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Flashcards in 2017 Block B Deck (84)
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1

The most common cytogenetic abnormality in myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) involves chromosome number
A. a.5
B. b.7
C. c.8
D. d.20

A

2

One-year survival rate of patient with severe aplastic anemia is

C. Less than 20%

3

The clinical manifestation that distinguishes aplastic anemia from leukemia
A. severity of pallor
B. severity of bleeding
C. CNS involvement
D. presence of hepatosplenomegaly

D

4

Acquired aplastic anemia in contrast to inherited form of bone marrow failure appears to be caused largely by:
A. immune-mediated destruction of marrow cells
B. loss of hematopoietic stem cells due to DNA damage
C. low threshold for apoptosis
D. NOTA

A

5


The HLA antigen frequently increased in aplastic anemia is

B. DR15

6

This disease condition can co-exist with aplastic anemia
a. myelodysplastic syndrome
b. paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria
c. acute leukemia
d. myelofibrosis

B

7


The bone marrow of a patient with aplastic anemia more often shows

C

8

An infectious state that is occasionally associated with bone marrow failure is
a. varicella zoster infection
b. hepatitis
c. strep throat
d. typhoid fever

B

9

The abnormality that may be noted in a differential count in aplastic anemia

A. Relative lymphocytosis

10

Peripheral blood cell morphology in aplastic anemia is usually: a. normocytic, normochromic
b. microcytic, hypochromic
c. macrocytic, normochromi
d. microcytic, normochromic

A

11

The best way to distinguish between Aplastic Anemia and MDS is:
a. Cellularity of the bone marrow
b. Severity of pancytopenia
c. Abnormal karyotype
d. All of the above

C

12

Progressive cytopenia in Fanconi’s anemia is due to

B. DNA damage

13

The following are the most important variables in disease outcome in Myelodysplastic syndrome EXCEPT:
A. # of blasts in the peripheral blood
B. # of blasts in the bone marrow
C. cytogenetic abnormality
D. severity of cytopenia

A

14

In stem cell transplantion for aplastic anemia

C. Bone marrow is a better source of stem cells than peripheral blood

15

Anemia of chronic renal failure:
A. A.usually microcytic normochromic
B. erythropoietin deficiency is usually seen when creatinine is >2mg
C. supplemental iron should be avoided as much as possible
D. erythropoietin alpha dose of 30-75/kbbw per week is usually required

B

16

Anemia of chronic disease (2012)
a. reticulocyte count is usually normal or increased
b. iron level is normal
c. iron binding capacity is increased
d. ferritin value is elevated

D

17

The proposed mechanism for anemia of chronic inflammatory condition include:
A. increased red cell survival
B. decreased responsiveness to erythropoietin
C. decreased levels of erythropoietin
D. AOTA

B

18

Leukocyte-reduction filters can do all of the following except a. reduce the risk of CMV infection
b. prevent or reduce the risk of HLA alloimmunization
c. prevent febrile, nonhemolytic transfusion reactions
d. prevent transfusion associated graft versus host disease (TA-GVHD)

D

19

Blood type selected when patient cannot wait for ABO matching

C. Type O

20

Apheresis can be used to collect all of the following except:
A. Leukocytes
B. Macrophages
C. Hematopoietic progenitor cells
D. Platelets

B

21

Transfused plasma resulting in immediate erythema, itching, and hives best typify the following transfusion reaction
a. immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction (IHTR)
b. delayed hemolytic transfusion reaction (DHTR)
c. allergic reaction
d. anaphylactoid reaction

C

22

Patients at greatest risk of developing transfusion associated circulatory overload may include:
a. children
b. elderly people
c. patients with chronic normo-volemic anemia
d. all of the above

D

23

A transfusion reaction that usually appears rapidly that may result in fever, shock or death is:
A. immediate hemolytic transfusion reaction
B. transfusion associated circulatory overload
C. allergic transfusion reaction
D. febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction

A

24

Fatal transfusion reactions are most frequently caused by:
A. Clerical errors
B. Improper refrigeration
C. Overheated blood
D. Platelets

A

25

When a suspected hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs, the first thing to do is:
a. Slow the transfusion rate and call the physician
b. Administer medication to stop the reaction
c. Stop the transfusion but keep the intravenous line open with saline
d. First inform the library to begin an investigation

C

26

The following is a symptom of febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction:

C. Temperature rise of 1°C with transfusion

27

Pretransfusion irradiation of all blood products in certain patients is done to prevent:
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Transfusion Associated Graft vs. Host Disease
C. Febrile Non-Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction
D. Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction

B

28

the most common reason for transfusion of leukocyte-poor blood to a recipient

C. The recipient has had 2 or more febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reactions

29

A patient was suspected to have an adverse reaction to a transfusion because he developed urticaria. The most likely etiology for the urticaria is:

A. Plasma proteins

30

A patient was suspected to have an adverse reaction to an RBC transfusion; he experienced febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction. The most likely etiology of the reaction is:

B. Leukoagglutinins