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From Flashcardlet > 6/3 > Flashcards

6/3 Flashcards

1
Q

Decreased carbonic anhydrase activity in RBC’s leads to higher levels of what in the venous blood?

A

Cl-

Cl- comes into RBCs in exchange for HCO3, a product of carbonic anhydrase.

With no CA to generate HCO3, there is nothing to exchange for Cl and thus Cl is left in the blood

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2
Q

Anemic pt with small bruises in her mouth

PT and PTT are normal, Bone marrow histo shows large dark blue circles

A

ITP

(aplastic anemia looks like fat globules in the bone marrow

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3
Q

Inducers of TNF and IL-1 in gram + and gram - bugs

A

Gram(+) = Lipoteichoic Acid

Gram(-) = LPS (specifically Lipid A) ***This is the endotoxin of most gram(-) bugs, it is coded by the chromosome, is heat stable, and induces fever and some shock/sepsis/meningococcemia

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4
Q
  1. Bug with a D-glutamate capsule
  2. Polysaccharide that mediates adherence to indwelling catheters
  3. Bug with no cell wall, and membrane w/ sterols
  4. Bug with mycolic acid and high lipid content in cell; detectable by carbolfuchsin in acid fast stain
  5. Bug that lacks Muramic acid in its cell wall
A
  1. Bacillus Anthracis
  2. Glycocalyx
  3. Mycoplasma
  4. Mycobacteria
  5. Chlamydia
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5
Q

Antibiotic that requires O2 to enter bacterial cell

A

Aminoglycosides (cant use these on anaerobes - clostridium, actinomyces, bacteroides)

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6
Q

Fro vaccines against polysaccharide capsule antigens - why is a protein conjugated to the polysaccharide antigen?

A

To promote T-cell activation and class switching

If it was just the polysaccharide Ag, it wouldnt be presented to T cells and only IgM Abs would be produced

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7
Q

What are the functions and bugs that secrete the following bacterial virulence factors?

  1. Protein A
  2. IgA Protease
  3. M Protein
A
  1. Staph Aureus - binds Fc portion of Ig and prevents phagocytosis
  2. SHiN (Strep Pneumo, H. Flu, and Niesseria) - kills IgA and promotes colonization in respiratory mucosa. ***These are also the main bugs that use Transformation (uptake of naked DNA)
  3. G.A.S. - helps prevent phagocytosis
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8
Q
  1. What 2 bugs and toxins block EF-2 (block protein synth) via an ADP-ribosylating AB toxin?
  2. What 2 bugs and toxins block the 60s ribosome by removing adenine from rRNA
  3. What bug creates 2 toxins to cause watery diarrhea?
  4. Toxin involved in pt presenting with black eschar w/ edematous boarders
  5. What bug and toxin permanently activates the Gs pathway to increase cAMP in gut?
  6. What bug and toxin disables Gi pathway, consequently increasing cAMP in order to impair phagocytosis?
  7. What two bugs and toxins cleave SNARE proteins?
  8. Bug and toxin that creates a double zone of hemolysis on blood agar
  9. Bug and toxin that secretes a protein to degrade cell membrane
  10. Bugs and toxins that cause shock
A
  1. Diptheria (Dip Tox) and Pseudomonas (Exotoxin A)
  2. Shigella (Shiga Tox) and EHEC (Shiga-like Toxin)
  3. ETEC (heat labile toxin –> increased cAMP and Cl secretion, and heat stable toxin –> increased cGMP and decreased NaCl reabsorption)
  4. B. anthracis (Edema factor Toxin) –> mimics adenylate cyclase enzyme –> increased cAMP
  5. Cholera (Cholera Toxin)
  6. Pertussis (Pertussis toxin)
  7. Tetanus (tetanospasmin - prevents GABA and glycine release) and c. Botulinum (botulinum toxin - prevents ACh release)
  8. C. Perfringens (Alpha toxin; lecithinase) - a phospholipase that degrades tissue and cell membranes. Specifically degredation of PLC causing myonecrosis (gas gangrene)
  9. Strep Pyogenes (Streptolysin O)
  10. S.Aureus (TSST-1) and Strep Pyogenes (Exotoxin A) both can cause toxic shock syndrome
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9
Q

Which type of diarrhea do you not tx with antibiotics?

A

Salmonella (normal), E.Coli

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10
Q

Which Non-Strep Bugs are B-hemolytic?

A

Staph Aureus

Listeria Monocytogenes (**Also Cat +)

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11
Q

Bug that produces CAMP factor, which will enlarge the area of hemolysis formed by S. Aureus

Pts with (+) screening test at 36 weeks are given prophymaxis w/ interpartum penicillin

A

Strep Agalactiae (G.B.S)

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12
Q

Bug that forms black colonies on cystine-tellurite agar

GpR w/ metachromic granules and a toxin

Chinese letters shaped

Pseudomembranous Pharyngitis

A

C. Diphtheriae

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13
Q

Bug with AB toxin that binds brush boarder (A) and destroys cellular cytoskeletal structure (B)

Toxin is found in stool

Tx with Metro or PO Vanco

A

C. Diff

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14
Q

Bug that produces cereulide, a pre formed toxin that causes watery diarrhea

Symptoms start 8-18 hours after eating reheated rice

A

B. Cereus

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15
Q

Antigen in Mycobacteria TB that blocks Macrophage maturation and increases TNFa release

Antigen in Myco TB that blocks phagolysosomal fusion

A
  1. Cord Factor

2. Sulfatides

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16
Q

Form of leprosy that:

has a low cell mediated response and a high TH2 response. Diffuse over skin, communicable

has a high cell mediated response and a high TH1 response. A few patches on skin

A
  1. Lepromatous type (more drugs to treat)

2. Tuberculoid type

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17
Q

**Neisseria Gonocci does not have a polysaccharide capsule!

A

(Meningococci does though)

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18
Q

This bug uses a K capsule a virulence factor in pneumonia and neonatal meningitis

It uses LPS endotoxin in septic shock

It uses fimbriae in cystitis and pyelonephritis

A

E.Coli

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19
Q

Strain of E.Coli that:

Does not ferment sorbitol

Causes hemolytic anemia, TCP, and acute RF due to swelling and narrowing of endothelium causing mechanical hemolysis and reduced renal blood flow –> damaged endothelium consumes platelets

A

EHEC - this is classic HUS

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20
Q

Bug that causes mesenteric adentis - can mimic Crohns disease or appendicitis

A

Yersinia Enterocolitica (puppy poop or pork skins)

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21
Q

Chlamydia Trachomatis serotypes responsible for:

Blindness or Conjunctivitis (Africa)

Urethritis/PID, ectopic pregnancy

1* Painful ulcers around penis with swollen nodes

A
  1. A,B,C
  2. D,K
  3. L1, L2, L3
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22
Q

Chorioretinitis, Hydrocephalus, and intracranial calcifications

A

Toxoplasmosis - tx w/ sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine

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23
Q

Anti malarial that blocks plasmodium Heme Polymerase (blocks heme –> hemozoin)

A

Chloroquine

Heme accumulation is toxic to the plasmodia

24
Q

Tapeworm causing cysts in liver

Causes anaphylaxis reaction if antigens are released, so surgeons will inject ethanol prior to removal

A

Echinococcus Granulosus

25
Q

Hemoptysis and lung inflammation from eating undercooked crab meat

A

Paragonimus Westermani

26
Q

Which flu vaccine is a live attenuated vaccine?

A

The Intranasal spray

Rotavirus is also a live attenuated vaccine, and is left off the Sabin Yellow Chickens phrase

27
Q

What kind of virus is rubella?

A

Togavirus

28
Q

Monoclonal Ab targeting F protein on RSV

A

Palivizumab - prevents pneumonia caused by RSV infections in premature infants

29
Q

Type of Polymerase packed by HBV

A

DNA dependent DNA polymerase (makes a full dsDNA that the host RNA poly will make mRNA out of…..and then makes protein

30
Q

HIV protein required for fusion and entry

protein required for attachment to host CD4

A
  1. gp41

2. gp120

31
Q

What causes the false positive HIV tests in a newborn who doesnt really have HIV?

A

gp120 of the mom crossing the placenta, do a PCR to be sure of infant HIV status

32
Q

Cherry Angiomas in an HIV pt

Biopsy reveals neutrophilic inflammation

A

Bartonella Henselae (Cat Scratch Fever)

33
Q

Hairy Leukoplakia on the lateral side of the tongue on an HIV pt

A

EBV

34
Q

Squamous cell CA in the anus of an HIV pt

A

HPV

35
Q

The 3 main bacteria normally living in the vagina

A

Lactobacillus
E.Coli
G.B.S.

36
Q

Common sexually transmitted cause of Reiter’s syndrome (urethritis, cervicitis, conjunctivitis)

A

Chlamydia

37
Q

What bugs are not covered by any of the cephalosporins?

A

LAME

Listeria, Atypicals (MCL), MRSA, Enterococci

***Ceftaroline kills MRSA

38
Q

Drug that inhibits renal dehydropeptidase I

Always prescribed alongside a Carbapenem

A

Cilastatin

39
Q

Fecally eliminated Ab, can be used in RF

Binds 30s subunit and prevents attachment of aminoacyl-tRNA
Dont take with milk!

A

Tetracyclines

40
Q

Ab that blocks peptidyltransferase at the 50s ribosomal subunit

Can cause anemia, aplastic anemia, gray baby syndrome (due to lack of UDP glucoronyl transferase)

A

Chloramphenicol

41
Q

Ab that blocks peptide transfer (transpeptidation) at 50s subunit

Treates anaerobes above the diaphragm

Causes pseudomembranous colitis along with Ampicillin

A

Clindamycin

42
Q

Mechanisms of resistance of Abs:

  1. Plasmid encoded acetyltransferase that inactivates drug
  2. Plasmid encoded transport pumps
  3. Transferase enzymes that inactivate the drug by acetylation, phosphorylation, or adenylation
A
  1. Chloramphenicol
  2. Tetracyclines
  3. Aminoglycosides
43
Q
  1. Antimycobacterial drug that needs KatG to convert to active metabolite
A
  1. Isoniazid
44
Q
  1. Antifungal drug that blocks p450 from converting lanosterol to ergosterol
  2. Converted to active form by cytosine deaminase –> blocks RNA and DNA synth
A
  1. Azoles

2. Flucytosine

45
Q

Antiviral that is a competitive inhibitor of IMP Dehydrogenase

Teratogenic, treats RSV or HCV

Inhibits synthesis of guanine nucleotides

A

Ribavirin

46
Q

Chemical in dyes and carcinogens responsible for kidney cancer?

A

2-Naphthylamine

47
Q

Fancy term for an asbestos body

Not “golden brown fusiform rod”

A

Ferruginous Body

48
Q

A drug that promotes gastric emptying AND stops vomiting

A

Metaclopromide

Does this by D2 antagonism. Increases resting tone, contractility, LES tone, motility

DOES NOT INFLUENCE COLON TRANSPORT TIME

49
Q

D2 agonists not named bromocriptine

A

Pramipexole
Ropinirole

Both act in same way as bromocriptine

50
Q

Study that measures heritability and influence of environmental factors

A

Adoption study

51
Q

1-false negative rate

A

Sensitivity (the higher the sensitivity, the lower the number of false negatives

52
Q

Incidence rate * average disease duration =

A

Prevalence

53
Q

The Z for a CI of 99%

A

2.58

54
Q

Coefficient of determination =

A

r^2

55
Q

Age and gender of highest suicide rate in united states

A

65-74 year old men

56
Q

Barbs, ETOH, and benzos cause a lack of what sleep types?

A

REM and delta (puts you at stage N2 sleep - teeth grinding and old ppl status)

57
Q

Nighttime treatment for narcolepsy

Daytime med?

A

Sodium Oxybate (GHB)

Modafinil

From Flashcardlet (32 decks)

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