2011 Exam Flashcards
(122 cards)
1
Q
_______________________________ is a lipophilic yeast that commonly causes otitis externa in dogs and cats
A
Malassezia pachydermatis
2
Q
_______________________________ is a systemic fungal organism that subclinically infects a large percentage of the population in the Mississippi and Ohio River Valley states.
A
Histoplasma capsulatum
3
Q
_______________________________ is an endophyte fungus commonly found in fescue grass.
A
Acremonium coenophialum
4
Q
_______________________________ is a large yeast that buds on a broad base that is most commonly identified in transtracheal washings
A
Balstomyces dermatitidis
5
Q
_______________________________ is an organism that causes chronic infections of the nasal, ocular and pharyngeal mucosa leading to the formation of polyps
A
Rhinosporidium seebri
6
Q
____________________________ is the most common fungal organism causing clinically significant infections of mucosal surfaces
A
Candida albicans
7
Q
_______________________________ is a yeast that has a predilection for growing in neural tissues.
A
Cryptococcus neoformans
8
Q
_______________________________ is a mycotoxin commonly found along with deoxynivalenol (DON or vomitoxin).
A
Zearalone
9
Q
_______________________________ is a common term for dermatophytosis of the comb or wattles of birds.
A
favus
10
Q
_______________________________ is a tumor-like lesion caused by a fungal organism
A
Mycetoma
11
Q
____________ is used to demonstrate the capsule of Filobasidiella neoformans
A
India Ink
12
Q
List two good reasons why it is relatively difficult to obtain an accurate diagnosis of mycotoxicosis?
A
usually a chronic illness
difficult to isolate from feed or muscle
13
Q
T or F Trichophyton verrucosum causes non-proliferative lesions on cattle.
A
False
14
Q
T or F Microsporum canis is a zoophilic dermatophyte
A
True
15
Q
T or F A white, fluffy colony that turns Dermatophyte Test Medium yellow within two weeks is most likely a dermatophyte.
A
False
16
Q
T or F The genus Ascomyces has been reserved for all the dermatophytes.
A
False
17
Q
T or F The only basidiomycete capable of producing systemic disease in animals is Cryptococcus neoformans.
A
False
18
Q
T or F Bat feces are known to commonly contain spores of Blastomyces dermatitidis
A
False
19
Q
T or F Aflatoxin can be produced by both Aspergillus flavus and Fusarium roseum.
A
False A. flavus and A. parasiticus
20
Q
T or F Aflatoxin can accumulate in the muscle tissues of humans
A
True
21
Q
T or F Coccidioides immitis grows in soil and produces high numbers of sporangia containing thousands of sporangiospores that are readily inhaled
A
False
22
Q
T or F The perfect states of all the dermatophytes have been described
A
False
23
Q
Which of the following are the main causes of chromomycosis?
a. Dematiacious fungi
b. Ascomycetes
c. Deuteromycetes
d. Yeasts
e. Dimorphic fungi
A
a. Dematiacious fungi
24
Q
Which of the following is a common natural habitat of Cryptococcus neoformans?
a. Pigeon and other bird and bat feces.
b. Rotted hay and straw in livestock bedding..
c. Soil in desert climates
d. Sawdust bedding that has gotten wet and started to rot.
e. All the above.
A
a. Pigeon and other bird and bat feces.
25
Which of the following is a dimorphic fungus?
a. Cryptococcus neoformans
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
c. Mucor
d. Microsporum canis
e. Trichophyton verrucosum
b. Blastomyces dermatitidis
26
Mycotic respiratory infection in penguins:
a. Has been commonly associated with species of Penicillium.
b. Is transmitted primarily through moldy feed grains fed to penguins in zoos.
c. Is usually a type of brooder pneumonia that the birds become infected with at an early age.
d. Has been linked to global warming.
e. None of the above.
Is usually a type of brooder pneumonia that the birds become infected with at an early age
27
Which of the following is most likely to infect via inhalation and be disseminated via a hematogenous route?
a. Aspergillus fumigatus
b. Rhizopus
c. Blastomyces dermatitidis
d. Candida albicans
e. Scopulariopsis
c. Blastomyces dermatitidis
28
____________ and _____________ are the full names of the two distinct growth forms of Chlamydia and Chlamydophila species.
Elementary bodies
reticular bodies
29
___________ is a long-acting macrolide class antimicrobial commonly used for treatment of respiratory disease in cattle and swine
Draxxin
30
__________ is a commonly used antimicrobial that is susceptible to cleavage by beta-lactamase.
Penicillin
31
___________ is a commonly used antimicrobial that inhibits DNA-gyrase.
Fluoroquinolones
32
_______________________________ is the only member of the Rickettsiales that commonly infects the intestinal mucosa
Neorickettsia risticii
33
_______________________________ is an organism that causes abortions and other reproductive problems in cattle and severe hepatitis and nephritis in dogs
Leptospira interrogans
34
_______________ is the cause of anterior uveitis (periodic opthalmia) in horses.
Leptospira interrogans serovar pomona
35
_______________________________ is the cause of follicular conjunctivitis and polyarthritis in lambs
Chlamydophila abortus
36
_______________________________ is the cause of terminal pancytopenia in German Shepherd dogs
Ehrilichia canis
37
_______________________________ is an organism that has been essentially eradicated from the U.S. commercial turkey population through egg dipping, egg heating and the use of artificial insemination with negative semen
Mycoplasma gallisepticum
38
_______________________________ is the cause of bacillary dysentery in primates.
Shigella dysenteriae
39
_______________________________ is the cause of bacillary hemoglobinuria in ruminants.
Clostridium hemolyticum
40
What is the major mechanism of action of the toxin involved in the Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) outbreak associated with consumption of sprouts in Germany in the summer of 2011?
NAD dependent ADP ribosylation of elongation factor II
41
The presence of multiple fimbrial types complicates immunization against which of the following:
a. Foot-rot in sheep.
b. Keratoconjunctivitis in cattle.
c. Edema disease in swine.
d. All the above
e. Only b and c above.
d. All the above
42
What is the basis of the protection afforded by the siderophore receptor protein (SRP) vaccine of salmonella?
a. The vaccine stimulates the production of antibody that can agglutinate the organism and limit infection.
b. The vaccine stimulates a cell mediated immune response against antigens common to all salmonella.
c. The vaccine stimulates production of antibody against core lipopolysaccharides present on all salmonella.
d. The vaccine stimulates production of antibody that limits the uptake of iron by all salmonella.
e. The vaccine stimulates an IgA response that is better able to prevent attachment of salmonella to the intestine.
d. The vaccine stimulates production of antibody that limits the uptake of iron by all salmonella.
43
Which of the following is least likely to cause enteritis in Basque sheep herders in association with using their teeth to castrate lambs?
d. Chlamydophila pecorum
44
Trachoma in humans:
a. Is caused by Chlamydial infection.
b. Is manifested as a tracheitis.
c. Is relatively difficult to treat with antimicrobials.
d. Is only seen in South America.
e. Is a general term for tumor-like lesions of the ocular mucosa.
a. Is caused by Chlamydial infection.
45
A PCR test is commonly used to diagnose:
a. Canine leptospirosis
b. Equine neorickettsiosis
c. Porcine proliferative enteropathy
d. All the above
e. Only a and c above.
d. All the above
46
A “sterilizing immune response”:
a. Most commonly occurs with leptospiral infection of maintenance hosts.
b. Most commonly occurs when the host becomes severely ill but survives.
c. Most commonly occurs in birds infected with Chlamydophila psittaci.
d. Most commonly occurs with Pseudomonas aeruginosa skin infections in humans.
e. Most commonly occurs in cattle vaccinated against Mycoplasma bovis.
b. Most commonly occurs when the host becomes severely ill but survives.
47
Brucella melitensis:
a. Causes only subclinical to mild disease in goats.
b. Causes only subclinical to mild disease in humans.
c. Is commonly found in the goat populations in the Southwestern U.S.
d. Is only found in the bison in Yellowstone National Park
e. Is only found in South and Central America.
a. Causes only subclinical to mild disease in goats.
48
Dogs infected with Brucella canis:
a. Usually have no clinical signs.
b. May have a persistent bacteremia (may last 1-2 years).
c. May have epididymitis and testicular atrophy.
d. All the above
e. Only b and c above.
d. All the above
49
Extended spectrum beta-lactamase producers (ESBL) are a problem in which of the following?
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Streptococcus agalactiae
d. Pasteurella multocida
e. Chlamydophila abortus
a. Klebsiella pneumoniae
50
57. T or F An organism that has lipooligosaccharide instead of lipopolysaccharide is termed a rough organism.
True
51
58. T or F Enterotoxins are essentially identical to endotoxins.
False
52
59. T or F The flagella of spirochetes are located under the peptidoglycan layer.
False
53
60. T or F A single serovar of leptospira can belong to two different species of leptospira.
true
54
61. T or F Effective vaccination against leptospira usually protects against clinical disease but does not prevent against infection.
true
55
62. T or F Bacterial culture for Brachyspira hyodystenteriae is commonly done at 42 degrees Celsius.
True
56
63. T or F Brachyspira hyodysenteriae most commonly infects the terminal ileum.
false
57
64. T or F Vaccination against Potomac Horse Fever is almost always highly protective despite the existence of different serological variants of the the causative organism.
false
58
65. T or F Tertiary diseases associated with spirochetes are usually manifested as kidney failure.
fasle
59
66. T or F Lyme disease in Europe is caused by two additional geno-species of Borrelia.
True
60
67. T or F Species of Brucella that are rough are lacking both the A and M somatic antigens.
True
61
68. T or F Mycobacterium avium is the most common cause of tuberculosis in swine.
True
62
69. T or F Brucella suis has a tendency to more generalized spread in the host and can often infect bone as well as cause reproductive problems in swine.
True
63
70. T or F Most dogs with Brucella canis infections remain carriers after antimicrobial treatment.
true
64
What is the mechanism of Listeriolysin O
Sequestration of cholesterol in phagosomal membrane
65
What is the mechanism of Streptolysin O
Sequestration of cholesterol in cell membrane
66
What is the mechanism of Mannheimia haemolytica leukotoxin
Pore-forming (RTX)
67
What is the mechanism of Actinobacillus equuli leukotoxin
Pore-forming (RTX)
68
What is the mechanism of Clostridium botulinum toxin
Protease activity
69
What is the mechanism of E. coli STb toxin
opening of ion channels
70
What is the mechanism of Cholera toxin
Adenylate Cyclase
71
What is the mechanism of Corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis toxin
Phospholipase D
72
What is the mechanism of Edema disease toxin
NAD-Dependent ADP Ribosylation of EF2
73
What is the mechanism of Moraxella bovis leukotoxin
Pore-forming (RTX)
74
_______________________________ causes rainbow trout fry syndrome
Flavobacterium psychrophilum
75
_______________________________ casues culmnaris disease in warm water fish
Flavobacterium columnare
76
_______________________________ pneumonia in rats
Pasteurella pneuomotropica
77
_______________________________ causes pyleonephritis in swine
Actinobaculum suis
78
_______________________________ cuases intestinal spirochetosis in humans and pigs
Brachyspira piloscoli
79
_______________________________ is the cause of glanders in horses
Burhholderia mallei
80
_______________________________ causes potomac horse fever horses
Neorickettsia risticii
81
_______________________________ causes erythema chronicum migrans in humans
Borrelia burgdorferi
82
_______________________________ is the cause of contagious footrot in sheep
Dichelobacter nodosus
83
_______________________________ cuases liver abcess in cattle
Fusobacterium necrophorum
84
_______________________________ is the cause of UTI in almost all animals
E. coli
85
_______________________________ causes ulcerative posthititis
Corynebacterium renale
86
_______________________________ is the cause of fowl typhoid
Salmonella gallinarum
87
_______________________________ causes flowl cholera
Pasteurella multocida type A
88
_______________________________ causes coryza
Avibacterium paragallinarum
89
_______________________________ cuases rhinotracheitis in turkeys
Bordetella avium
90
_______________________________ is teh cause of calf diptheria
Fusobacterium necrophorum
91
_______________________________ is the cuase of human diptheria
Corynebacterium diptheriae
92
_______________________________ causes pneumonitis in cats
chlaymidia felis
93
_______________________________ causes cat scratch fever
Bartonella henselae
94
_______________________________ causes scromboid poisoning in humans
Morganella morgani
95
_______________________________ causes heart water disease in cattle
Erhlichia ruminantum
96
_______________________________ causes rocky mountain spotted fever in humans
Rickettsia ricketsii
97
_______________________________ is the cause equine ehrlichosis and human granulocytic ehrlichiosis
Anaplasma phagocytophilum
98
_______________________________ causes salmon poisoning in dogs
Neoricketsia helminthoeca
99
_______________________________ is the cause of q fever humans
Coxiella burnetti
100
_______________________________ is thh cause of meliodosis in horses
Burkholderia psuedomalleli
101
_______________________________ causes enzootic abortions in sheep
Chlamydia abortus
102
_______________________________ causes enzootic pneumonia in pigs
Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae
103
_______________________________ causes meningoencephalitis in cattle
Histophilus somni
104
_______________________________ causes menigitis in humans
Neisseria meningitidis
105
_______________________________ causes pyometra in dogs
E. coli
106
_______________________________ causes conjunctivitis in kittens
Chlamydiophila felis
107
_______________________________ enterotoxcemia in sheep
Colstridium perferinges type D
108
_______________________________ enterotoxemia in pigs
Clostridium perferingfes type C
109
_______________________________ enterotoxemia in calves
Clostridum perferinges type C
110
_______________________________ mesocolonic edema in pigs
Clostridum difficile
111
_______________________________ causes tularemia in rabbits
Fracisella tularensis
112
_______________________________ contagious caprine pleuropneuonia in goats
Mycoplasma capricolum subsp capripneumonia
113
_______________________________ causes snuffles in rabbits
Pasteurella multocida type A
114
_______________________________ causes atrophic rhinitis
Pasteurella multocida type D
115
_______________________________ causes infectious anemia
Mycoplasma haemofelis
116
_______________________________ causes pigeon fever
Corynebacterium psudotuberculosis var equi
117
_______________________________ causes caseous lymphandenitis
Corynebacterium psuedotuberculosis var ovis
118
_______________________________ causes contagious bovine pleuropneumoniae
Mycoplasma mycoides subsp mycoides SC
119
_______________________________ causes early embryonic death/infertility in cattle
Campylobacter fetus sbsp venearlis
120
_______________________________ causes strangles in horses
Strep equi sub equi
121
_______________________________ causes Johnes disease in rmts
Mycobacterium avium subsp paratuberculosis
122
_______________________________ is the cause of the sylvatic plague
Yersinia pestus
