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From Flashcardlet > 5/31 > Flashcards

5/31 Flashcards

1
Q

probes and samples used in southern blot, northern blot, and western blot and southwestern blot?

A

Southern = DNA probe for DNA

Northern = DNA probe for RNA

western = Ab probe for a protein

Southwestern = oligonucleotide probe for transcription factors and other DNA binding proteins

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2
Q

How is Prader Willi inherited?

Dx?

A

Moms chromosomes are inactivated (normal) but Dad, who is supposed to pick up the slack, gets a mutation and fails.

Dx: FISH

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3
Q

What is the MOA of Clomiphene?

A

Partial agonist for E2 in the hypothalamus

Thus it blocks E2 negative feedback, and allows the hypo to secrete more FSH and LH –> stimulates OVULATION

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4
Q

What nerves and muscles are involved in raising your arm above the horozontal

A

LTN (serratus anterior muscle)

Spinal accessory nerve (Trapezius muscle)

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5
Q

What nerve is damaged if you cant pronate your arm?

A

Median

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6
Q

How do you treat the adverse reaction caused by mixing succinylcholine with inhaled anesthetics?

A

This is malignant hyperthermia

You tx this with Dantrolene

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7
Q

The most common cause of breast lumps in young women

A

Fibrocystic changes/disease

Premenstrual pain w/ MULTIPLE LESIONS, often BILATERAL. fluxuations in size. Usually benign

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8
Q

What are the histological types of fibrocystic diseases of breast?

A

Fibrosis = hyperplasia of breast stroma

Cystic = Fluid filled, blue dome. Ductal dilation

Sclerosing Adenosis = increased acini and intralobular fibrosis w/ some Ca+

Epithelial Hyperplasia = increase in number of epithelial cell layers in terminal duct lobule. INCREASED RISK OF CA only if THERE ARE ATYPICAL CELLS.

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9
Q

Benign, painless lump in breast. Women may or may not report trauma

A

Fat necrosis

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10
Q

Small, mobile, firm mass with sharp edges in breast

A

Fibroadenoma. Should wax and wane with estrogen levels. NOT CANCEROUS

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11
Q

Serous (straw or yellow) or bloody nipple discharge, small mass felt around areola

A

Intraductal Papilloma

small tumor in lactiferous ducts - under areola.

slight increased risk for CA

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12
Q

Women in 6th decade presents with large bulky mass of connective tissue in breast

A

Phyllodes tumor

tumor in the stroma (last layer) will have leaf like projections on histo. Some risk for malignancy

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13
Q

What is the most important prognostic factor for breast CA?

A

Axillary lymph node involvement - indicates metastasis

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14
Q

Breast CA med that increases the risk for endometrial CA

Breast CA med that can also treat osteoporisis

A
  1. Tamoxifen

2. Raloxifene

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15
Q

MOA of a breast cancer drug that can increase Fracture Risks

A

This is Anastrozole, an aromatase inhibitor

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16
Q

Caseous Necrosis seen histologically on breast biopsy with central necrosis and CA cells surrounding.

Caseous stuff can be squeezed from nipp

A

Comedocarcinoma

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17
Q

Signet ring cells in an in situ CA.

A

LCIS

ER(+) and PR (+)

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18
Q
  1. Involvement of the suspensory ligament in breast cancer
  2. Peau d’orange
  3. New nipp dimpling
A
  1. Dimpling of breast
  2. Involvement of the dermal lymphatic system
  3. Lactiforous duct involved
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19
Q

Eczematous patches on nipple

Histo - large cells in epidermis with clear halo

A

Pagets disease. Suggests underlying DCIS

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20
Q

Rock hard, firm, fibrous mass with sharp margins and small glandular duct cells

Classic stellate morphology

A

Invasive Ductal CA

Precursor is DCIS

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21
Q

Bilateral Breast CA w/ Orderly row of cells (indian file) with inactivation of cadherin gene

A

Invasive Lobular CA

ER (+) and PR (+)

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22
Q

Breast CA with fleshy, cellular lymphocytic infiltrate

A

Medullary CA

good prognosis!

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23
Q

APGAR score, when is it graded?

A 
A = appearance
P = pulse
G = grimace
A = activity
R = respiration

Use this 10 pt scale 1 minute and 5 minutes after birth

> 7 = good, 4-6 = assist and stimulate, <4 = resuscitate!

24
Q

Rooting reflex, holds head up

social smiles

orients/responds to voice

A

Birth - 3mo

25
Q

7-9mo

A

Crawls, transfers toys from hand/hand

stranger anxiety

Responds to name/simple instructions, plays peek a boo

26
Q

Walks, no more babinski

Seperation anxiety

Few words

A

12-15mo

27
Q

How many blocks should my kid stack?

A

Age*3 = number of blocks

28
Q

1 - 2 yo

A

Climbs stairs, stacks blocks

Rapprochement (leaves strangers and goes to mom)

200 words and 2 word phrases at age 2

29
Q

Feeds self, kicks ball
Gender identity
Toilet training

A

2-3 yo

30
Q

3yo

A

Ride tricycle, can stay away from mom

900 words, COMPLETE SENTENCES

31
Q

Can use zippers, grush teeth, draw stick figures, hop on 1 foot, cooperative play, imaginary friends, detailed story teller

A

4 yo

32
Q

Defective migration of GnRH cells and formation of olfactory bulb

A

Kallman syndrome

Presents with anosmia and lack of secondary sexual characteristics (low testosterone and sperm count)

33
Q

Levels of LH and Testosterone in:

1* Hypogonadism

Hypogonadotropic Hypogonadism

Defective Androgen Receptor

A

1* = Low Testosterone –> high LH

Hypo Hypo = Low LH –> low testosterone

defective R: High LH –> Hi Testosterone

34
Q

LE edema due to CREST

A

Pulmonary HTN due to intimal thickening of pulmonary arterioles

35
Q

Transmural inflammation of arteries with fibrinoid necrosis

A

PAN

Can be associated with HBV and HCV

36
Q

Tumor in the cerebellum consisting of sheets of small blue cells

A

Medulloblastoma

These are homer-wright rosettes and usually surround fibrils.

This is associated with Turcots SZyndrome

37
Q

Ulcer found in the distal duodenum

Very high gastric acid levels

A

Zollinger-Ellison Syndrome

38
Q

Weakness in one side of the body a few days after suffering a SAH, not visable on CT

What if it was visable on CT

What do you treat the former complaint with?

A

Arterial Vasospasm - causes cerebral ischemia (this may not be picked up on CT)

If it was visable on CT, it would be a Rebleed

Tx: Nimodipine (dihydropyridine Ca blocker used to prevent vasospasm in SAH)

39
Q

What triggers the neoplastic changes associated with HBV infection of the liver?

A

Integration of HBV into host DNA

40
Q

What are the bugs that are not stainable with gram stain?

A 
T = treponema
R = Rickettsia
M = Mycobacteria
M = Mycoplasma
L = Legionella
C = Chlamydia
41
Q

Sensory corpuscles for:

  1. Pain and temp (fast and slow)
  2. 2 point discrimination at the bottom of feet, hands
  3. Vibration in joints, ligaments, deep skin
  4. Deep static touch, position sense on hair fibers
A
  1. Pain and temp (fast and slow) = a (fast) and C (slow)
  2. 2 point discrimination at the bottom of feet, hands = Meissners Corpuscles (slow)
  3. Vibration in joints, ligaments, deep skin = Paccinian corpuscles (onion appearance)
  4. Deep static touch, position sense on hair fibers = Merkels discs (fast)
42
Q

Area of brain responsible for vomiting after chemo

Area of the brain that senses osmolarity change

A

Area Postrema

OVLT

(both of these areas are not protected by the BBB

43
Q

Area of the hypothalamus stimulated by leptin

Inhibited by leptin

A

Stimulated = Ventromedial - the area that makes you feel full. (destroyed in hyperphagia and craniopharyngioma)

Inhibited = Lateral - the area that makes you hungry - (destroyed in anorexia)

44
Q

Area of the hypothalamus that makes ADH

Area that makes oxytocin

A

ADH = Supraoptic nuc

Oxytocin = Paraventricular nuc

45
Q

Where is the lesion in hemiballismus?

Cant make new memories?

Poor repetition, but fluent speech, intact comprehension

A

Contralateral STN

Hippocampus

Arcuate Fasciculus

46
Q

Treatment for essential tremors

A

B-blockers or Primidone

47
Q

Dark area on a CT

Bright area on a CT

A

dark = stroke/ischemic event

bright = bleed/hemorrhage (dont use tPA!)

48
Q

Histology of an atherosclerotic ischemic stroke

A

Cystic cavity with reactive gliosis

As long as it is ischemic, you can give tPA

49
Q

Complications of arachnoid scaring post-meningitis

A

Communicating Hydrocephalus

50
Q

Familial degeneration of superoxide dismutase 1

What is the best treatment for this dz?

A

ALS (destruction of ant horn and lateral CST)

Tx with Riluzole (increases survival by decreasing presynaptic glutamate release)

51
Q

Cause of Death in Friedreichs ataxia

A

HCOM

52
Q

Pinealoma (or a lesion in the superior colliculi)

A

Paralysis of conjugate vertical gaze

53
Q

Top portions of the brain stem section that looks like an elephant

A

Cochlear Nuclei in the rostral medulla

54
Q

The big toe on the brain stem that looks like fused baby feet

A

Nucleus Gracilis in the caudal medulla

55
Q

Golf ball on the tee

A

Inferior colliculus in the Caudal midbrain (holds auditory stuff coming from lateral lamniscus –> going to medial geniculat)

56
Q

Which CNs carry parasympathetics? What three letter association is this?

A

GVE - 3,7,9,10

57
Q

Where do the lateral and medial nuclei of Cranial nerves stem from? What do they control?

A

Lateral = Alar (dorsal) plate –> supplies sensory stuff

Medial = Basal (ventral) plate –> supplies motor stuff

From Flashcardlet (32 decks)

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