1201 to 1300 Flashcards
(100 cards)
- A 2wk girl presents with E-coli which is confirmed by urine culture. What is the most appropriate next inv? a. US b. IVU c. CT kidney d. BUE e. MCUG
Ans. The key is US. [Infants and children who have had a lower urinary tract infection should undergo ultrasound (within 6 weeks) only if they are younger than 6 months or have had recurrent infections. NICE (Probably to exclude VUR wich is a cause of recurrent UTI)].
- A lady from Asia presented with lump in her neck. FNAC has been done and revealed lesions with caseous material in the center surrounded by fibrosis. What is the most probable dx? a. Thyroid carcinoma b. TB lymphadenitis c. Lymphoma d. Inf Mono e. Mesothelioma
Ans. The key is B. TB lymphadenitis. [Central caseous necrosis with sourrounded fibrosis is diagnostic of TB lymphadenitis. The most common cellular components seen are epithelioid cell clusters. Lymphocytes and langhans giant cells are also seen].
- A 32yo woman has undergone a biopsy for a breast lump. The report says: a well circumscribed lump with clear margins and separated from the surrounding fatty tissue. What is the most appropriate interpretation of this report? a. Fibroadenosis b. Ca Breast c. Mammary abscess d. Fibroadenoma e. Fat necrosis
Ans. The key is D. Fibroadenoma. [Fibroadenomas are the most common benign tumor of the female breast. White , well-circumscribed mass is clearly demarcated from the surrounding yellow adipose tissue].
- A young boy presented with peri-oral blisters. Some of which are weeping and others are crusted. What is the single most appropriate dx? a. Impetigo b. Varicella zoster c. Shingles d. Scabies e. Herpes simplex
Ans. The key is A. Impetigo. [Distribution of varicella zoster is centripetal (more in central area (trunk) and less in limbs and face. On the other hand if blisters are present mainly on face or limbs and/or described as golden, yellow or honey coloured crusts are impetigo].
- A 39yo man comes with umbilicated papules on his face. His CD4 count is measured to be 35. What is the single most appropriate option? a. Mycobacterium avium intercellular b. CMV c. Streptokinase d. Toxoplasmosis e. Pneumocystis jerovici f. Moluscum contagiosum
Ans. The key is F. Molluscum contagiosum. [CD4 count 35 is too low indicating immunodeficiency where molluscum contagiosum occurs more easily. Umbilicated papules are feature of molluscum contagiosum].
- A 45yo man is admitted to ED with excruciating pain in the right leg. Exam: limb is pale and dorsalis pedis and posterior tibial pulses are absent. Pulse=88bpm, irregular and he has apansystolic murmur at apex. What is the most probable dx? a. Thromboangitis Obliterans b. Sciatica c. DVT d. Atherosclerosis e. Embolus
Ans. The key is E. Embolus. [Pansystolic murmur at apex indicates mitral regurgitation and irregular pulse indicates AF which can lead to thrombus formation what probably is responsible for this embolus in leg].
- An 18yo man has a smooth, tender swelling extending from the ear to the angle of the jaw of sudden onset. Temp=38.5C. What is the single most likely dx? a. Dental caries b. Mumps c. OE d. OM e. Temporomandibular joint pain
Ans. The key is B. Mumps. [Here sudden onset and rise of temperature are points indicating the diagnosis of Mumps].
- A 6wk baby has a blue mark near coccyx since birth. His mother is worried. What would you do? a. Reassure b. Coag profile c. Karyotyping d. Skeletal survey e. CT
Ans. The key is A. Reassure. [This is a benign condition known as “Mongolian spot” or “Mongolian blue”. Mongolian spot refers to a macular blue-gray pigmentation usually on the sacral area of healthy infants. Mongolian spot is usually present at birth or appears within the first weeks of life. Mongolian spot typically disappears spontaneously within 4 years but can persist for life].
- A man presents with inoperable carcinoma and back pain. His pain has been well controlled with morphine but he develops vomiting. Morphine was stopped and he was started on metoclopramide and fentanyl patches. He then develops neck stiffness and fever. What is the cause of these symptoms? a. Metoclopramide b. Fentanyl c. Morphine d. Meningitis e. Metastasis
Ans. The key is A. Metoclopramide. [Extrapyramidal effects like neck stiffness is common side effect of metoclopramide and also there may occur rise of temperature].
- A 51yo man has become increasingly fatigued for the past 10m. PE: no abnormal findings. Labs: Hgb=9.2, Hct=27.9%, MCV=132fl, plt=242, WBC=7.59. Which of the following morphologic findings is most likely to be present on examination of his peripheral blood smear? a. Hypersegmented neutrophils b. Nucleated RBC c. Blasts d. Hypochromic, microcytic RBC e. Schistocytes
Ans. No key is given! Probable key is A. Hypersegmented neutrophils. [Only anemia with macrocytosis is with normal examination findings makes Megaloblastic aneamia to be most likely cause where PBF shows hypersegmented neutrophils].
- A 9yo girl with weekly abdominal pain and occasional headaches but not a/w vomiting or diarrhea. She maintains a good appetite. Lab: normal. CBC, BUE, etc are normal. Exam: no abnormality as found and the abdomen was soft and non-tender. What would you do for her next? a. US abdomen b. CT thorax c. LFT d. Reassure e. Analgesics
Ans. The key is D. Reassure. [Probable case of abdominal migraine a benign condition for which reassurance is appropriate. Abdominal migraine is a form of migraine seen mainly in children. It is most common in children ages five-nine years old, but can occur in adults as well. The diagnostic criteria for abdominal migraine are: A. At least five attacks fulfilling criteria B–D. B. Attacks of abdomi
- A 54yo male pt DM with BMI=33 who has been treated using dietary control up till now presents to his GP with a fasting blood sugar of 14mmol/l and creatinine=90mmol/l. Urine shows glycosuria. No other abnormalities are found. What is the best next step in management? a. Biguanide b. Sulfonylurea c. Insulin d. Sugar free diet e. ACEi
Ans. The key is A. Biguanide. [Patient is obese type2 diabetic with normal renal function for whom biguanide is the treatment of choice].
- What are the side effects of thiazide diuretics? a. Hypocalcemia b. Hyponatremia c. Hypernatremia d. Hyperkalemia
Ans. The key is B. Hyponatremia. [Thiazide causes hypercalcemia, hypokalemia and hyponatremia].
- A 46yo man who is a heavy drinker is brought to the ED in a drowsy state. He is responding vaguely to questions. Exam: nystagmus and hyperreflexia. MCV=103fl. What is the most likely cause for his cognitive impairment? a. B1 deficiency b. B12 deficiency c. Folate deficiency d. B6 deficiency e. Alcohol withdrawal
Ans. The key is A. B1 deficiency. [Presence of confusion and nystagmus indicates Wernicke’s encephalopathy caused by thiamin (vit. B1) deficiency].
- A 23yo female presented with a swelling of her neck that moved upwards on protrusion of tongue. What is the next appropriate inv? a. FNAC b. Punch biopsy c. Core biopsy d. MRI neck e. Radioactive thyroid scan
Ans. The key is A. FNAC. [The diagnostic investigation is FNAC[Ref: wikipedia]. Then we palpate for thyroid tissue. If absent we do any one of following to confirm the absence of thyroid tissue: ultrasonography, CT scanning, thyroid scanning or MRI. If there is normal thyroid tissue we go for more aggressive Sistrunk’s operation but if there is no normal thyroid tissue [in that case thyroglossal c
- A 34yo man from Asia presented with 5m hx of productive cough, night sweats and weight loss. His CXR reveals some shadowing in the left upper zone. What is the single most discriminating inv? a. AFB for sputum b. CXR c. CT d. TFT e. US abdomen
Ans. The key is A. Sputum for AFB. [Features are suggestive of PTB for which most discriminating inv. Is Sputum for AFB].
- A prv healthy 23yo presented a week hx of bloody diarrhea and abdominal pain with cramps and fever. Exam: tenderness in lower abdomen. What is the most appropriate dx? a. Celiac disease b. Colorectal polyps c. UC d. Laxative abuse e. Gastroenteritis
Ans. The key is E. Gastroenteritis. [A short history (one week) of bloody diarrhea, abdominal pain with cramps, fever and tenderness in lower abdomen is indicative of gastroenteritis].
- A 10yo boy presents with irritability, sudden onset of pain and discharge from the right ear. Which antibiotic would be the 1st line of tx? a. Amoxicillin b. Ciprofloxacillin c. Flucloxacillin d. Ceftazidime e. Benzyl penicillin
Ans. The key is A. Amoxycillin. [For acute suppurative otitis media 1st line antibiotic in UK is Amoxycillin.
- A 26yo man strongly believes that every elderly man he meets is his father. Although they look different, he is sure it is father wearing different disguises. What kind of delusions is this man suffering from? a. Delusion of persecution b. Erotomania c. Delusion of grandeur d. Delusion of doubles e. Delusion of reference
Ans. The key is D. Delusion of doubles. [The Fregoli delusion, or the delusion of doubles, is a rare disorder in which a person holds a delusional belief that different people are in fact a single person].
- A 26yo passed a 4mm stone in his urine. On US a 3mm stone is found in the renal pelvis. What is the single most appropriate management? a. ESWL b. None c. Open Surgery d. Conservative
Ans. The key is D. Conservative. [Increased fluid intake is advised].
- A 35yo man has had acute pain and swelling below the mandible on the left side for 2h. The swelling occurred after eating a large meal. What is the single most likely dx? a. Laryngocele b. Ranula c. Neck abscess d. Parotid calculus e. Submandibular calculus
Ans. The key is E. Submandibular calculus. [Pain and swelling below mandible is due to stone in submandibular salivary gland duct. Pain and swelling increased after large meal as the saliva produced during meal could not come out of the gland due to stone].
- A 45yo man has had impaired vision and pain on eye movement in his left eye over the last 5d. He also notes loss of color vision in the same eye. In the left eye, the visual acuity is up to counting fingers. When the pupil is stimulated with light, it dilates. His fundus is normal. What is the single most appropriate clinical dx? a. Acute dacryocystitis b. Acute iritis c. Papillitis d. Retro
Ans. The key is D. Retrobulbar neuritis. [Presentation can be described by either optic neuritis or retrobulbar neuritis. In optic neuritis there is disc pallor. As in this case disc is normal it is a case of retrobulbar neuritis].
- A 56yo pt has been dx with MS. She presents with a positive Romberg’s test. She also has weakness and loss of sensations in all her 4 limbs. Which site is most likely to be affected? a. Cerebral cortex b. Cerebellum c. Cervical spinal cord d. Thoracic spinal cord e. Brain stem
Ans. The key is C. Cervical spinal cord. [Quadriplegia is the feature of cervical cord lesion].
- A 58yo man suddenly becomes shocked several days after suffering an acute ant MI. His CXR shows a large globular-shaped heart and clear lung fields. What is the single most likely explanation for the abnormal inv? a. Acute pericarditis b. Cardiac tamponade c. Atrial thrombus d. Left ventricular aneurysm e. Dressler syndrome
Ans. The key is B. Cardiac tamponade. [Shock in a post MI patient with globular heart on X-ray and clear lung field indicate Cardiac tamponade]