FINALS RECALLS Flashcards by SALI BABY

The sum total of the knowledge, skills, and practices based on the theories, beliefs, and experiences indigenous to different cultures, whether explicable or not, used in the maintenance of health as well as in the prevention, improvement, or treatment of physical and mental illness:
Conventional Medicine
Alternative Medicine
Traditional Medicine
Primary Health Care

Traditional Medicine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The acute appearance of progressive decrease in response to a given dose after repetitive administration of a pharmacologically active substance:
Tolerance
Refractoriness
Resistance
Tachyphylaxis

Tachyphylaxis

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A term used to describe the interaction of two drugs whose opposing actions in the body tend to cancel each other:
Physiological Antagonism
Pharmacokinetic Antagonism
Competitive Antagonism
Chemical Antagonism

Physiological Antagonism

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

his is type of chemical bonding usually results in irreversible action:
Hydrogen
Ionic
Hydrophobic
Covalent

Covalent

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Ability of a drug to activate a receptor and generate a cellular response:
Potency
Specificity
Affinity
Efficacy

Efficacy

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Refers to the relationship between an effect of a drug and the amount of drug given:
Therapeutic ratio
Threshold
Maximal efficacy
Dose response curve

Dose response curve

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A drug that has a narrow therapeutic index means that it is:
Safe
Less efficacious
Less potent
Highly potentially toxic

Highly potentially toxic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which statement about the distribution of drugs to specific tissues is correct?

Distribution is increased for drugs that are strongly bound to plasma proteins
Distribution to an organ is independent of blood flow
Distribution is independent of the solubility of the drug
Distribution into tissue depends on the unbound drug
concentration gradient between blood and the tissue

Distribution into tissue depends on the unbound drug
concentration gradient between blood and the tissue

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A drug is eliminated by first-order kinetics. Which of the following statements best describes the process by which the plasma concentration of this drug declines?

Constant amount of drug metabolized per unit time
Increased rate of metabolism as drug concentration increases
Only one metabolic path for drug elimination
Extensive first-pass effect

Increased rate of metabolism as drug concentration increases

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This refers to the process of the drug moving from the administration site into the bloodstream:
Distribution
Excretion
Absorption
Metabolism

Absorption

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Phenomenon of drug metabolism whereby the concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation:
Elimination half-life
Bioavailability
First pass effect
Clearance

First pass effect

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A type of adverse drug reaction that can result from genetic polymorphism:
Idiosyncratic
Allergic
Dose dependent
Drug interaction

Idiosyncratic

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This type of drug allergic reaction is mediated by sensitized T-lymphocytes and macrophages:
Anaphylaxis
Delayed hypersensitivity
Cytolitic
Arthus

Delayed hypersensitivity

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Serum sickness-like drug allergic reaction primarily involves:

Production of lymphokines and the subsequent influx of neutrophils and macrophages
Degranulation of mast cells and basophils
Activation of complement in response to immune complexes deposited in tissues
Antibody reactivity against cell membrane-associated antigen that results in cytolysis

Activation of complement in response to immune complexes deposited in tissues

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Factor which will enhance excretion of drugs and metabolites in the kidneys:
Large molecules
Ionization
Lipid solubility
Protein binding

Ionization

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Absorption of drug through the skin can be enhanced by the following

Well hydrated skin
Cutaneous inflammation
Presence of confluent abrasions
Topical drug in a water-based vehicle

Well hydrated skin
Cutaneous inflammation
Presence of confluent abrasions

FEEL KO. LANG

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

This is a true statement regarding protein-bound drug molecule:

Is pharmacologically active
Contributes to concentration gradient
Is filtered in glomerulus
Distributes poorly to tissues

Distributes poorly to tissues

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which factor can enhance passage of drug molecule through cell membrane:
Water soluble
Albumin bound
Non ionized
Non lipid soluble

Non ionized

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

The chemical structure of a drug determines the following:
Drug specificity
Toxicity
Intrinsic activity
Affinity for its receptor

Drug specificity
Intrinsic activity
Affinity for its receptor

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

Which statement is TRUE regarding specificity?

a. Conformation of ligand is complementary to space defined by receptor’s active site
b. Fewer the type of receptor a drug can bind, the lower the drug’s specificity
c. Specificity is reciprocal
d. Low specificity increases the chance of side effects

Conformation of ligand is complementary to space defined by receptor’s active site
Specificity is reciprocal
Low specificity increases the chance of side effects

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During surgery under general anesthesia, patient was noted to have muscle rigidity, hyperpyrexia and tachycardia. Which drug is most urgent to administer:
Succinylcholine
Propanolol
Dantrolene
Paracetamol

Dantrolene

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During administration of succinylcholine, patient was noted to have a PR of 50 bpm. The anesthesiologist will most likely administer which drug to correct the condition:

Ephedrine
Vecuronium
Neostigmine
Atropine

Atropine

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

During endotracheal intubation for general anesthesia, the patient manifested muscle twitching when a muscle relaxant was administered. Which drug was most likely given?

Pancuronium
Tiazinidine
Succinylcholine
Baclofen

Succinylcholine

depolarizing NMJ., including decamethonium

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A patient has been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism but has been noncompliant with her medications. She complained of palpitations which prompted her to seek consult. Upon ECG, she has irregular heart rate and some skip beats. What agent will most likely help her?

Isoproterenol
Propanolol
Salbutamol
Dobutamine

Propanolol

How well did you know this?

Not at all

Perfectly

A 58-year old male patient has difficulty in urination. He is diagnosed to have benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which **drug can promote urination?** Tamsulosin Sildenafil Clonidine Ergometrine

Tamsulosin

A 23-year old female patient has suddenly experienced difficulty of breathing, cold clammy skin and hypotension after intake of an antibiotic. Which agent is best to administer? Phenylphrine Ephedrine Epinephrine Atropine

Epinephrine

Ipratropium is indicated in which of the following clinical conditions? Peptic ulcer disease Bronchial asthma Hypertension Heart failure

Bronchial asthma

This drug is an analog of the **inhibitory** neurotransmitter **GABA** that acts on **reducing nerve impulses from the spinal cord to skeletal muscle** causing muscle relaxation: Baclofen Tizanidine Mephenesin Dantrolene

**Baclofen** * Tizanidine - **agonist at alpha 2-adrenergic** receptor sites and presumably reduces spasticity by increasing presynaptic inhibition of motor neurons * Mephenesin - blocks both **inward sodium and inward calcium currents** in neurons * Dantrolene - interferes with the **release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum** of skeletal muscle cells

A 50 year old patient was brought to the ER due to sudden onset of cold clammy skin and confusion. His BP was 70/40 and HR was 43. He was just resting after doing his routine exercise when it happened. Which agent can be given intravenously to enhance myocardial activity? Dobutamine Metoprolol Isoproterenol Dopamine

Dobutamine Isoproterenol Dopamine ????

A known asthmatic patient is diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which antihypertensive drug is appropriate for her? Propranolol Enalapril Amlodipine Losartan

Amlodipine Losartan

A 25 year old female patient has been experiencing weakness of extremities, ptosis of her right eye and difficulty of breathing. She is suspected to have Myasthenia Gravis (MG). Which drug can be used to test for MG? Atropine Pralidoxime Edrophonium Physostigmine

Edrophonium

This drug can inhibit the sodium-potassium- chloride cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of a nephron: Acetazolamide Hydrochlorothiazide thiazide Spironolactone Furosemide

Furosemide

Which statement is FALSE regarding dopamine: At higher doses can increase blood pressure At 5 ug/kg/min or 35 ug/kg/min can be used to improve blood flow to the kidneys Has both direct and indirect actions Can effectively cross the blood-brain barrier

Can effectively cross the blood-brain barrier

Drug of choice for treatment of acute angina: Sodium nitroprusside Isosorbide mononitrate Nitroglycerine Isosorbide dinitrate

Isosorbide mononitrate Nitroglycerine

This drug is a vasodilator but is more commonly used for treating baldness: Prazosin Minoxidil Tamsulosin Tadalafil

Minoxidil

This substance is commonly associated with cough as an adverse effect Captopril Bradykinin Losartan Candesartan

Captopril Bradykinin

Which drug is being employed in balanced anesthesia to decrease the chance of allergic reaction and help dry up secretions? Atropine Metoclopramide Diphenhydramine Omeprazole

Diphenhydramine diba apil ang atropine???

The anesthetic action of intravenous anesthetics is primarily terminated by: Redistribution Inactivation by enzymes Elimination via the kidneys Hepatic metabolism

Redistribution

This analgesic drug has the least chance of causing gastric irritation: Celecoxib Meloxicam Ketoprofen Acetaminophen

Celecoxib

Which drug has anti-platelet and anti-inflammatory effects? Acetylsalicylic acid Rofecoxib Paracetamol Tramadol

Acetylsalicylic acid

Misoprostol has the following effects: Prokinetic effect on stomach Decrease in gastric acid secretion Uterine contraction Increase in mucous and bicarbonate secretion

* Decrease in gastric acid secretion * Uterine contraction * Increase in mucous and bicarbonate secretion

A passenger jeepney driver complains of urticaria. Which drug can be prescribed? Levocetirizine Brompheniramine Chlorpheniramine Hydroxyzine

Levocetirizine

This is an effect of cimetidine Decongestion of mucosa Inhibition of gastric acid secretion Somnolence Suppression of itchiness

Inhibition of gastric acid secretion Somnolence ???

This is an effect of paracetamol: Anti-inflammation Anti-thrombosis Antipyresis Gastric irritation

Antipyresis

Cyclosporine is most effective in which clinical condition: Inflammatory bowel disease Systemic fungal infection Transplant rejection Bacterial sepsis

* Inflammatory bowel disease * Transplant rejection

Azathioprine is indicated in the management of which condition: Crohn’s disease Glomerulonephritis Breast cancer Urinary bladder cancer

Crohn’s disease

Group of signaling proteins made and released by host cells in defensive response to presence of viruses: Interferon Monoclonal antibody Interleukin TNF Alpha

Interferon

Blocks the action of leukotriene D4 on the cysteinyl leukotriene receptor in the lungs and bronchi hence reducing bronchial inflammation and constriction: Cromolyn Montelukast Budesonide Aminophylline

**Montelukast** Cromolyn _ mast celll stabilizer Montelukast : leukotriene inhibitor Budesonide:corticosteroid Aminophylline:methylxanthine

Which histamine antagonist can be used to prevent motion sickness Levocetirizine Chlorpheniramine Ketotifen Ranitidine Cetirizine Meclizine Diphenhydramine

Meclizine Diphenhydramine

The most common side effect of nitrates in which nearly 10% of patients are unable to tolerate: Palpitations Flushing Hypotension Headache

Flushing Headache

Phenylpropanolamine is indicated in condition: Diabetes Hypertension Asthma Rhinitis

Rhinitis

It acts by inhibiting the release of chemical mediators from sensitized mast cells: Cromolyn Tiotropium Zafirlukast Coxib

Cromolyn

Refers to rebound swelling and congestion of the nasal mucosa when the decongestant is discontinued after prolonged use: Hay fever Rhinitis medicamentosa Vasomotor rhinitis Tachyphylaxis

Rhinitis medicamentosa

Splits apart disulfide bonds that are responsible for holding the mucus materials together: Ambroxol Dextromethorphan Chlorpheniramine Acetylcysteine

Acetylcysteine

This drug blocks the muscarinic receptors of acetylcholine in the bronchial musculature resulting to bronchodilation: Fluticasone Ipratropium Aminophylline Guaifenesin

Ipratropium

This drug is both used as a bronchodilator and a tocolytic agent: Salbutamol Theophylline Terbutaline Ritodrine

Terbutaline

Drug of choice for fast relief of asthma in acute exacerbation: Salbutamol Ipratropium Epinephrine Salmetrol

Salbutamol

The usual dose-limiting adverse effect of colchicine: Nausea/vomiting Drowsiness Headache Diarrhea

Nausea/vomiting Diarrhea

Gingival hyperplasia is a common adverse effect of this medication: Ethosuximide Gabapentin Carbamazepine Phenytoin

Phenytoin

This drug can be used to manage depression: Fluoxetine Haloperidol Clonazepam Chlordiazepoxide

Fluoxetine

One of the following is a neuroleptic drug: Chlorpromazine Sertraline Gabapentin Amantadine

Chlorpromazine

A benzodiazepine that is commonly used as a sedative-hypnotic drug: Midazolam Zolpidem Phenobarbital Diazepam

Diazepam

A patient was observed to have shaking, stiffness, and difficulty with walking, balance, and coordination. Appropriate medication for this condition includes: Carbidopa Valproic acid Levodopa Pregabalin

Levodopa

Which drug can reduce gastric acid secretion: Famotidine Aluminum hydroxide Sucralfate Lanzoprazole

Famotidine Lanzoprazole ???

This drug can increase stool mass and water content, promoting peristalsis: Bisacodyl Lactulose Sodium picosulphate Psyllium

Psyllium

An anti-psychotic medication which can also be used to manage nausea and vomiting: Thioridazine Promethazine Fluphenazine Clozapine

Promethazine

This drug can be used to manage flatulence because it can disperse gas pockets in the GIT: Lactulose Simethicone Loperamide Metoclopramide

Simethicone

A synthetic opioid that binds to opioid receptors in the intestinal wall to slow gut movement: Hyoscine Loperamide Bismuth subsalicylate Attapulgite

Loperamide

Which of the following anti-ulcer medication can cause constipation: Calcium carbonate CaCO3 Aluminum hydroxide Al(OH)3 Magnesium carbonate MgCO3 Magnesium hydroxide Mg(OH)2

Aluminum hydroxide Al(OH)3

First-line therapy for mild to moderate ulcerative colitis: Sulfamethoxazole Sulfapyridine Sulfadiazine Sulfasalazine

Sulfasalazine

Stool softeners include the following: Psyllium Senna Dietary fiber Methylcellulose

Psyllium Dietary fiber Methylcellulose

Useful for the treatment of carcinoid tumors, VIPomas, glucagonomas, and acromegaly: Carboprost Somatotropin Dinoprostone Octreotide

Octreotide

This drug inhibits the action of α-glucsidase in the intestinal brush border and slows the absorption of carbohydrates from the GI tract: Rosiglitazone Liraglutide Miglitol Acarbose

Miglitol Acarbose ksama nila c voglibose

This drug can cause insulin secretion by beta cells in the pancreas: Metformin Glipizide Pioglitazone Acarbose

Glipizide

This drug is used extensively in conditions characterized by osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, including osteoporosis, steroid-induced osteoporosis, tumor-associated osteolysis, and hypercalcemia: Cinacalcet Calcitriol Teriparatide Bisphosphonates

Bisphosphonates

Acute inhibition of the synthesis of iodotyrosines and iodothyronines upon administration of high concentrations of iodide: Plummer’s Disease Jod-Basedow phenomenon Wolff-Chaikoff effect Iodism

Wolff-Chaikoff effect

Drug for preventing postpartum hemorrhage: Methylergonovine Misoprostol Carboprost Oxytocin

Methylergonovine Misoprostol Carboprost Oxytocin

This is an anti-platelet drug: Dypridamole Aspirin Warfarin Clopidogrel

Dypridamole Aspirin Clopidogrel

Parenterally administered iron chelating agent used to treat transfusion related chronic iron overload Deferoxamine Iron dextran Protamine EDTA

Deferoxamine

Achlorhydria and decreased secretion of intrinsic factor by parietal cells secondary to gastric atrophy or gastric surgery is a common cause of deficiency of this vitamin: Cyanocobalamin Pyridoxine Riboflavin Folic Acid

Cyanocobalamin

Binds to the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III (AT) which then inactivates thrombin, factor Xa and other coagulation proteases: Clopidogrel Heparin Warfarin Tranexamic acid

Heparin and fondaparinux

An anti-fibrinolytic that competitively inhibits the activation of plasminogen to plasmin: Ticlopidine Clopidogrel Tranexamic acid Aminocaproic acid

Tranexamic acid Aminocaproic acid

The treatment of choice for rodenticide poisoning with active bleeding: Protamine Tranexamic acid Vitamin K Fresh whole blood

Vitamin K

POISONING AND ANTIDOTE WARFARIN

vitamin K

POISONING AND ANTIDOTE OXYCODONE

NALOXONE

POISONING AND ANTIDOTE INH

Pyridoxine

POISONING AND ANTIDOTE paracetamol

N-acetylcysteine

Selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM): Anastrozole Megestrol acetate Diethylstilbestrol Tamoxifen

Tamoxifen

Cardiac toxicity is most commonly associated with which of the following anti-neoplastic drugs: Cyclophosphamide Vincristine Doxorubicin Methotrexate

Cyclophosphamide Doxorubicin

Most common dose-limiting toxic factor in chemotherapy: Diarrhea Leukopenia Nausea and vomiting Alopecia

Leukopenia

Attacks the hypnozoite forms and prevents formation of male/female gametocytes thus preventing recurrence and further spread of the plasmodium protozoa: Chloroquine Halofantrine Mefloquine Primaquine

Primaquine

Irreversibly binds to nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular junction, thus causing spastic paralysis of the helminths: Diethylcarbamazine Ivermectin Mebendazole Pyrantel

Pyrantel

The drug of choice for treating all species of schistosomes: Piperazine Praziquantel Niclosamide Ivermectin

Praziquantel

This antibiotic can cause discoloration and hypoplasia of teeth (due to deposition in teeth which primarily occurs in children): Chloramphenicol Tetracycline Erythromycin Ciprofloxacin

Tetracycline

Bactericidal drugs include drugs that primarily act on the following: Protein synthesis Bacterial DNA Cell membrane Cell wall ## Footnote Protein synthesis

Bacterial DNA Cell membrane Cell wall

Antibiotics with good anti-anaerobic activity: Clindamycin Cefoxitin Metronidazole Clarithryomycin

Clindamycin??? Metronidazole???

Drugs recommended for the treatment of coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19 infection) caused by the SARS-CoV-2 virus: Anti-CoV-2 Monoclonal antibodies Dexamethasone Chloroquine Remdesivir

Remdesivir

The medical use of Acyclovir includes treatment of viral infection caused by: Infectious mononucleosis Hepatitis B Herpes Influenza

Herpes

True statements regarding the amended provisions of the Generics Law: A. Drug outlets shall inform buyer about drug products having same generic name B. All medical practitioners shall write prescriptions using the generic name C. All prescribers must write their PRC, PTR and S2 numbers in the prescription form D. Brand name of a drug must not appear in the prescription form

A. Drug outlets shall inform buyer about drug products having same generic name B. All medical practitioners shall write prescriptions using the generic name

Drug dosage is 50 mg/kg/day in3 divided doses. Drug preparation is 250 mg/5 ml. If child weighs 10 kg, how much drug in ml is to be given per dose? 2.3 1.3 3.3 4.3

3.3