401 to 500 Flashcards
(100 cards)
- A 12yo boy presents with painful swollen knew after a sudden fall. Which bursa is most likely to be affected? a. Semimembranous bursa b. Prepatellar bursa c. Pretibial bursa d. Suprapatetaller bursa
Ans. The key is B. Prepatellar bursa. [A fall onto the knee can damage the prepatellar bursa. This usually causes bleeding into the bursa sac causing swellen painful knee. Prepatellar bursitis that is caused by an injury will usually go away on its own. The body will absorb the blood in the bursa over several weeks, and the bursa should return to normal. If swelling in the bursa is causing a slow
- A 61yo man has been referred to the OPD with frequent episodes of breathlessness and chest pain a/w palpitations. He has a regular pulse rate=60bpm. ECG=sinus rhythm. What is the most appropriate inv to be done? a. Cardiac enzymes b. CXR c. ECG d. Echo e. 24h ECG
Ans. The key is E. 24h ECG. Indications of 24 h ambulatory holter monitoring: To evaluate chest pain not reproduced with exercise testing To evaluate other signs and symptoms that may be heart-related, such as fatigue, shortness of breath, dizziness, or fainting To identify arrhythmias or palpitations To assess risk for future heart-related events in certain conditions, such as idiopathic
- A woman dx with Ca Breast presents now with urinary freq. which part of the brain is the metastasis spread to? a. Brain stem b. Pons c. Medulla d. Diencephalon e. Cerebral cortex
Ans. The key is D. Diencephalon. [diencephalon is made up of four distinct components: i) the thalamus ii) the subthalamus iii) the hypothalamus and iv) the epithalamus. Among these the hypothalamus has crucial role in causing urinary frequency].
- A man is very depressed and miserable after his wife’s death. He sees no point in living now that his wife is not around and apologises for his existence. He refuses any help offered. His son has brought him to the ED. The son can’t deal with the father any more. What is the most appropriate next step? a. Voluntary admission to psychiatry ward b. Compulsory admission under MHA c. Refer to soc
Ans. The key is B. Compulsory admission under MHA. [This patient is refusing any help offered! And his son cannot deal with him anymore! In this situation voluntary admission to psychiatry ward is not possible and the option of choice is “compulsory admission under MHA”. The point here is the man has felt himself in danger by self neglect].
- A 31yo man has epistaxis 10 days following polypectomy. What is the most likely dx? a. Nasal infection b. Coagulation disorder c. Carcinoma
Ans. The key is A. Nasal infection. [Infection is one of the most important cause of secondary hemorrhage].
- A woman had an MI. She was breathless and is put on oxygen mask and GTN, her chest pain has improved. Her HR=40bpm. ECG shows ST elevation in leads I, II, III. What is your next step? a. LMWH b. Streptokinase c. Angiography d. Continue current management e. None
Ans.Correct key is C. Angiography.
- A 67yo male presents with polyuria and nocturia. His BMI=33, urine culture = negative for nitrates. What is the next dx inv? a. PSA b. Urea, creat and electrolytes c. MSU culture and sensitivity d. Acid fast urine test e. Blood sugar
Ans. The key is E. Blood sugar. [Age at presentation and class1 obesity favours the diagnosis of type2 DM].
- A pt from Africa comes with nodular patch on the shin which is reddish brown. What is the most probable dx? a. Lupus vulgaris b. Erythema nodosum c. Pyoderma gangrenosum d. Erythema marginatum e. Solar keratosis
Ans. The key is B. Erythema nodosum. [Causes of erythema nodosum: MOST COMMON CAUSES- i)streptococcal infection ii) sarcoidosis. Other causes- tuberculosis, mycoplasma pneumonia, infectious mononucleosis, drugs- sulfa related drug, OCP, oestrogen; Behcet’s disease, CD, UC; lymphoma, leukemia and some others].
- A 29yo lady came to the ED with complaints of palpitations that have been there for the past 4 days and also feeling warmer than usual. Exam: HR=154bpm, irregular rhythm. What is the tx for her condition? a. Amiadarone b. Beta blockers c. Adenosine d. Verapamil e. Flecainide
Ans. The key is B. Beta blockers [the probable arrhythymia is AF secondary to thyrotoxicosis. So to rapid control the symptoms of thyrotoxicosis Beta blocker should be used which will improve the arrythmia].
- A T2DM is undergoing a gastric surgery. What is the most appropriate pre-op management? a. Start him in IV insulin and glucose and K+ just before surgery b. Stop his oral hypoglycemic on the day of the procedure c. Continue regular oral hypoglycemic d. Stop oral hypoglycemic the prv night and start IV insulin with glucose and K+ before surgery e. Change to short acting oral hypoglycemic
Ans. The key is D. Stop oral hypoglycemic the prv night and start IV insulin with glucose and K+ before Surgery.
- A 19yo boy is brought by his mother with complaint of lack of interest and no social interactions. He has no friends, he doesn’t talk much, his only interest is in collecting cars/vehicles having around 2000 toy cars. What is the most appropriate dx? a. Borderline personality disorder b. Depression c. Schizoaffective disorder d. Autistic spectrum disorder
Ans. The key is D. Autistic spectrum disorder. Autism spectrum disorders affect three different areas of a child’s life: Social interaction Communication – both verbal and nonverbal Behaviors and interests In some children, a loss of language is the major impairment. In others, unusual behaviors (like spending hours lining up toys) seem to be the dominant factors.
- A 45yo man who is diabetic and HTN but poorly compliant has chronic SOB, develops severe SOB and chest pain. Pain is sharp, increased by breathing and relieved by sitting forward. What is the single most appropriate dx? a. MI b. Pericarditis c. Lung cancer d. Good pastures syndrome e. Progressive massive fibrosis
Ans. The key is B. Pericarditis. [Nature of pain i.e. sharp pain increased by breathing and relieved by sitting forward is suggestive of pericarditis]. Nature of pericardial pain: the most common symptom is sharp, stabbing chest pain behind the sternum or in the left side of your chest. However, some people with acute pericarditis describe their chest pain as dull, achy or pressure-like instead, a
- A 6m boy has been brought to ED following an apneic episode at home. He is now completely well but his parents are anxious as his cousin died of SIDS (Sudden Infant Death Syndrome) at a similar age. The parents ask for guidance on BLS for a baby of his age. What is the single most recommended technique for cardiac compressions? a. All fingers of both hands b. All fingers of one hand c. Heel o
Ans. The key is E. Index and middle fingertips of one hand.
- A 70yo man had a right hemicolectomy for ceacal carcinoma 6days ago. He now has abdominal distension and recurrent vomiting. He has not opened his bowels since surgery. There are no bowel sounds. WBC=9, Temp=37.3C. What is the single most appropriate next management? a. Antibiotic therapy IV b. Glycerine suppository c. Laparotomy d. NG tube suction and IV fluids e. TPN
Ans. The key is D. NG tube suction and IV fluids. [The patient has developed paralytic ileus which should be treated conservatively].
- A 60yo man with a 4y hx of thirst, urinary freq and weight loss presents with a deep painless ulcer on the heel. What is the most appropriate inv? a. Ateriography b. Venography c. Blood sugar d. Biopsy for malignant melanoma e. Biopsy for pyoderma
Ans. The key is C. Blood sugar. [The patient probably developed diabetic foot].
- A 16yo boy presents with rash on his buttocks and extensor surface following a sore throat. What is the most probable dx? a. Measles b. Bullous-pemphigoig c. Rubella d. ITP e. HSP
Ans. The key is D. ITP. It’s probably a wrong key! The correct key should be E. HSP. [In HSP rash typically found in buttocks, legs and feets and may also appear on the arms, face and trunk. But in ITP it mostly occurs in lower legs. HSP usually follow a sorethroat and ITP follow viral infection like flue or URTI. HSP is a vasculitis while ITP is deficiency of platelets from more destruction in sp
- A 34yo man with a white patch on the margin of the mid-third of the tongue. Which is the single most appropriate LN involved? a. External iliac LN b. Pre-aortic LN c. Aortic LN d. Inguinal LN e. Iliac LN f. Submental LN g. Submandibular LN h. Deep cervical LN
Ans. The key is G. Submandibular LN.
- A 50yo lady presents to ED with sudden severe chest pain radiating to both shoulder and accompanying SOB. Exam: cold peripheries and paraparesis. What is the single most appropriate dx? a. MI b. Aortic dissection c. Pulmonary embolism d. Good pastures syndrome e. Motor neuron disease
Ans. The key is B. Aortic dissection. [Cold peripheries due to reduced blood flow to dista parts of dissection and reduced perfusion of nerves resulted in paraparesis. Usual management for type A dissection is surgery and for type B is conservative].
- A 54yo myopic develops flashes of light and then sudden loss of vision. That is the single most appropriate tx? a. Pan retinal photo coagulation b. Peripheral iridectomy c. Scleral buckling d. Spectacles e. Surgical extraction of lens
Ans. The key is C. Scleral buckling. [It is a case of retinal detachment with treatment option of scleral buckling].
- A 40yo chronic alcoholic who lives alone, brought in the ED having been found confused at home after a fall. He complains of a headache and gradually worsening confusion. What is the most likely dx? a. Head injury b. Hypoglycemia c. Extradural hematoma d. Subdural hematoma e. Delirium
Ans. The key is D. Subdural hematoma. [subdural hematoma may be acute or chronic. In chronic symptoms may not be apparent for several days or weeks. Symptoms of subdural hematomas are: fluctuating level of consciousness, ± insidious physical or intellectual slowing, sleepiness, headache, personality change and unsteadiness. Tx. Irrigation/evacuation e.g. via barr twist drill and barr hole craniost
- A 54yo man with alcohol dependence has tremor and sweating 3days into a hosp admission for a fx femur. He is apprehensive and fearful. What is the single most appropriate tx? a. Acamprossate b. Chlordiazepoxide c. Lorazepam d. Lofexidine e. Procyclidine
Ans. The key is B. Chlordiazepoxide. C. Lorazepam is also correct key! [Dx alcohol withdrawal symptom. According to NICE 1st line treatment is oral lorazepam and if symptom persists or oral medication is declined, give parenteral lorazepam, haloperidol or olanzapine. According to OHCM 1st line treatment is chlordiazepoxide. Chlordiazepoxide should only be used at the lowest possible dose and for a
- A 5yo child complains of sore throat and earache. He is pyrexial. Exam: tonsils enlarged and hyperemic, exudes pus when pressed upon. What is the single most relevant dx? a. IM b. Acute follicular tonsillitis c. Scarlet fever d. Agranulocytosis e. Acute OM
Ans. The key is B. Acute follicular tonsillitis. [Tonsillitis is usually caused by a viral infection or, less commonly, a bacterial infection. The given case is a bacterial tonsillitis (probably caused by group A streptococcus). There are four main signs that tonsillitis is caused by a bacterial infection rather than a viral infection. They are: a high temperature white pus-filled spots on the
- A man with a fam hx of panic disorder is brought to the hosp with palpitations, tremors, sweating and muscles tightness on 3 occasions in the last 6 wks. He doesn’t complain of headache and his BP is WNL. What is the single most appropriate long-term tx for him? a. Diazepam b. Olanzapine c. Haloperidol d. Fluoxetine e. Alprazolam
Ans. The key is D. Fluoxetine. [Recommended treatment for panic disorder is i) CBT ii) Medication (SSRIs or TCA). NICE recommends a total of seven to 14 hours of CBT to be completed within a four month period. Treatment will usually involve having a weekly one to two hour session. When drug is prescribed usually a SSRI is preferred. Antidepressants can take two to four weeks before becoming effect
- A 28yo man presents with rapid pounding in the chest. He is completely conscious throughout. The ECG was taken (SVT). What is the 1st med to be used to manage this condition? a. Amiodarone b. Adenosine c. Lidocaine d. Verapamil e. Metoprolol
Ans. The key is B. Adenosine. [Management of SVT: i) vagal manoeuvres (carotid sinus message, valsalva manoeuvre) transiently increase AV-block, and unmask the underlying atrial rhythm. If unsuccessful then the first medicine used in SVT is adenosine, which causes transient AV block and works by i)transiently slowing ventricles to show the underlying atrial rhythm ii) cardioverting a junctional ta