5/14 Flashcards

1
Q

What cellular reactions utilize NADPH?

A

Cholesterol and FA synthesiss

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2
Q

What molecules represent kidney GFR and RPF?

How do you calculate clearance of a molecule from the kidney?

How do you calculate the filtration fraction in a pt?

A

GFR ~ Creatinine Clearance
RPF ~ PAH Clearance

Clearance = ([Molecule in Urine] * (urine flow rate)) / [Molecule in Plasma]

Filtration Fraction = GFR/RPF

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3
Q

What is the best way to prevent neonatal tetanus?

A

Make sure the mom has been vaccinated during pregnancy, the IgG will transfer to the fetus via placenta

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4
Q

What bone condition is a pt with cholestasis at risk for?

A

Vit D deficiency which can lead to osteomalacia

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5
Q

What protein is upregulated in Burkitts Lymphoma? What does this cause?

A

c-myc

c-myc is an oncogene and a TF –> will upregulate transcription activation

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6
Q

What is the most common lab finding with legionella infection?

A

hyponatremia and many neutrophils

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7
Q

What is the main cause of cyanosis in pts with tetralogy of Fallot?

A

The pulmonic stenosis is the major determining factor

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8
Q

What is the most sensitive test when checking to see if menopause has occured?

A

There should be an increased FSH due to lack of (-) feedback of estrogen. LH will also be raised, but happens later and is thus unreliable

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9
Q

Where are JG cells located? What do they look like? What is their reaction to renal artery stenosis?

A

JG cells are modified SM cells located in the affarent arteriole.

In response to RAS, they will hypertrophy in an effort to increase renin release - the kidney is stupid and thinks it isnt getting perfused due to lack of volume and wants to add more to it via angiotensin and aldosterone activation

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10
Q

What section of the myocardial AP curve do the classes of antiarrythmics work on? What class is dofetilide?

A

Phase 0 = Class 1 Na blockers
Phase 1 - none
Phase 2 - Class 2 Ca blockers
Phase 3 - Class 3 K channel - slow efflux (Dofetilide)

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11
Q

What kind of studies are case controls and cohorts? What can you calculate from these?

A

Case Control = Retrospective, Observational; can measure an Odds Ratio (AD / BC)

Cohort Study = Retro or Prospective, Observational; can measure a Relative Risk (A/A+B) / (C/C+D)

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12
Q

What are the phases of a clinical trial, and who are the pts they utilize?

A

Phase 1: healthy volunteers; tests safety, toxicity, pharmicokinetics
Phase 2: small group of dz; tests dosing, efficacy, and sdx
Phase 3: large groups of dz; compares it to gold standard
Phase 4: post-market analysis; tests long term sdx + efficacy

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13
Q

What does a meta analysis increase?

A

It can potentially increase the power of the study, but also opens the door for alot of bias

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14
Q

How does the prevalence of a disease in a population (or pretest probability) affect the Sensitivity, Specificity, PPV, and NPV of a test?

A

It will not change the Sens and Spec.

A high prevalence (pretest prob) will increase the PPV and decrease the NPV

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15
Q

What is the NPV of a test with 99% sensitivity?

A

Very high. Sensitive tests should have very few false negatives, thus if this test comes back negative, you can be sure you dont have the dz.

Conversely, highly specific tests have a very high PPV

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16
Q

What happens to the OR and the RR when disease prevalence is low?

A

RR ~ OR

decreased A and C, thus B and D are the only values that matter

17
Q

What is equation for NNT and NNH?

A

NNT = 1/ARR (absolute risk reduction)

NNH = 1/AR (attributable risk)

18
Q

What type of bias is Berkson’s bias?

What is the problem occurring with sampling bias?

A

Berksons = selection bias; this occurs from selecting hospitalized pts as study group members

Sampling bias = the results you get are from one pop (China) and are not generalizable for the broad population

19
Q

What are Mean, Median, and Mode values for a positive and negative skew?

A

Positive Skew = tail to the right and Mean>Median>Mode

Negative Skew = tail to the left and Mean<Mode

20
Q

What is the original assumption in hypotheses testing?

What does a small P value indicate?

A

that the null hypothesis is true

small P (<0.05, you reject your null hypothesis, and accept your alternative hypothesis. You can claim that your results are statistically significant.

21
Q

What is the Standard Error of Mean?

What happens when the 95% CI includes 1?

A

SEM = SD/sqrt*n

If CI includes 1, the H0 is not rejected

22
Q

What is the difference between a t-test, ANOVA, and chi square?

A

t-test and ANOVA are used to compare means of a changing variable (ANOVA can be used for more than 2 groups)

Chi Square is used to compare %. This data is categorical and fixed

23
Q

What thyroid cancers involve an upregulation of tyrosine kinase?

A

Papillary and Medullary

24
Q

What is the main use for amitriptyline? What is its other use? What are some side effects it can cause?

A

Main use: TCA, antidepressent

Other use: treat diabetic neuropathies

sdx: tremor, insomnia, arrythmias, hypotension, anti-muscarinic actions, anti-histamine (sedation), anti-a1 (orthostatic hypotension)

25
Q

What is the most common behavior and cause of death of PCP use?

A

behavior - violence

COD = trauma

26
Q

Know how the heart sits in a chest xray

A

Right ventricle to the left and close to sternum

Right atrium to the right ant close to the sternum

27
Q

What cranial nerve is involved in vertical diplopia?

A

Trochlear (Sup oblique is cut thus you cant look at your nose)

28
Q

What is the MOA of nitroglycerin?

A

Venodilates causing a decreased preload on the heart (decrease in LV volume)

29
Q

Define the terms additive, synergistic, and permissive

A

Additive = when you add two drugs together, their new effect is equal to the sums of them individually

Synergistic = when you add two drugs together, their new effect is greater than their individual sums

Permissive = When one drug does nothing unless its added to another drug, then the effects are big

30
Q

What are the bugs that kids with CGD are most likely to get?

A

Cat+ bugs:

S. Aureus, Burk cepacia, serratia marcescens, nocardia, aspergillis

31
Q

What is caudal regression syndrome and what causes it?

A

When the baby is born with flaccid LE and poorly developed lumbar spine/sacrum

This is caused by maternal diabetes

32
Q

What are the histological findings of a ruptured ectopic pregnancy?

A

Abdominal pain, vaginal bleeding, hemmorhagic shock w/ a history of amenorrhea.

Biopsy will show decidual changes in endometrium but NO chorionic villie

33
Q

What is pantothenic acid, and where is it used?

A

vit B5 –> becomes CoA

It is used in the oxaloacetate to citrate reaction (first step of the TCA cycle)

34
Q

What is ethambutol and what are its side effects?

A

One of the main TB drugs used

sdx: optic neuritis, color blindness, central scotoma, and decreased vision
curable if you stop using the drug

35
Q

MOA of class 1 anti-arrhythmics

A

block Na channels in the heart.

They dissociate from the channel when the channel goes into resting (occurring after the channel repolarizes and is done being inactive)

These drugs exhibit “use dependence” which means they work better on channels that undergo more frequent depolarization and thus spend more time in the activated and inactivated stages and LESS time in the resting stage

Binding strength = 1C>1A>1B (1C binding can last multiple cycles)
(1B dissociate quickly from receptors)

1B’s are more selective for ischemic myocardium b/c these cells have a lower resting membrane potential, thus making the inactive phase (when the drug can bind) longer