents with cough, breathlessness and wheeze. 24% O2, salbutamol and hydrocortisone were given. The symptoms haven’t improved and so nebulized bronchodilator was repeated and IV aminophylline was given. ABG: pH=7.31, RR=32. What is the next appropriate management? a. Nasal IPPV b. Intubation and ventilation c. LABA d. Toxapram e. Amoxicillin PO
Ans. The key is A. Nasal IPPV. [Here given case is COPD has following indications of Nasal IPPV i) Tachypnea (>24 breaths/min) and ii) Hypercapnic respiratory acidosis (pH range 7.10-7.35)].
- A young girl returns from holidays in Spain. She complains of discharge from her ear and complains of tragal tenderness. Exam: tympanic membance normal. Aural toilet has been done. What is the next appropriate med? a. Antibiotic PO b. Antibiotic IV c. Steroid PO d. Steroid drop e. Antibiotic drop with steroid
Ans. The key is E. Antibiotic drop with steroid. [Discharge from ear and tragal tenderness are features of otitis externa. Key treatment is aural toileting. Drop advised is Sofradex (Framycetin + dexamethasone)
- A 23yo man sprained his right ankle 6wks ago while playing football. He was tx with a below knew walking cast. On removal of the cast, the pt noted to have right foot drop. He has weakness of extensors of the ankle and toes and diminished pin prick sensation over the dorsum of the foot. The ankle jerk is present and plantar reflex is flexor. What is the most likely cause of the foot drop? a.
Ans. The key is A. Compression of common peronial nerve. [Foot drop, weakness of extensors of the ankle and toes and diminished pin prick sensation over the dorsum is sugestive of compression of common peroneal nerve].
- A young man was knocked down during a fight in the waiting room of the ED. He is now unconscious and unresponsive. What is the 1st thing you would do? a. Turn pt and put in recovery position b. Put airway c. Endotracheal intubation d. Assess GCS e. Start CPR
Ans. The key is B. Put airway. [ABC protocol].
- A 52yo man underwent a hemicolectomy. After a few days he complains of left ventricular pain and fever. ECHO has been done and shows a systolic murmur. What is the next appropriate inv? a. CT b. US c. CXR d. Blood culture e. LFT
Ans. The key is D. Blood culture. [Dx a case of infective endocarditis. Therefore the next appropriate investigation is blood culture].
- A 19yo man has exercised induced asthma and is using a salbutamol inhaler as req and beclamethasone 400ug BD. He complains that he has to wake up at night for his inhaler. What is the single most appropriate tx? a. Beclo b. Regular salbutamol and budesonide c. Sodium cromoglycate d. Oral steroid e. Inhaled steroid
Ans. The key is C. Sodium cromoglycate. [the patients current complaint is nocturnal asthma for which next step is long acting beta blocker!! This question is probably a bad recall].
- Pt with a long hx of smoking is now suffering from bronchial ca. histology reveals there are sheets of large polygonal or giant MNC. What is the most likely dx? a. Squamous cell ca b. Small cell ca c. Adenocarcinoma d. Large cell ca e. Oat cell ca
“Ans. No key is given!! Correct answer is D. Large cell ca. [Large cell carcinoma is, by definition, a poorly differentiated malignant epithelial tumor. It consists of sheets or nests of large polygonal or giant multinuclear cells and probably represents SCC .””]”
- A 27yo man presents with chest pain and respiratory distress. Exam: tachycardia, hypotension and neck vein distension. Trachea is deviated to the left side, breathing sounds on right side are absent and diminished on left side. What is the next appropriate management? a. CXR b. Right side aspiration (16G) c. Left side aspiration (16G) d. Right side drain with a small tube (12F) e. Left side d
Ans. The key is B. Right side aspiration (16G). [The features described is diagnostic of right sided tension pneumothorax. Next appropriate management is To remove the air, insert a large-bore (14–16G) needle with a syringe, partially filled with 0.9% saline, into the 2nd intercostal interspace in the midclavicular line on the side of the suspected pneumothorax. Remove plunger to allow the trapped
- A 16wk pregnant pt who was exposed to a child with chicken pox came to GP for help. She was tested –ve for varicella antibody. What is the next most imp step in management? a. Reassurance b. Ig c. Ig + vaccine d. Vaccine only e. Acyclovir
Ans. The key is B. Ig. [If you are pregnant, come contact with chicken pox case, found antibody negative on blood test you have to take injection Ig. Ref: patient.info].
- A 68yo woman dx with T2DM and BMI=33. Lab: GFR=29, urea=13, creatinine=390mmol/L. what is the next appropriate management? a. Biguanide b. Sulfonylurea c. Insulin d. Glitazone e. Sulfonylurea receptor binder
Ans. The key is C. insulin. [Insulin is devoid of significant side effect than Glitazones (like fluid retention). In renal failure there is reduced GFR and some fluid retention. It is not desirable that glitazone to cause more fluid retention by causing oedema. The oral agents that are thought to be relatively safe in patients with nondialysis CKD include short-acting sulfonylureas (eg, glipizide)
- A 5yo boy was brought to GP with high temp and many vesicles on his back. What is the most appropriate management? a. Topic acyclovir b. Oral acyclovir c. Oral antibiotics d. Topical steroids e. None
Ans. The key is E. None. [A case of chickenpox. None of the given treatment is used in chickenpox. Symptomatic treatment like, acetaminophen if fever, antihistamine and calamine lotion is given].
- A woman came with the complaint of pain in her right arm when she abducts it. She has recently moved to a new house. There is no hx of trauma. Wht is the likely cause of her pain? a. Rupture of the long head of biceps b. Sprain of the acromio-clavicular ligament c. Tendinitis of the abductor sheat d. Supraspinatus tendinitis e. Shoulder dislocation
Ans. The key is D. Supraspinatus tendinitis. [Tendinitis and partial tears in the supraspinatus tendon causes a ‘painful arc’ since as the person elevates his arm sideways, the tendon begins to impinge under the acromion throught the middle part of the arc, and this is usually relieved as the arm reaches 180 degrees (vertical)].
- An 83yo man with longstanding COPD has become progressively breathless over the last 2yrs. He is on salbutamol, ipratropium, salmetarol, beclomethasone and theophylline. His FEV1<30%. What is the next appropriate management? a. Lung transplant b. Trial of CPAP c. Trial of non-invasive ventilation d. Assessment for long term O2 therapy e. Short course of O2 therapy
Ans. The key is D. Assessment for long term O2 therapy. [Patient is progressively breathless with present FEV1 of <30%. So his respiratory deterioration indicates progressive respiratory failure for which he should be assessed for long term O2 therapy. Long-term oxygen therapy (LTOT) for more than 15 h/day improved mortality and morbidity in a well-defined group of patients with chronic obstructiv
- A 49yo man complains of fullness in his left ear, recurrent vomiting and tinnitus. What is the most appropriate med? a. Buccal prochlorperazine b. Oral chlorpheniramine c. Oral flupenphenazine d. Buccal midazolam e. IV rantidine
Ans. The key is A. Buccal prochlorperazine. [Meniere’s disease Dilatation of the endolymphatic spaces of the membranous labyrinth causes vertigo for ~12h with prostration, nausea/vomiting, a feeling of fullness in the ear; uni- or bilateral tinnitus, sensorineural deafness (eg fluctuating). Attacks occur in clusters (<20/month). Cause: A mystery! Electrocochleography; endolymphatic space MRI. Proc
- A man had a soft mass on his mandible. Mass is freely mobile and has started growing progressively over the past 6m. The mass still moves freely. What is the best inv for this pt? a. FNAC b. CT c. XR d. MRI e. ESR
Ans. The key is A. FNAC.
- A 63yo man has been brought to the hosp after collapsing during a wedding. His ECG is below. What is the most likely dx? a. VT b. A-fib c. VF d. A-flutter e. SVT
Ans. The key is C. VF. [QRS complex is chaotic, wide, bizarre and irregular which is characteristic of ventricular fivrillation].
- A 75yo war veteran complains of loss of appetite and says he has lost weight over the past few months. He says that he has passed some blood in his urine, however, he had no pain. A recent report shows that PSA >5.5ng/ml. how will you manage this pt? a. Radical prostatectomy b. TURP c. Cryosurgery d. Brachytherapy e. Irradiation
Ans. The key is A. Radical prostatectomy. This answer is controversial. [Though PSA is a bit higher than normal it is not confirmatory of carcinoma! But loss of appetite and weight loss are highly suggestive of cancer in this 75yrs old man. Active Surveillance is offered first for Low Gleason score. esp at age of 75. and any other treatment depending on extension of tumor will be offered after exc
- A 19yo boy comes to the ED with pain, swelling and tenderness 2cm distal to Lister’s tubercle of radius. Exam: proximal pressure on the extended thumb and index finger is painful. XR: no fx. What is the next appropriate management for the pt? a. Immobilization with cast b. Repeat XR c. MRI d. Surgery e. None
Ans. The key is A. Immobilization with cast. This is wrong key! Correct key is C. MRI. [Imaging: Request a dedicated ‘scaphoid’ series. If –ve, and fracture is suspected MRI has been shown to be sensitive and cost-eff ective. CT is an alternative. If neither is available, cast and re-x-ray in 2 weeks. Ref: OHCS, 9th edition, page-744].
- A 71yo man with a hx of 50yrs of smoking presents with cough, hemoptysis, dyspnea and chest pain. He also has anorexia and weight loss. The dx of lung cancer has been stabilized. Which electrolyte abnormality can be seen? a. Hyperkalemia b. Hypocalcemia c. Hyponatremia d. Hypernatremia e. Hypomagnesemia
Ans. The key is C. Hyponatremia. [Likely diagnosis is squamous cell lung cancer (as the patient is smoker) causing SIADH and resulting hyponatremia].
- A 56yo man who is hypertensive recently underwent a change in meds. 2days later he developed wheezing. Which drug can cause this? a. Atenolol b. Ramipril c. Bendroflumethiazide d. Verapamil e. Furosemide
Ans. The key is A. Atenolol. [Beta blockers can precipitate asthma attacks].
- A 33yo man has a temp=38.5C, cough and chest pain on the right side on inspiration. He also has purulent sputum. What is the most likely organism to cause pneumonia in this pt? a. Gram +ve diplococcic b. Coagulase +ve cocci c. PCP cold agglutinins d. AFB e. Gram –ve diplococcic
Ans. The key is C. PCP cold agglutinins. It is wrong key! Correct key should be A. Gram +ve diplococci. [It is a case of community acquired pneumonia caused by streptococcus pneumoniae].