3RD BI RECALLS Flashcards

1
Q

A 24-yo patient sought consultation because of 3-day duration of flu-like illness
characterized by mild sore throat, nasal catarrh, cough, body malaise and feeling
feverish. The physician may:

Prescribe oral paracetamol for fever
Advise to stay at home, take rest, and increase oral fluids
Test for COVID 19 infection
Prescribe oral acyclovir

A
  • Prescribe oral paracetamol for fever
  • Advise to stay at home, take rest, and increase oral fluids
  • Test for COVID 19 infection
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2
Q

LAXATIVE AND MECHANISM OF ACTION:

  • Emulsifies the fat component of stool

Mineral Oil
Psyllium
Ipecac
Docusate
Lactulose
Bisacodyl

A

Docusate

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3
Q

LAXATIVE AND MECHANISM OF ACTION:

  • Draws water into the intestine

Mineral Oil
Psyllium
Ipecac
Docusate
Lactulose
Bisacodyl

A

Lactulose

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4
Q

LAXATIVE AND MECHANISM OF ACTION:

  • Forms a slippery coat

Mineral Oil
Psyllium
Ipecac
Docusate
Lactulose
Bisacodyl

A

Mineral Oil

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5
Q

LAXATIVE AND MECHANISM OF ACTION:

  • Stimulates the intestinal nerve plexuses

Mineral Oil
Psyllium
Ipecac
Docusate
Lactulose
Bisacodyl

A

Bisacodyl

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6
Q

First- line therapy for mild to moderate ulcerative colitis:

Sulfasalazine
Prenisone
Adalimumab
Methotrexate

A

Sulfasalazine

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7
Q

This anti-fungal agent is known to cause acute drug-induced interstitial nephritis:

Amphotericin B
Miconazole
Flucytosine
Terbinafine

A

Amphotericin B

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8
Q

An aminoglycoside that can be used to treat tuberculosis:

Netilmicin
Streptomycin
Tobramycin
Gentamicin

A

Streptomycin

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9
Q

A patient complaining of gnawing epigastric pain relieved by food intake underwent
EGD. Rapid Urease Test was positive. Definitive treatment for the patient’s condition
includes:

Pantoprazole
Aluminum hydroxide
Clarithromycin
Metronidazole

A

Pantoprazole
Clarithromycin
Metronidazole

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10
Q

A medical clerk prescribed Pirenzepine to a patient with abdominal pain. Patient
complained of dry mouth during follow-up. This adverse effect is most likely due to this
mechanism:

Cholinergic antagonism
Adrenergic agonism
Adrenergic antagonism
Cholinergic agonism

A

Cholinergic antagonism

PIRENZIPINE-M1 MUSCARINIC RECEPTOR ANTAGONISTS

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11
Q

This antifungal drug binds to the ergosterol of the fungal cell membrane to form cell
membrane pores:

Nystatin
Ketoconazole
Griseofulvin
Terbinafine

A

Nystatin

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12
Q

First-line drug against mycobacterium leprae infections:

Ethambutol
Dapsone
Pyrazinamide
Ofloxacin

A

Dapsone

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13
Q

This drug acts on the hypnozoites of P. vivax and P. ovale in the liver that cause relapse of symptoms on reactivation:

Pyrimethamine
Primaquine
Quinine
Chloroquine

A

Pyrimethamine
Primaquine

KASAMA din ang Tafenoquine

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14
Q

If the category I TB patient has already been treated for 4 months but has interrupted
his anti-TB regimen for 2 weeks, the case may be:

Considered as Lost to Follow Up
Allowed to continue treatment
Allowed to continue treatment only if repeat DSSM is negative
Labelled as Treatment Failure

A

Allowed to continue treatment

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15
Q

A patient developed rash, hives and itchiness after taking co-amoxiclav antibiotic for a
soft tissue infection. Physician decided to change the antibiotic to which of the following?

Clarithromycin
Clindamycin
Sultamicillin
Cephalexin

A

Clarithromycin
Clindamycin

???

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16
Q

A 25-yo pregnant woman contracted malaria. Which anti-malarial drug can be used?

Mefloquine
Primaquine
Artemisinin
Doxycycline

A

Mefloquine
Artemisinin

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17
Q

Characteristic findings of tumor lysis syndrome include:

Hyperuricemia
Hypercalcemia
Hyperphosphatemia
Hypokalemia

A

Hyperuricemia
Hyperphosphatemia

-hyperuricemia
-hyperphosphatemia–>hypocalcemia
-hyperkalemia

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18
Q

A 26-yo male newly diagnosed HIV patient may be started with a combination of which antiviral drugs:

Efavirenz
Lamiduvine
Zidovudine
Amantadine

A

Efavirenz
Lamiduvine
Zidovudine

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19
Q

While on anti-TB regimen, patient complained of persistent burning sensation in the feet. As the physician, you will prescribe/advise:

Discontinuation of anti-TB drugs
Celecoxib
Cetirizine
Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)

A

Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)

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20
Q

This TNF blocker may be effective for the treatment of moderate-severe and refractory inflammatory bowel disease:

Infliximab
Methotraxate
Cyclosporine
Azathioprine

A

Infliximab

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21
Q

ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND MECHANISM OF ACTION

Imatinib

DNA Polymerase
Dihydrofolate Reductase Inhibitor
Protein-Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor
Topoisomerase II Inhibitor
Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator
Thymidylate Synthase Inhibitor
Aromatase Inhibitor

A

Protein-Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor

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22
Q

ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND MECHANISM OF ACTION

Tamoxifen

DNA Polymerase
Dihydrofolate Reductase Inhibitor
Protein-Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor
Topoisomerase II Inhibitor
Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator
Thymidylate Synthase Inhibitor
Aromatase Inhibitor

A

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator

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23
Q

ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND MECHANISM OF ACTION

Daunorubicin

DNA Polymerase
Dihydrofolate Reductase Inhibitor
Protein-Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor
Topoisomerase II Inhibitor
Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator
Thymidylate Synthase Inhibitor
Aromatase Inhibitor

A

Topoisomerase II Inhibitor

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24
Q

ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND MECHANISM OF ACTION

Anastrozole

DNA Polymerase
Dihydrofolate Reductase Inhibitor
Protein-Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor
Topoisomerase II Inhibitor
Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator
Thymidylate Synthase Inhibitor
Aromatase Inhibitor

A

Aromatase Inhibitor

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25
ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND MECHANISM OF ACTION **Methotrexate** DNA Polymerase Dihydrofolate Reductase Inhibitor Protein-Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor Topoisomerase II Inhibitor Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator Thymidylate Synthase Inhibitor Aromatase Inhibitor
Dihydrofolate Reductase Inhibitor
26
Which cephalosporin is able to penetrate the central nervous system, making it useful against bacterial meningitis? Cefuroxime Cefazolin Cefotaxime Cefotiam
Cefotaxime
27
This antibiotic is effective against beta-lactamase producing Staphylococcal aureus: Cloxacillin Ampicillin plus Sulbactam Amoxicillin plus Clavulanic Acid Cephalexin
Ampicillin plus Sulbactam Amoxicillin plus Clavulanic Acid
28
Medical uses of metoclopramide: Gastroparesis Nausea and vomiting Flatulence Dyspepsia
Gastroparesis Nausea and vomiting
29
For a category II pregnant pulmonary TB case, the anti-TB regimen involves which drug? Isoniazid Streptomycin Pyrazinamide Rifampicin Ethambutol
* Isoniazid * Pyrazinamide * Rifampicin * Ethambutol
30
COMMON BACTERIAL INFECTION AND DRUG OF CHOICE Azithromycin Metronidazole Doxycycline Co-amoxiclav Ciprofloxacin Wound infection
Co-amoxiclav
31
COMMON BACTERIAL INFECTION AND DRUG OF CHOICE Azithromycin Metronidazole Doxycycline Co-amoxiclav Ciprofloxacin Bacterial vaginosis
Metronidazole
32
COMMON BACTERIAL INFECTION AND DRUG OF CHOICE Azithromycin Metronidazole Doxycycline Co-amoxiclav Ciprofloxacin Tonsillitis, (+) allergy to penicillin
Azithromycin
33
A doctor ordered polyethylene glycol the night before a patient's colonoscopy procedure. What is the the reason for this? Relief of bowel irritability Prophylactic antisepsis Fluid and electrolyte replacement Bowel cleansing
Bowel cleansing
34
Adverse effect of Sulfasalazine includes: Fatigue Inhibition of intestinal folate absorption Reversible decrease in the number and motility of sperm Stevens- Johnson syndrome
Fatigue Inhibition of intestinal folate absorption Reversible decrease in the number and motility of sperm Stevens- Johnson syndrome
35
ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND CLINICAL USE **Flutamide** HER2 (+) Breast Cancer Testicular Cancer Prostatic Cancer Ovarian Cancer ER (+) Breast Cancer Endometrial Cancer Cervical Cancer
Prostatic Cancer
36
ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND CLINICAL USE **Trastuzumab** HER2 (+) Breast Cancer Testicular Cancer Prostatic Cancer Ovarian Cancer ER (+) Breast Cancer Endometrial Cancer Cervical Cancer
HER2 (+) Breast Cancer
37
ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND CLINICAL USE **Tamoxifene** HER2 (+) Breast Cancer Testicular Cancer Prostatic Cancer Ovarian Cancer ER (+) Breast Cancer Endometrial Cancer Cervical Cancer
ER (+) Breast Cancer
38
ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND CLINICAL USE **Letrozole** HER2 (+) Breast Cancer Testicular Cancer Prostatic Cancer Ovarian Cancer ER (+) Breast Cancer Endometrial Cancer Cervical Cancer
Breast Cancer
39
ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND CLINICAL USE **Megestrol acetate** HER2 (+) Breast Cancer Testicular Cancer Prostatic Cancer Ovarian Cancer ER (+) Breast Cancer Endometrial Cancer Cervical Cancer
Endometrial Cancer
40
Which antibiotic is associated with tendonitis and tendon rupture as adverse effects? Gentamicin Trimethoprim Sulfadiazine Levofloxacin
Levofloxacin
41
Enumerate 4 mechanisms by which malignant tumors acquire genetic resistance.
* decreased availability of receptors for the drug; * increased active transport of the drug out of the neoplastic cell * overproduction of the targets of the chemotherapeutic drugs, e.g., enzyme inhibited by them * development of alternative pathways, i.e., new synthetic mechanisms that substitute for blocked pathways
42
β-lactamase inhibitors have little antibiotic activity of their own but they prevent bacterial degradation of beta-lactam antibiotics. Which is a beta lactamase inhibitor? Clavulanic acid Tazobactam Methicillin Oxacillin
Clavulanic acid Tazobactam
43
Contraindication to activated charcoal (AC) oral administration includes: Gasoline ingestion Recurring vomiting Suspected peritonitis Unconsciousness
Gasoline ingestion Recurring vomiting Suspected peritonitis Unconsciousness
44
A clinical clerk refused to prescribe misoprostol as requested by a gravid woman at 6 weeks age of gestation because the drug can cause: Miscarriage Renal dysfunction Hepatic failure Ileus
Miscarriage
45
Which antibiotic is most likely to cause ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and neuromuscular toxicity? Quinolone Aminoglycoside Penicillin Sulphonamide
Aminoglycoside
46
Have an antimicrobial action by precipitation/denaturation of proteins: Benzalkonium chloride Hydrogen peroxide Lactate Isopropanol
Lactate Isopropanol possible din ALL
47
Indicated for the treatment of **Clostridium difficile** associated diarrhea and enterocolitis: Vancomycin Daptomycin Metronidazole Bacitracin
Vancomycin Metronidazole
48
A patient complained of abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and diarrhea. EGD revealed multiple ulcerations in stomach, duodenum and proximal duodenum. An abdominal MRI with contrast revealed a small mass at head of pancreas. To control his symptoms, the patient may be given: Octreotide Loperamide Metronidazole Lansoprazole
Octreotide Lansoprazole
49
Therapy of Inflammatory Bowel Disease during pregnancy involves: Prednisone Methotrexate Mesalamine Metronidazole
Prednisone Mesalamine Metronidazole
50
A patient with chronic alcoholism has signs and symptoms of malabsorption and steatorrhea. Which drug is useful for this patient? Ursodeoxycholic acid Simvastatin Pancreatin Fibrate
Pancreatin
51
While travelling to CDO, a third year medical student experiences colicky abdominal pain and watery stools. Which drug may temporarily relieve the student of his symptoms while on travel? Loperamide Domperidone Attapulgite Slimming tea with senna
Loperamide Attapulgite
52
This anti-neoplastic agent is S phase specific, i.e., inhibits DNA synthesis Mercaptopurine Paclitaxel Fluorouracil Methotrexate
Mercaptopurine Fluorouracil Methotrexate
53
A 30-yo patient was admitted due to fever, RUQ pain, and diarrhea of one-week duration. Abdominal ultrasound revealed a 8 cm liver abscess, which on aspiration demonstrated brown fluid. Which medication can be used to manage this condition? Metronidazole Piperacillin-Tazobactam Carbapenem Paromomycin
Metronidazole
54
Adverse hypersensitivity reaction manifesting as fever, headache , skin rashes, myalgias, and/or arthralgias due to release of antigens from dying helminths during deworming therapy: Cinchonism Mazzoti Blackwater Acetaldehyde syndrome
Mazzoti
55
Bactericidal drugs are those that primarily act on: Protein synthesis Enzymes Cell wall/ membrane DNA
Cell wall/ membrane DNA
56
Because of right upper quadrant pain, patient had upper abdominal ultrasound which revealed gallstone. Since patient does not consent to a surgical treatment, medical dissolution can be tried using which drug? Gemfibrozil Pancrealipase Atorvastatin Chenodeoxycholic acid
Chenodeoxycholic acid
57
An adult hypertensive patient contracted COVID 19 and manifested with anosmia, dysgeusia and mild sore throat. During an OPD consultation, the patient asked if he could be given Remdesivir. Physician advised otherwise and enumerated the FDA- approved recommendations for the use of the antiviral drug: Hospitalized for moderate to severe infection Without co-morbidities 12 years of age and older Weighing at least 40 kg
Hospitalized for moderate to severe infection 12 years of age and older Weighing at least 40 kg
58
6 months after his 2 week-duration of jaundice, patient had a serologic screening panel which revealed the following results: HBsAg (+), Anti-HBc (+), IgM Anti-HBc (-), Anti- HBs (-). Which FDA-approved antiviral drug may be given to the patient? Oseltamivir Valacyclovir Tenofovir Emtricitabine Option 1
Tenofovir Emtricitabine
59
Some activated charcoal products contain sorbitol. Sorbitol is a sweetener. What is the rationale for this combination? Neutralization of the toxin Correction of poison-induced hypoglycemia Increase in GI transit time Enhancement of palatability
Increase in GI transit time Enhancement of palatability
60
A parent showed a photo of a worm that passed out when her child was moving her bowels. What drug can you possibly prescribe? Tinidazole Mebendazole Diethylcarbamazine Pyrantel
Mebendazole Pyrantel
61
This drug is effective in maintaining IBD remission: Sulfasalazine Methotrexate Infliximab Prednisone
Methotrexate Infliximab
62
A physician advised the patient to take his levofloxacin 2 hours before or after taking sucralfate. The reason for this advice is to prevent: Reduction of levofloxacin's bioavailability Reduction of sucralfate's efficacy Increase of levofloxacin's adverse effects Prolonged excretion of levofloxacin
Reduction of levofloxacin's bioavailability
63
An adult patient is diagnosed to have a ruptured acute appendicitis. Which drug or combination of drugs can be used to manage the intraabdominal polymicrobial infection? Cefoxitin Clindamycin Imipinem Piperacillin-Tazobactam + Metronidazole
Piperacillin-Tazobactam + Metronidazole
64
This antibacterial drug has good Gram (-) coverage: * Levofloxacin Clindamycin Ceftriaxone Gentamicin
Levofloxacin Ceftriaxone Gentamicin
65
This antibiotic acts as competitive inhibitor of the enzyme dihydropteroate synthetase (DHPS), an enzyme involved in folate synthesis: Suphonamide Quinolone Clindamycin Aminoglycoside
Suphonamide
66
Praziquantel is the drug of choice for the treatment of this helminth infestation: Taenia coli Wuchereria bancrofti Schistosoma japonicum Ancylostoma duodenale
Schistosoma japonicum
67
True statement regarding efficacy of anti-neoplastic agents: Many cytotoxic agents act by damaging the cell membrane Tumors with high growth fraction are more responsive to chemotherapy Chemotherapeutic agents damage rapidly proliferating normal cells Malignant cells in G0 phase for long periods are less responsive
* Tumors with high growth fraction are more responsive to chemotherapy * Chemotherapeutic agents damage rapidly proliferating normal cells * Malignant cells in G0 phase for long periods are less responsive
68
A 40-yo patient consulted at OPD because of painful blisters on one side of his body for 7-day duration. As a physician, you may prescribe/advise: Celecoxib Sultamicillin Hospital admission Oseltamivir
Celecoxib
69
A pediatric patient ingested an excessive dose of paracetamol (PCM). The ER physician inserted an NGT and administered AC. What is the rationale for this management? Antidote to effects of PCM Formation of non-toxic product Minimize PCM absorption Increase in GI transit time of PCM
Minimize PCM absorption
70
Inadequate TB treatment can lead to which of the following? Development of drug resistance Treatment failure Ongoing transmission Relapse
* Development of drug resistance * Treatment failure * Ongoing transmission * Relapse
71
A patient complained of nausea, heartburn, belching, bloating, and occasional colicky epigastric pain. Has been self-medicating with Maltodextrin (Fibrosine) and Metoclopramide. A medical intern prescribed Hyoscine, Aluminum/Magnesium Hydroxide-Simethicone, and Ranitidine. Match the drug and its intended indication: Break up gas bubbles in the gut Quickly lower stomach acid Relief of colic Lower stomach acid production **Simethicone**
Break up gas bubbles in the gut
72
A patient complained of nausea, heartburn, belching, bloating, and occasional colicky epigastric pain. Has been self-medicating with Maltodextrin (Fibrosine) and Metoclopramide. A medical intern prescribed Hyoscine, Aluminum/Magnesium Hydroxide-Simethicone, and Ranitidine. Match the drug and its intended indication: Break up gas bubbles in the gut Quickly lower stomach acid Relief of colic Lower stomach acid production **Al/Mag Hydroxide**
Quickly lower stomach acid
73
A patient complained of nausea, heartburn, belching, bloating, and occasional colicky epigastric pain. Has been self-medicating with Maltodextrin (Fibrosine) and Metoclopramide. A medical intern prescribed Hyoscine, Aluminum/Magnesium Hydroxide-Simethicone, and Ranitidine. Match the drug and its intended indication: Break up gas bubbles in the gut Quickly lower stomach acid Relief of colic Lower stomach acid production **Hyoscine**
Relief of colic
74
A patient complained of nausea, heartburn, belching, bloating, and occasional colicky epigastric pain. Has been self-medicating with Maltodextrin (Fibrosine) and Metoclopramide. A medical intern prescribed Hyoscine, Aluminum/Magnesium Hydroxide-Simethicone, and Ranitidine. Match the drug and its intended indication: Break up gas bubbles in the gut Quickly lower stomach acid Relief of colic Lower stomach acid production **Ranitidine**
Lower stomach acid production
75
An 18-yo patient sought consultation because of patches of discolored spots on his skin. Which drug may be prescribed? Tinidazole Ketoconazole Amphotericin B Cotrimoxazole
Ketoconazole
76
An adult patient underwent excision biopsy of one of the neck masses that appeared since 3 months PTC. Biopsy reported caseous necrosis. Chest x-ray revealed normal findings. What is the definitive management for this patient? 2HRZE/4HR 2HRZE/10HR Clindamycin Sultamicillin
2HRZE/4HR
77
A bladder cancer patient experienced chest pain and palpitations a few days after undergoing MVDC chemotherapy. If the symptoms were adverse effects, which anti-neoplastic drug is most likely responsible? Cisplatin Vincristine Doxorubicin Methotrexate
Doxorubicin
78
This is the usual dose-limiting adverse effect in chemotherapy. Nausea and vomiting Renal toxicity Alopecia Myelosuppression
Myelosuppression
79
Which of the cephalosporins has the broadest spectrum of activity and the most activit against gram-negative organisms? Cefadroxil Ceftriaxone Cefaclor Cefoxitin
Ceftriaxone
80
Demonstrates antibacterial activity against a broad spectrum of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa: Piperacillin Carbenicillin Azlocillin Ticarcillin
Azlocillin
81
A patient complained of burning epigastric pain associated with nausea and heartburn. Which drug is appropriate for this patient? Omeprazole Metoclopramide Loperamide Famotidine
Omeprazole Famotidine
82
During a routine annual physical examination, a company employee had a fecalysis result of: Consistency = Formed; Amoeba cyst (+); Amoeba trophozoite (-). Which drug is appropriate for this condition? Metronidazole Chloroquine Diloxanide furoate Paromonycin
Diloxanide furoate Paromonycin
83
Mechanism of action of misoprostol includes: Relaxation of pregnant uterus Reduction of gastric acid secretion Enhancement of gastric motility (prokinesis) Increase in gastric mucus and bicarbonate secretion
* Reduction of gastric acid secretion * Increase in gastric mucus and bicarbonate secretion
84
This antibiotic can cause discoloration and hypoplasia of teeth in children: Ciprofloxacin Chloramphenicol Tetracycline Erythromycin
Tetracycline
85
A male patient diagnosed with recurrent duodenal ulcerations was maintained on an acid-reducing medication. He later complained of breast enlargement. The drug most likely prescribed was: Bismuth subsalicylate Cimetidine Misoprostol Esomeprazole
Cimetidine
86
This anti-neoplastic drug inhibits function of microtubules, i.e., M phase specific: Docetaxel Vincristine Vinblastine Hydroxyurea
Docetaxel Vincristine Vinblastine
87
AC administration is NOT indicated in which of the following substances: Methanol Iron Benzodiazepine Cyanide
Methanol Iron Cyanide
88
Antibacterial agents considered safe in pregnancy: Fluoroquinolones Penicillins Macrolides Tetracyclines
Penicillins Macrolides
89
This anti-neoplastic drug is active in the resting phase of malignant cells, i.e., cell cycle independent: Doxorubicin Cyclophosphamide Streptozocin Epipodophyllotoxin
Cyclophosphamide Streptozocin
90
Patient consulted at OPD complaining of nausea, vomiting, headache, dizziness , and abdominal discomfort after drinking alcoholic beverages. Had been taking Metronidazole for his colitis. The most likely cause was: Colitis exacerbation Aceltaldehyde accumulation Ethanol poisoning Metronidazole toxicity
Aceltaldehyde accumulation
91
Patient was diagnosed to have acid peptic disease. An antacid was given but patient complained later of watery stools. The antacid most likely prescribed is: Aluminum hydoxide Calcium carbonate Magnesium hydroxide Sodium bicarbonate
Magnesium hydroxide
92
Jose is traveling to a malaria-endemic area so he consulted a physician for his chemoprophylaxis. Which drug may be prescribed to prevent malaria? Chloroquine Doxycycline Primaquine Mefloquine
Chloroquine Doxycycline Primaquine Mefloquine
93
Chemotherapy drug that is used for breast cancer: Cyclophosphamide Doxorubicin Methotrexate Fluorouracil
Cyclophosphamide Doxorubicin Methotrexate Fluorouracil
94
Characteristic of cancerous cells which refers to loss of cellular differentiation A. Anaplasia C. Autonomy B. Metastasis D. Angiogenesis
A. Anaplasia
95
A type of solid tumor which arises from epithelial tissue: A. Sarcoma C. Lymphoma B. Carcinoma D. Leukemia
B. Carcinoma
96
In cell cycle kinetics, it refers to the resting phase: A. G1 phase C. M phase B. Synthesis phase D. GO phase
D. GO phase