4 Flashcards
1
Q
abbreviation :
AC
a. before meal
b. after meal
A
a. before meal
2
Q
PC
a. before meal
b. after meal
A
b. after meal
3
Q
PRN
a. as needed
b. at bed time
A
a. as needed
4
Q
dangerous abbreviation
a. as needed
b. at bed time
A
a. as needed / PRN
5
Q
HS- BT
a. as needed
b. at bed time
A
b. at bed time
6
Q
PO
a. by oral
b. by rectum
A
a. by oral
7
Q
PR
a. by oral
b. by rectum
A
b. by rectum
8
Q
OD
a. once a day
b. twice a day
c. thrice a day
d. four times a day
A
a. once a day
9
Q
BID
a. once a day
b. twice a day
c. thrice a day
d. four times a day
A
b. twice a day
10
Q
TID
a. once a day
b. twice a day
c. thrice a day
d. four times a day
A
c. thrice a day
11
Q
QID
a. once a day
b. twice a day
c. thrice a day
d. four times a day
A
d. Four times a dayt
12
Q
Tw
a. once a day
b. twice a day
c. thrice a day
d. twice a week
A
d. twice a week
13
Q
QD
a. everyday
b. every other day
c. every hour
d. every morning
A
a. everyday
14
Q
QOD
a. everyday
b. every other day
c. every hour
d. every morning
A
b. every other dayQH
15
Q
QH
a. everyday
b. every other day
c. every hour
d. every morning
A
c. every hour
16
Q
QAM
a. everyday
b. every other day
c. every hour
d. every morning
A
d. every morning
17
Q
QPM
a. every night
b. every 4 hours
A
a. every nigth
18
Q
Q4H
a. every night
b. every 4 hours
A
b. every 4 hours
19
Q
BD
a. before dinner
b. before breakfast
A
a. before dinner
20
Q
BBF
a. before dinner
b. before breakfast
A
b. before breakfast
21
Q
Per siem
a. before dinner
b. before breakfast
c. daily - per day
A
c. daily- per day
22
Q
C.
a. with
b. cubic centimeter
c. without
A
a. with
23
Q
CC
a. with
b. cubic centimeter
c. without
A
b. cubic centimeter
24
Q
S
a. with
b. cubic centimeter
c. without
A
c. without
25
Rx
a. treatment
b. history
c. diagnosis
d. fracture
a. treatment
26
Hx
a. treatment
b. history
c. diagnosis
d. fracture
b. history
27
Dx
a. treatment
b. history
c. diagnosis
d. fracture
c. diagnosis
28
Fx
a. treatment
b. history
c. diagnosis
d. fracture
d. fraction
29
G-Gm
a. gram
b. grain
c. ounce
d. milligram
a. gram
30
Gr
a. gram
b. grain
c. ounce
d. milligram
b. grain
31
Oz
a. gram
b. grain
c. ounce
d. milligram
c. ounce
32
Mg
a. gram
b. grain
c. ounce
d. milligram
d. Milligram
33
Mcg
a. microgram
b. milliequivalent
c. teaspoonful
a. Microgram
34
Meq
a. microgram
b. milliequivalent
c. teaspoonful
b. milliequivalent
35
TSF
a. microgram
b. milliequivalent
c. teaspoonful
c. teaspoonful
36
5mL
a. microgram
b. milliequivalent
c. teaspoonful
c. teaspoonful
37
IM
a. intramuscular
b. intravenous
c. intradermal
d. subcutaneous
a. intramuscular
38
IV
a. intramuscular
b. intravenous
c. intradermal
d. subcutaneous
b. intravenous
39
ID
a. intramuscular
b. intravenous
c. intradermal
d. subcutaneous
c. intradermal
40
SC - SQ
a. intramuscular
b. intravenous
c. intradermal
d. subcutaneous
d. subcutaneous
41
SOS
a. if needed
b. capsule
a. if needed
42
Cap
a. if needed
b. capsule
b. capsule
43
antidote for anticholinergic (Atropine, Benztropine Xss CNS depression from DIazepam ) Toxicity
a. physostigmine
b. vitamin B6
c. L-carnitine
d. Leuxovorin
a. Physostigmine
44
what is the antidote of isoniazide (INH) toxicity?
a. physostigmine
b. vitamin B6
c. L-carnitine
d. Leuxovorin
b. vitamin B6P
45
Pyridoxine
a. physostigmine
b. vitamin B6
c. L-carnitine
d. Leuxovorin
b. vitamin B 6
46
what is the antidote for valproic acid toxicity?
a. physostigmine
b. vitamin B 6
c. L-carnitine
d. Leucovorin
c. L-carnitine
47
what is the antidote for Methotrexate toxicity?
a. physostigmine
b. vitamin B 6
c. L-carnitine
d. Leucovorin
d. Leucovorin
48
MTX
a. physostigmine
b. vitamin B 6
c. L-carnitine
d. Methotrexate
d. Methotrexate
49
what is the antidote for methemoglobinemia including agents: nitrites , nitrates toxicity
a. methylene blue
b. digibind, digifab
c. glucagon
d. calcium - Glucagon
a. methylene blue
50
what is the antidote of Digoxin toxicity
a. methylene blue
b. digibind, digifab
c. glucagon
d. calcium - Glucagon
b. digibind, digifab
51
what is the antidote of Beta blockers toxicity
a. methylene blue
b. digibind, digifab
c. glucagon
d. calcium - Glucagon
c. glucagon
52
what is the antidote of calcium channel blocker toxicity
a. methylene blue
b. digibind, digifab
c. glucagon
d. calcium - Glucagon
d. calcium - glucagon
53
what is the treatment for Opiods ( Morphine, Heroin, Codeine, Fentanyl)
a. Naloxone - Natrexone - Nalmefene
b. flumazenil
c. sodium bicarbonate
a. Naloxone- Naltrexone - Nalmefene
54
what is the treatment for benzodiazepine (diazepam , zolpidem) toxicity?
a. Naloxone - Natrexone - Nalmefene
b. flumazenil
c. sodium bicarbonate
b. Flumazenil
55
what is the treatrement for TCA ( Imipramine, Amitriptyline ) toxicity ?
a. Naloxone - Natrexone - Nalmefene
b. flumazenil
c. sodium bicarbonate
c. sodium bicarbonate
56
what is the treatment for warfarin toxicity?
a. vitamin K1
b. protamine sulfate
c. Idarucizumab
d. Aminocaproic acid and Tranexamic acid
a. vitamin K1
57
phyto-menadione
a. vitamin K1
b. protamine sulfate
c. Idarucizumab
d. Aminocaproic acid and Tranexamic acid
a. vitamin K1
58
what is the treatment for Heparin toxicity?
a. vitamin K1
b. protamine sulfate
c. Idarucizumab
d. Aminocaproic acid and Tranexamic acid
b. protamine sulfate
59
what is the treatment for dabigatran toxicity ?
a. vitamin K1
b. protamine sulfate
c. Idarucizumab
d. Aminocaproic acid and Tranexamic acid
c. Idarucizumab
60
what is the treatment for thrombolytics ( streptokinasae, urokinase, alteplase, reteplase) toxicity
a. vitamin K1
b. protamine sulfate
c. Idarucizumab
d. Aminocaproic acid and Tranexamic acid
d. aminio caprioc acid and tranexamic acid
61
what is the treatment for nerve gases toxicity?
a. atropine followed by pralidoxime (2-PAM )
b. Atropine
c. Sodium thiosulfate -Amyl nitrite- Na nitrite
a. Atropine followed by Pralidoxime (2-PAM)
62
what is the treatment fot organophosphorus insecticides toxicity?
a. atropine followed by pralidoxime (2-PAM )
b. Atropine
c. Sodium thiosulfate -Amyl nitrite- Na nitrite
a. atropine followed by pralidoxime (2-PAM)
63
what is the treatemtn for carbamate insecticides
a. atropine followed by pralidoxime (2-PAM )
b. Atropine
c. Sodium thiosulfate -Amyl nitrite- Na nitrite
b. atropine
64
what is the treatment for cyanide gas toxicity
a. atropine followed by pralidoxime (2-PAM )
b. Atropine
c. Sodium thiosulfate -Amyl nitrite- Na nitrite
c. Sodium thiosulfate -Amyl nitrite- Na nitrite
65
what is the treatment for chlorine gas toxicity?
a. sodium bicarbonate
b. 100% O2
c. sodium nitrite
a. sodium bicarbonate
66
what is the treatment for carbon monoxide toxicity?
a. sodium bicarbonate
b. 100% O2
c. sodium nitrite
b. 100% O2
67
what is the treatment for hydrogen sulfide toxicity?
a. sodium bicarbonate
b. 100% O2
c. sodium nitrite
c. sodium nitrite
68
what is the treatmnet for methanol?
a. ethanol- fomepizole - amyl nitrite -Na nitrite
b. ethanol-fomepizole - pyridoxime
a. ethanol- fomepizole - amyl nitrite -Na nitrite
69
what is the treatment for ethylene glycol
a. ethanol- fomepizole - amyl nitrite -Na nitrite
b. ethanol-fomepizole - pyridoxime
b. ethanol-fomepizole - pyridoxime
70
what is the treatemtn for Iron toxicity ?
a. deferoxamine
b. D-penicillamine-CaEDTA - Dimercaprol -DMSA - BAL
c. BAL
d. prussian blue
a. deferoxamine
71
what is the treatment for lead toxicity?
a. deferoxamine
b. D-penicillamine-CaEDTA - Dimercaprol -DMSA - BAL
c. BAL
d. prussian blue
b. D-penicillamine-CaEDTA - Dimercaprol -DMSA - BAL
72
what is the treatemnt for arsenic toxicity?
a. deferoxamine
b. D-penicillamine-CaEDTA - Dimercaprol -DMSA - BAL
c. BAL
d. prussian blue
c. BAL
73
what is the treatemtn for thallium toxicity?
a. deferoxamine
b. D-penicillamine-CaEDTA - Dimercaprol -DMSA - BAL
c. BAL
d. prussian blue
d. prusian blue
74
what is the treatemtn for mercury toxicity?
a. BAL - DMSA
b. D- penicillamine
c. Sodium bicarbonate - polystyrene sulfonate
a. BAL - DMSA
75
what is the treatemnt for Cupper toxicity?
a. BAL - DMSA
b. D- penicillamine
c. Sodium bicarbonate - polystyrene sulfonate
b. D-penicillamine
76
what is the treatemtn for Lithium toxicity?
a. BAL - DMSA
b. D- penicillamine
c. Sodium bicarbonate - polystyrene sulfonate
c. Sodium bicarbonate - polystyrene sulfonate
77
what is the treatemnt for paracetamol / Acetaminophen toxicity?
a. N-acetyl cysteine (NAC)
b. alkalinization (NaHCO3)
a. N-acetyl cysteine (NAC)
78
what is the treatment for aspirin (salicylic acid )toxicity
a. N-acetyl cysteine (NAC)
b. alkalinization (NaHCO3)
b. alkalinization (NaHCO3)
79
what is the treatment for sulfonylurea
toxicity
a. octreotide
b. Dextrose 50%
a. octreotide
80
what is the treatment for insuline toxicity ?
a. octreotide
b. dextrose 50%
b. dextrose 50%
81
what is the treatemtn for crotaline snake bites (e.g. rattle snakes )
toxicity
a. crotalidae anti venom (CroFab)
b. Latrodectus anti-venum
c. Loxosceles anti-venom
d. Scorpion anti-venom
a. crotalidae anti venom (CroFab)
82
what is the treatment for black widow spider venom toxicty?
a. crotalidae anti venom (CroFab)
b. Latrodectus anti-venum
c. Loxosceles anti-venom
d. Scorpion anti-venom
b. Latrodectus anti-venum
83
what is the treatemnt for brown recluse spider bite toxicity ?
a. crotalidae anti venom (CroFab)
b. Latrodectus anti-venum
c. Loxosceles anti-venom
d. Scorpion anti-venom
c. Loxosceles anti-venom
84
what is the treatemnt for scorpion sting toxicity?
a. crotalidae anti venom (CroFab)
b. Latrodectus anti-venum
c. Loxosceles anti-venom
d. Scorpion anti-venom
d. Scorpion anti-venom
85
what is the treatment for Clostridium botulinum toxicity?
a. crotalidae anti venom (CroFab)
b. Latrodectus anti-venum
c. Loxosceles anti-venom
d. Botulinum anti-toxin
d. Botulinum anti-toxin
86
what controls high blood levels of phosphorus in people with chronic kidney disease who are on dialysis
a. aspirin
b. sevelamer
c. sulfonylurea
b. sevelamer
87
what ate the essential amino acids
Isoleucine
Lysine
Leucine
Valine
Methionine
Phehylalanine
Tryptophan
Threonine
Histidine
Arginine
mnemonic :
I Love Lucy Very Much Please Try To Help Arginine
88
histidine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
a. essential
89
isoleucine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
a. essential
90
leucine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
a. essential
91
lysine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
a. essential
92
methionine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
a. essential
93
phenylalanine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
a. essential
94
threonine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
a. essential
95
tryptophan
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
a. essentialva
96
valine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
a. essential
97
alanine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
98
arginine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential
99
asparagine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
100
aspartic acid
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
101
cysteine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
102
glutamic acid
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
103
glutamine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
104
glycine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
105
proline
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
106
Selenocysteine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
107
serine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
108
tyrosine
a. essential
b. non essential amino acid
b. non essential amino acid
109
Ala
a. alanine
b. arginine
c. asparagine
d. aspartic acid
a. alanine
110
A
a. alanine
b. arginine
c. asparagine
d. aspartic acid
a. alanine
111
Arg
a. alanine
b. arginine
c. asparagine
d. aspartic acid
b. arginine
112
R
a. alanine
b. arginine
c. asparagine
d. aspartic acid
b. arginine
113
Asn
a. alanine
b. arginine
c. asparagine
d. aspartic acid
asparagine
114
N
a. alanine
b. arginine
c. asparagine
d. aspartic acid
c. asparagine
115
Asp
a. alanine
b. arginine
c. asparagine
d. aspartic acid
d. aspartic acid
116
D
a. alanine
b. arginine
c. asparagine
d. aspartic acid
d. aspartic acid
117
Cys
a. cysteine
b. Glutamine
c. Glutamic acid
d. Glycine
a. cysteine
118
C
a. cysteine
b. Glutamine
c. Glutamic acid
d. Glycine
a. cysteine
119
Gln
a. cysteine
b. Glutamine
c. Glutamic acid
d. Glycine
b. Glutamine
120
Q
a. cysteine
b. Glutamine
c. Glutamic acid
d. Glycine
b. Glutamine
121
Glu
a. cysteine
b. Glutamine
c. Glutamic acid
d. Glycine
c. Glutamic acid
122
E
a. cysteine
b. Glutamine
c. Glutamic acid
d. Glycine
c. Glutamic acid
123
Gly
a. cysteine
b. Glutamine
c. Glutamic acid
d. Glycine
d. Glycine
124
G
a. cysteine
b. Glutamine
c. Glutamic acid
d. Glycine
d. Glycine
125
His
a. HIstidine
b. Isoleucine
c.Leucine
d. Lysine
a. Histidine
126
H
a. HIstidine
b. Isoleucine
c.Leucine
d. Lysine
a. histidine
127
Ile
a. HIstidine
b. Isoleucine
c.Leucine
d. Lysine
b. Isoleucine
128
L
a. HIstidine
b. Isoleucine
c.Leucine
d. Lysine
b. Isoleucine
129
Leu
a. HIstidine
b. Isoleucine
c.Leucine
d. Lysine
c. Leucine
130
L
a. HIstidine
b. Isoleucine
c.Leucine
d. Lysine
c. Leucine
131
Lys
a. HIstidine
b. Isoleucine
c.Leucine
d. Lysine
d. Lysine
132
K
a. HIstidine
b. Isoleucine
c.Leucine
d. Lysine
d. lysine
133
Met
a. methionine
b. phenylalanine
c. phenylalanine
d. proline
a. methionine
134
Phe
a. methionine
b. phenylalanine
c. phenylalanine
d. proline
b. phenylalanine
135
M
a. methionine
b. phenylalanine
c. phenylalanine
d. proline
a. methionine
136
F
a. methionine
b. phenylalanine
c. phenylalanine
d. proline
b. phenylalanine
137
Pro
a. methionine
b. phenylalanine
c. phenylalanine
d. proline
d. proline
138
P
a. methionine
b. phenylalanine
c. phenylalanine
d. proline
d. proline
139
Phe
a. methionine
b. phenylalanine
c. phenylalanine
d. proline
c. phenylalanine
140
F
a. methionine
b. phenylalanine
c. phenylalanine
d. proline
c. phenylalanine
141
Ser
a. serine
b. threonine
c. tryptophan
d. tyrosine
a. serine
142
Thr
a. serine
b. threonine
c. tryptophan
d. tyrosine
b. threonine
143
T
a. serine
b. threonine
c. tryptophan
d. tyrosine
b. threonine
144
Trp
a. serine
b. threonine
c. tryptophan
d. tyrosine
c. tryptophan
145
W
a. serine
b. threonine
c. tryptophan
d. tyrosine
c. trypthophan
146
Tyr
a. serine
b. threonine
c. tryptophan
d. tyrosine
d. tyrosine
147
Y
a. serine
b. threonine
c. tryptophan
d. tyrosine
d. Tyrosine
148
Val
a. valine
b. pyrrolysine
c. aspartic acid or asparagine
d. glutamic acid or glutamine
a. valine
149
V
a. valine
b. pyrrolysine
c. aspartic acid or asparagine
d. glutamic acid or glutamine
a. valine
150
Pyl
a. valine
b. pyrrolysine
c. aspartic acid or asparagine
d. glutamic acid or glutamine
b. pyrrolysine
151
O
a. valine
b. pyrrolysine
c. aspartic acid or asparagine
d. glutamic acid or glutamine
b. pyrrolysine
152
Sec
a. valine
b. pyrrolysine
c. selenocysteine
d.aspartic acid or asparagine
c. selenocysteine
153
U
a. valine
b. pyrrolysine
c. selenocysteine
d.aspartic acid or asparagine
c. selenocysteine
154
Asx
a. valine
b. pyrrolysine
c. selenocysteine
d.aspartic acid or asparagine
d. aspartic acid or asparagine
155
B
a. valine
b. pyrrolysine
c. selenocysteine
d.aspartic acid or asparagine
d. aspartic acid or asparagine
156
Glx
a. glutamic acid or Glutamine
b. any amino acid
c. Leucine or Isoleucine
d. termination codon
a. glutamic acid or glutamine
157
Z
a. glutamic acid or Glutamine
b. any amino acid
c. Leucine or Isoleucine
d. termination codon
a. Glutamic acid or Glutamine
158
Xaa
a. glutamic acid or Glutamine
b. any amino acid
c. Leucine or Isoleucine
d. termination codon
b. any amino acid
159
X
a. glutamic acid or Glutamine
b. any amino acid
c. Leucine or Isoleucine
d. termination codon
b. any amino acid
160
Xle
a. glutamic acid or Glutamine
b. any amino acid
c. Leucine or Isoleucine
d. termination codon
c. Leuxine or Isoleucine
161
J
a. glutamic acid or Glutamine
b. any amino acid
c. Leucine or Isoleucine
d. termination codon
c. Leucine or Isoleucine
162
TERM
a. glutamic acid or Glutamine
b. any amino acid
c. Leucine or Isoleucine
d. termination codon
d. termination codon
163
what amino acids are produce in shikimic pathway in plants?
phenylalanine , tyrosine , tryptophan
164
alanine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
a. non polar amino acid
165
valine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
a. non polar amino acid
166
leucine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
a. non polar amino acid
167
isoleucine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
a. non polar amino acid
168
proline
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
a. non polar amino acid
169
methionine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
a. non polar amino acid
170
serine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
b. polar amino acid
171
threonine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
b. polar amino acid
172
cysteine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
b. polar amino acids
173
asparagine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
b. polar amino acid
174
glutamine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
b. polar amino acid
175
glycine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
b. polar amino acid
176
aspartate
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
177
glutamate
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
c.acidic amino acid
178
arginine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
d. basic amino acid
179
histidine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
d. basic amino acid
180
lysine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
d. basic amino acid
181
phenylalanine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
e. aromatic amino acid
182
tyrosine
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
e. aromatic amino acid
183
tryptophan
a. non polar amino acid
b. polar amino acid
c. acidic amino acid
d. basic amino acids
e. aromatic amino acid
e. aromatic amino acid
184
alanine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
a. aliphatic
185
valine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
a. aliphatic
186
leucine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
a. aliphatic
187
isoleucine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
a. aliphatic
188
proline
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
a. aliphatic
189
methionine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
b. thioether
190
serine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
c. R= alcohol
191
threonine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
c. R= alcohol
192
cysteine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
d. R= thiol
193
asparagine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
e. R=amide
194
glutamine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
e. R= amide
195
glycine
a. aliphatic
b. thioether
c. R= alcohol
d. R=thiol
e. R=amide
f. R=H
f. R=H
196
- CH3
a. alanine
b. valine
c. leucine
d. isoleucine
a. valine
197
isopropyl
a. alanine
b. valine
c. leucine
d. isoleucine
valine
198
isobutyl
a. alanine
b. valine
c. leucine
d. isoleucine
leucine
199
sec-butyl
a. alanine
b. valine
c. leucine
d. isoleucine
isoleucine
200
pyrrolidine
a. alanine
b. valine
c. leucine
d. proline
d. proline
201
R-S-R
a. methionine
b. serine
c. threonine
a. methionine
202
primary alcohol
a. methionine
b. serine
c. threonine
serine
203
secondary alcohol
a. methionine
b. serine
c. threonine
c. threonine
204
amine of aspartate
a. asparagine
b. glutamine
a. asparagine
205
amide of glutamate
a. asparafine
b. glutamine
b. glutamine
206
sakaguchi test
a. arginine
b. histidine
c. lysine
a. arginine
207
guanidino
a. arginine
b. histidine
c. lysine
arginine
208
imidazole
a. arginine
b. histidine
c. lysine
histidine
209
E- amino group
a. arginine
b. histidine
c. lysine
c. Lysine
210
phenyl
a. phenylalalnine
b. tyrosine
c. tryptophan
phenylalalnine
211
millon nasse test
a. phenylalalnine
b. tyrosine
c. tryptophan
tyrosineop
212
phenol
a. phenylalalnine
b. tyrosine
c. tryptophan
tyrosine
213
indole
a. phenylalalnine
b. tyrosine
c. tryptophan
tryptophan
214
old rose complex
a. phenylalalnine
b. tyrosine
c. tryptophan
tyrosine
215
xanthoproteic test
a. aromatic amino acids
b. basic amino acid
c. acidic amino acids
aromatic amino acid
216
dicarboxylic acids
a. aromatic amino acids
b. basic amino acid
c. acidic amino acids
c, acidic amino acid
217
which coagulates in the liver?
a. glycine
b. methionine
c. taurine
d. a and b
e. a and c
e. a and c
218
what are the 4 amino acids that are considered the best when it comes to producing keratin
Cysteine, lysine , arginine and methionine .
These are present in hair and nails
219
linolenic acid
a. essential fatty acid
b. non essential fatty acids
a. essential fatty acidlino
220
linoleic acid
a. essential fatty acid
b. non essential fatty acids
a. essential fatty acid
221
palmitic acid
a. essential fatty acid
b. non essential fatty acids
b. non essential fatty acid
222
oleic acid
a. essential fatty acid
b. non essential fatty acids
b. non essential fatty acid
223
glucose
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
a. monosaccharide
224
galactose
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
a. monosaccharide
225
fructose
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
a. monosaccharide
226
sucrose
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
b. disaccharide
227
maltose
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
b. disaccharide
228
lactose
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
b. disaccharide
229
starch
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
c. polysaccharide
230
glycogen
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
c. polysaccharide
231
cellulose
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
c. polysaccharide
232
wha tis the building block of carbohydrate?
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. polysaccharides
a. monosaccharide
233
glucose + fructose
a. sucrose
b. lactose
c. maltose
d. cellobiose
a. sucrose
234
glucose + galactose
a. sucrose
b. lactose
c. maltose
d. cellobiose
b. lactose
235
glucose + glucose (alpha 1-4)
a. sucrose
b. lactose
c. maltose
d. cellobiose
c. maltose
236
glucose + glucose ( beat 1-4)
a. sucrose
b. lactose
c. maltose
d. cellobiose
d. cellobiose
237
2 monosaccharide unit
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. oligosaccharide
d. polysaccharide
b. disaccharide
238
<20 monosaccharide
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. oligosaccharide
d. polysaccharide
c. oligosaccharided
239
>20 monosaccharide
a. monosaccharide
b. disaccharide
c. oligosaccharide
d. polysaccharide
d. polysaccharide
240
what are the classification of adverse drug reaction
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
241
what is the classification of adverse drug reaction is this one:
-common
-related to pharmacological action
-predictable
- low mortality
-dose related
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
a. augmented
242
what classification of adverse drug reaction is this one:
-uncommon
-not related to pharmacological action
-unpredictable
-high mortality
-non dose related
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
b. bizarre
243
what classification of adverse drug reaction is this one :
-uncommon
-dose related -> related to cumulative dose
- time related
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
c. chronic
244
waht classification of adverse drug reaction is this one:
- uncommon
-time related
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
d. delayed
245
what classification of adverse drug reaction is this one:
-uncommon
-occur soon after withdrawal of drug
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
e. end of use (withdrawal )
246
what classification of adverse drug reaction is this one:
- common
-often caused by drug interaction
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
f. failure
247
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
drugs with narrow TI
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
a. augmented
248
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
toxic effects of drugs :
digoxin toxicity
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
a. augmented
249
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
toxic effects of drug:
seotonin toxicity with SSRI
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
a. augmented
250
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
toxic effects of drugs:
anticholinergic effects of TCA
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
a. augmented
251
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
management: reduced dose or withhold
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
a. augmented
252
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
penicillin hypersensitivity
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
b. bizarre
253
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
idiosyncratic reactions:
acute porphyria
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
b. bizarre
254
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
idiosyncratic reactions:
malignant hyperthermia
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
b. bizarre
255
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
Idiosyncratic reactions:
Pseudo allergy
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
b. bizarre
256
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
management :
withhold and avoid in future
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
b. bizarre
257
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
cortisone for long time cause supression of hypothalamic pituitary afrenal axis
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
c. chronic
258
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
management: reduce dose or withhold
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
c. chronic
259
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
management:
withdrawal may have to be prolonged
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
c. chronic
260
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
teratogenicity
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
d. delayed
261
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
carcinogenesis
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
d. delayed
262
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
Tardive dyskinesia
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
d. delayed
263
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
management:
Intractable
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
d. delayed
264
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
opiate withdrawal syndrome
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
e. end of use
265
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
beta blocker withdrawal
-Myocardial ischemia
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
e. end of use
266
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
management:
reintroduced
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
e. end of use
267
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
management :
withdraw slowly
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
e. end of use
268
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
oral contaceptive failure when taken with enzyme inducer drug
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
f. failure
269
waht classification of drug adverse drug reaction is this one:
management:
increase dosage
a.augmented
b.bizarre
c. chronic
d. delayed
e. end of use ( withdrawal )
f. failure
f. failure
270
what type of risk factor in the heart that has no disease and no symptoms
a. risk factor A
b. risk factor B
c. risk factor C
d. risk factor D
a. risk factor A
271
what type of risk factor in the heart that has a disease and no symptoms
a. risk factor A
b. risk factor B
c. risk factor C
d. risk factor D
b. risk factor B
272
what type of risk factor in the heart that a structural disease and symptoms
a. risk factor A
b. risk factor B
c. risk factor C
d. risk factor D
c. risk factor C
273
what type of risk factor in the heart that
has advanced heart disease with continued Heart failure
a. risk factor A
b. risk factor B
c. risk factor C
d. risk factor D
d. risk factor D
274
what NYHA heart failure severity that has no symptoms and no exercise
a. 1 mild
b. 2mild
c. 3 moderate
d. 4 severe
a. 1 mild
275
what NYHA heart failure severity that
has symptoms with moderate exercise
a. 1 mild
b. 2mild
c. 3 moderate
d. 4 severe
b. 2 mild
276
what NYHA heart failure severity that
has symptoms with minimal exercise
a. 1 mild
b. 2mild
c. 3 moderate
d. 4 severe
c, 3 moderate
277
what NYHA heart failure severity that
has symptoms with no exercise ( at rest )
a. 1 mild
b. 2mild
c. 3 moderate
d. 4 severe
d. 4 severe
278
what is the corticosteroid equivalent dose of cortisone
a. 25 mg
b. 20mg
c. 5mg
d.0.6-0.75 mg
e. 0.75mg
a. 25mg
279
what is the corticosteroid equivalent dose of hydrocortisone
a. 25 mg
b. 20mg
c. 5mg
d.0.6-0.75 mg
e. 0.75mg
b. 20 mg
280
what is the corticosteroid equivalent dose of prednisone
a. 25 mg
b. 20mg
c. 5mg
d.0.6-0.75 mg
e. 0.75mg
c. 5 mg
281
what is the corticosteroid equivalent dose of Prednisolone
a. 25 mg
b. 20mg
c. 5mg
d.0.6-0.75 mg
e. 0.75mg
c. 5mg
282
what is the corticosteroid equivalent dose of Methylprednisolone
a. 25 mg
b. 20mg
c. 4mg
d.0.6-0.75 mg
e. 0.75mg
c. 4mg
283
what is the corticosteroid equivalent dose of Triamcinolone
a. 25 mg
b. 20mg
c. 4mg
d.0.6-0.75 mg
e. 0.75mg
c. 4mg
284
what is the corticosteroid equivalent dose of betamethasone
a. 25 mg
b. 20mg
c. 4mg
d.0.6-0.75 mg
e. 0.75mg
d. 0.6-0.75mg
285
what is the corticosteroid equivalent dose of Dexamethasone
a. 25 mg
b. 20mg
c. 4mg
d.0.6-0.75 mg
e. 0.75mg
e. 0.75mg
286
what drug information resources that is first hand information, meaning that you are reading author's own account on specific topic.
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
287
what drug information resources
where this belong :
indexing and abstracting systems that organize
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
288
what drug information resources
where this belong :
provide easy retrieval of primary resources
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
289
what drug information resources
where this belong :
primary and secondary resources has been collected and distilled
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary
290
what drug information resources
where this belong :
they present summaries
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary
291
what drug information resources
where this belong :
study design
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
292
what drug information resources
where this belong :
journal article of original research
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
293
what drug information resources
where this belong :
conference papers
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
294
what drug information resources
where this belong :
dissertation
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
295
what drug information resources
where this belong :
technical reports
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
296
what drug information resources
where this belong :
patents
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
297
what drug information resources
where this belong :
Medline
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
298
what drug information resources
where this belong :
PubMed
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
299
what drug information resources
where this belong :
EBSCO
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
300
what drug information resources
where this belong :
Ovid
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
301
what drug information resources
where this belong :lowa drug information service
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
302
what drug information resources
where this belong :
IDIS
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
303
what drug information resources
where this belong :
international pharmaceutical abstract
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
304
what drug information resources
where this belong : IPA
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary
305
what drug information resources
where this belong : LexisNexis Review articles
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
306
what drug information resources
where this belong :
google scholar
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
b. secondary source
307
what drug information resources
where this belong :
textbooks/ books
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary
308
what drug information resources
where this belong :
ATLAS
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary source
309
what drug information resources
where this belong :
treatment guidelines
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary source
310
what drug information resources
where this belong :
dictionary
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c.tertiary
311
what drug information resources
where this belong :
encyclopedia
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary
312
what drug information resources
where this belong :
electronic data bases
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c, tertiary source
313
what drug information resources
where this belong :
micromedex
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary
314
what drug information resources
where this belong :
Lexicomp
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary source
315
what drug information resources
where this belong :
facts and comparisons
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary source
316
what drug information resources
where this belong :
review articles in journals
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary source
317
what drug information resources
where this belong :
its advantage is it is accessible to detailed information about a topic
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
318
what drug information resources
where this belong :
advantage : ability to personally assess the valididty and utility of study results .
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
319
what drug information resources
where this belong :
advantage : more recent than secondary or tertiary resources.
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary
320
what drug information resources
where this belong :
disadvantage : misleading conclusion based on the results of only one trial without the context of other researches.
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary
321
what drug information resources
where this belong :
disadvantage: need good skills in medical literature
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
322
what drug information resources
where this belong :
disadvantage: time needed to evaluate large volume of data available
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
a. primary source
323
what drug information resources
where this belong :
disadvantage: lag time between publication and tertiary resources
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary resources
324
what drug information resources
where this belong :
disadvantage: inforamtion may be incomplete
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary resources
325
what drug information resources
where this belong :
disadvantage: errors in transcription and interpretations
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary
326
what drug information resources
where this belong :
disadvantage: human bias
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c. tertiary
327
what drug information resources
where this belong :
disadvantage: lack of experience
a. primary
b. secondary
c. tertiary
c, tertiary source
328
Meyler's side effects of drugs
a. adverse drug reactions
329
side effects of drugs annual 40
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
a. adverse drug reactions
330
Trissel's stability of compunded formulations
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
b. pharmaceutical compounding
331
Remington the science and practice of pharmacy
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
b. pharmaceutical compounding
332
Pediatric drug formulations
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
b. pharmaceutical compounding
333
Handbook of injectable drugs
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
334
King guided to parenteral admixtures
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
335
Pediatric injectable drugs
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
C. IV medications compatibility and stability
336
drug prescribing in renal failure
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
d. renal dose adjustment
337
the renal drug handbook
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
d. renal dose adjustment
338
renal pharmacotherapy
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
d. renal dose adjustment
339
drugs in pregnancy and lactation
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
340
drugs during pregnancy and lactation
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
341
Hale's medication and mothers' milk
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
342
Brigg's drug in pregnancy and lactation
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactations
343
Stockey's drug interactions
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
b. drug interactions
344
basic skills in interpreting laboratory data
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
c. drug laboratory interference
345
laboratory tests and diagnostic procedures
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
c. drug laboratory interference
346
pediatric injectable drugs
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
347
neonatal formulary
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
348
winter's basic clinical pharmacokinetics
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacology
c. pharmacotherapy
d. toxicology
a. pharmacokinetics
349
applied biopharmaceutics and pharmacokinetics
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacology
c. pharmacotherapy
d. toxicology
a. pharmacokinetics
350
basic and clinical pharmacology
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacology
c. pharmacotherapy
d. toxicology
b. pharmacology
351
good and gilman's the pharmacological basis of therapeutics
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacology
c. pharmacotherapy
d. toxicology
b. pharmacology
352
pharmacotherapy a pathophysiologic approach
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacology
c. pharmacotherapy
d. toxicology
c. pharmacotherapy
353
pharmacotherapy principles and practice
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacology
c. pharmacotherapy
d. toxicology
c. pharmacotherapy
354
Goldfrank's toxicologic emergencies
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacology
c. pharmacotherapy
d. toxicology
d. toxicology
355
Casarett and Doull's toxicology
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacology
c. pharmacotherapy
d. toxicology
d. Toxicology
356
Poisoning and drug overdose
a. pharmacokinetics
b. pharmacology
c. pharmacotherapy
d. toxicology
d. toxicology
357
martindale the complete drug reference
a. internation al drugs
b. identification of unknown pills
c. clinical trials
a. international drugs
358
Dailymed
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
a. adverse drug reactions
359
EMC
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
a. adverse drug reactions
360
EMA
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
a. adverse drug reactions
361
Drugs@FDA
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
a. adverse drug reactions
362
Medscape
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
a. adverse drug reactions
363
Drug.com
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
a. adverse drug reactions
364
Rxlist
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
a. adverse drug reactions
365
ASHP's interactive handbook on injectable drugs
a. adverse drug reactions
b. pharmaceutical compounding
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
d. renal dose adjustment
c. IV medications compatibility and stability
366
lexicomp
a. medications safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
a. medications safety in pregnancy and lactation
367
Micromedex
a. medications safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
a. medications safety in pregnancy and lactation
368
Medicines complete
a. medications safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
a. medication safety in pregnancy and lactation
369
Clinical key
a. medications safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
a, medication sagety in pregnancy and lactation
370
Lexi interact
a. medications safety in pregnancy and lactation
b. drug interactions
c. drug laboratory interference
d. pediatric dosage recommendations
b. drug interactions
371
uptodate
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
a. pharmacotherapy
372
Dynamed plus
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
a. pharmacotherapy
373
Micromedex
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
a. pharmacotherapy
374
Access pharmacy
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
a.
a. pharmacotherapy
375
Access medicine
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
a. pharmacotherapy
376
Clinical key
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
a. pharmacotherapy
377
BMJ best practice
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
a. pharmacotherapy
378
NIH
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
b. toxicology
379
LiverTox
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
b. Toxicology
380
Toxnet
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
b. Toxicology
381
NIH-Dietary supplements label database
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
c. herbal,natural products and alterantive medicine
382
Medline plus
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
383
Altmedex
a. pharmacotherapy
b. toxicology
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
d. international drugs
c. herbal, natural products and alternative medicine
384
Identidex
a. identification of unknown pills
b. clinical trials
a, identification of unknown pills
385
Lexi-drug ID
a. identification of unknown pills
b. clinical trials
a. identification of unknown pills
386
Pubmed
a. identification of unknown pills
b. clinical trials
b. clinical trial
387
ClinicalTrials.gov
a. identification of unknown pills
b. clinical trials
b. clinical trials
388
what is the color drug reference of this:
provides list of approved drug products and indicated which drugs can be interchanged (e.g. Zocor can be substituted with simvastatin)
a. orange book
b. pink book
c. purple book
d. red book
a. orange book
389
what is the color drug reference of this:
Provides information on epidemiology and vaccine-preventable disease
a. orange book
b. pink book
c. purple book
d. red book
b. pink book
390
what is the color drug reference of this:
Provides list of biological drug products and indicates which biological products are biosimilar
a. orange book
b. pink book
c. purple book
d. red book
c. purple drug
391
what is the color drug reference of this:
Provides drug pricing information
a. orange book
b. pink book
c. purple book
d. red book
d. redbook
392
provides drug pricing information
a. red book ( pharmacy Micromedex)
b. redbook ( Medicine AAP )
a. red book ( pharmacy Micromedex)
393
summaries of infectious disease
a. red book ( pharmacy Micromedex)
b. redbook ( Medicine AAP )
b. redbook ( Medicine AAP )
394
Summaries of antimicrobial treatments
a. red book ( pharmacy Micromedex)
b. redbook ( Medicine AAP )
b. redbook ( Medicine AAP )
395
summaries of vaccination
a. red book ( pharmacy Micromedex)
b. redbook ( Medicine AAP )
b. redbook ( Medicine AAP )
396
Provides health information for healthcare professionals who advise international treavelers of health risks , vaccines and prophylaxis medications
a. yellow book
b. Green book
a. yellow book
397
provides information about approved animal drug products
a. yellow book
b. Green book
B. GREEN book
398
1- Which of the following statements is TRUE about tertiary resources ?
a) Tertiary resources should not include a bibliography .
b) Textbooks usually include the most recent literature and/or information .
c) Tertiary resources include computer databases and textbooks
d) The credentials and expertise of the authors of a tertiary resource are not important
c) Tertiary resources include computer databases and textbooks
399
2- Which of the following resources would be appropriate for identifying a drug manufactured in a foreign
country?
a) Martindale: The Complete Drug Reference
b) Clinical Pharmacology
c) Trissel's stability of compounded formulations
d) AHFS
a) Martindale: The Complete Drug Reference
400
3- Which of the following resources could be appropriate for identifying the tablets with the imprint code of
APO-K 600?
a) Identidex
b) Lexi-Drugs ID (Lexicomp Online)
c) Brigg's drugs in pregnancy and lactation
d) A and B
d) A and B
401
4- Which of the following resources could be appropriate for determining the adverse effects of ginkgo
biloba?
a) Altmedex
b) Natural medicines database
c) Trissel's stability of compounded formulations
d) A and B
d) A and B
402
5- Which of the following resources would be appropriate in evaluating the drug interaction between
Clopidogrel and escitalopram?
a) Lexi-Interact
b) Trissel's stability of compounded formulations
c) Stockley's drug interactions
d) A and C
d) A and C
403
6- Which of the following resources would be appropriate for determining whether Amlodipine causes
edema?
a) Brigg's drugs in pregnancy and lactation
b) Trissel's stability of compounded formulations
c) Meyler's side effects of drugs
d) Stockley's drug interactions
c) Meyler's side effects of drugs
404
7- What resource should be used when searching for the most current clinical trials on the use of novel
anticoagulants for pulmonary embolism?
a) Pharmacotherapy, the pathophysiologic approach
b) PubMed
c) Uptodate
d) Micromedex
b) PubMed
405
what drugs used in pregnancy for hypertension
a. methyldopa, labetalol , Hydralazine
b. MgSO4
c. Cromolyn(Category B)
d. insulin m Metformin
a. methyldopa, labetalol , Hydralazine
406
what drugs used in pregnancy for HTN + hypoproteinemia + seizures
a. methyldopa, labetalol , Hydralazine
b. MgSO4
c. Cromolyn(Category B)
d. insulin m Metformin
b. MgSO4
407
what drugs used in pregnancy for asthma
a. methyldopa, labetalol , Hydralazine
b. MgSO4
c. Cromolyn(Category B)
d. insulin m Metformin
c. cromolyn (category B)
408
what drugs used in pregnancy for gestational diabetes
a. methyldopa, labetalol , Hydralazine
b. MgSO4
c. Cromolyn(Category B)
d. insulin ,Metformin
d. insulin, Metformin
409
what drugs used in pregnancy for headache
a. paracetamol
b. heparin
c. valproic acid + folic acid
d. lamotrigine or levetiracetam
a. paracetamol
410
what drugs used in pregnancy for DVT ( deep vein thrombosis)
a. paracetamol
b. heparin
c. valproic acid + folic acid
d. lamotrigine or levetiracetam
b. heparin
411
what drugs used in pregnancy for tonic clonic seizure
a. paracetamol
b. heparin
c. valproic acid + folic acid
d. lamotrigine or levetiracetam
c. valproic acid + folic acid
412
what drug used in pregnancy for epilepsy
a. paracetamol
b. heparin
c. valproic acid + folic acid
d. lamotrigine or levetiracetam
d. lamotrigine or levetiracetam
413
what drug used in pregnancy for depression (mild)
a. Fluoxetine
b. Levothyroxine
c. Propylthiouracil (PTU), Methimazole
d. Cyclizine
a. Fluoxetine
414
what drugs is used in pregnancy for hypothyroidism
a. Fluoxetine
b. Levothyroxine
c. Propylthiouracil (PTU), Methimazole
d. Cyclizine
b. levothyroxine
415
what drugs used in pregnancy for hyperthyroidism
a. Fluoxetine
b. Levothyroxine
c. Propylthiouracil (PTU), Methimazole
d. Cyclizine
c. propyltjiouracil PTU), Methimazole
416
what drugs used in pregnancy for nausea and vomiting
a. Fluoxetine
b. Levothyroxine
c. Propylthiouracil (PTU), Methimazole
d. Cyclizine
d. cyclizine
417
what drug used inpregnancy for UTI
a. Nitrofurantoin
b. cefuroxime
c. Azithromycin
d. Benzathine penicilline -Penicilline ( Ampicillin )
a. Nitrofurantoin
418
what drugs use din pregnancy for UTI + G6PD deficiency
a. Nitrofurantoin
b. cefuroxime
c. Azithromycin
d. Benzathine penicilline -Penicilline ( Ampicillin )
b. cefuroxime
419
what drug used in pregnancy for otitis media
a. Nitrofurantoin
b. cefuroxime
c. Azithromycin
d. Benzathine penicilline -Penicilline ( Ampicillin )
c. azithromycin
420
what drugs used in pregnancy is used in chlamydia
a. Nitrofurantoin
b. cefuroxime
c. Azithromycin
d. Benzathine penicilline -Penicilline ( Ampicillin )
c, azithromycin
421
what drugs used in pregnancy for syphilis ?
a. Nitrofurantoin
b. cefuroxime
c. Azithromycin
d. Benzathine penicilline -Penicilline ( Ampicillin )
d. Benzathine penicilline -Penicilline ( Ampicillin )
422
what drugs used in pregnancy for vaginal discharge + candida albicans
a. clotrimazole
b. Acyclovir 400 bid for 7 days
c. Tenofovir
d. Abacavir and Lamivudine
a. clotrimazole
423
what drugs used in pregnancy for herpes ( genital infections
a. clotrimazole
b. Acyclovir 400 bid for 7 days
c. Tenofovir
d. Abacavir and Lamivudine
b. Acyclovir 400 bid for 7 days
424
what drugs used in pregnancy for Hepatitis B
a. clotrimazole
b. Acyclovir 400 bid for 7 days
c. Tenofovir
d. Abacavir and Lamivudine
c. Tenofovir
425
what drugs used in pregnancy for HIV
a. clotrimazole
b. Acyclovir 400 bid for 7 days
c. Tenofovir
d. Abacavir and Lamivudine
d. Abacavir and Lamivudine
426
what drugs used in pregnancy for Malaria
a. Chloroquine, Hydrochloroquine
b. Metronidazole
a. Chloroquine, Hydrochloroquine
427
what drugs is used in pregnancy for Trichomoniasis
a. Chloroquine, Hydrochloroquine
b. Metronidazole
b. Metronidazole
428
drugs that are contraindicated in pregnancy
Misoprostol category X cause abortion
* Vitamin A is contraindicated in high doses
* Castor oil is contraindicated as laxative
* ACEi cause renal dysfunction in fetus
* Naproxen cause uncontrolled bleeding to baby
* Finasteride cause genital malformation to infant
* Warfarin (category X) cause cranial facial abnormalities → nasal bone hypoplasia
429
it is a drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy that is category X causes abortion
a. Misoprostol
b. Vitamin A
c. Castor oil
d. ACEi
a. Misoprostol
430
a drug that is contraindicated in pregnancy that is contraindicated in high doses
a. Misoprostol
b. Vitamin A
c. Castor oil
d. ACEi
b. vitamin A
431
it is contrain dicated in pregnancy as laxative
a. Misoprostol
b. Vitamin A
c. Castor oil
d. ACEi
c. castor oil
432
it is contraindicated in pregnancy because it causes renal dysfunction in fetus
a. Misoprostol
b. Vitamin A
c. Castor oil
d. ACEi
d. ACEi
433
it is contraindicated in pregnancy because it causes uncontrolled bleeding to baby
a. Naproxen
b. Finasteride
c. warfarin
a. naproxen
434
it is contraindicated in preganancy because it causes genital malformation in infant
a. Naproxen
b. Finasteride
c. warfarin
b. Finasteride
435
it is contraindicated in pregnancy (category X) because it causes cranial facial abnormalities -> nasal bone hypoplasia
a. Naproxen
b. Finasteride
c. warfarin
c. warfarin
436
what if the pregnant woman is sensitive to ampicillin, what should you give ?
erythromycin
437
what should be given to pregnant woman
a. inactive influenza vaccine
b. active influenza vaccine
a. inactive influenza vaccine
438
what is pregnancy category is glargine (long acting )
a. category A
b. category B
c. Category X
b. category B
439
what is pregnancy category is paracetramol oral and rectal
a. category A
b. category B
c. Category C
b. category B
440
what is pregnancy category for paracetamol when given via IV
a. category A
b. category B
c. Category C
c. category C
441
what is the dose of thyroid hormones in pregnancy?
1.0-2.0 microgram /kg/day
442
unenforceable norms and values guide behavior
a. ethics
b. law
a. ethics
443
there are no specific laws
a. ethics
b. law
a. ethics
444
values written into enforceable standards of behavior
a. ethics
b. law
b. law
445
are enforced by the justice system
a. ethics
b. law
B.law
446
what are the basic principles of ethics
a. autonomy
b. beneficence
c. non-maleficence
d. justice
447
the right of individuals to self-rule and make decision about:
what will happen to their bodies
a. autonomy
b. beneficence
c. non-maleficence
d. justice
a. autonomy
448
the right of individuals to self rule and make decision about:
what choices will be made among competing options
a. autonomy
b. beneficence
c. non-maleficence
d. justice
a. autonomy
449
the right o individuals to self- rule and make decisions about: what they choose to take or not take into their bodies
a. autonomy
b. beneficence
c. non-maleficence
d. justice
a. autonomy
450
the right of individuals to self-rule and make decisions about choice among health care providers
a. autonomy
b. beneficence
c. non-maleficence
d. justice
a. autonomy
451
the right of individuals to self-rule and make decisions about:
choice of refusing medical treatment
a. autonomy
b. beneficence
c. non-maleficence
d. justice
a. autonomy
452
* Exceptions to the theory of autonomy:
– weak paternalism: if one lacks the ability to make an autonomous decision, then it is
up to health care provider
– the harm principle: making the wrong decision or a decision that will cause harm to
themselves.
Privacy: another rule within the principle of autonomy which means the right of the
individual to control his or her affairs without interference.
453
to do good ( benefit the patient )
a. autonomy
b. beneficence
c. non-maleficence
d. justice
b. beneficence
454
prevention to harm and removal of harmful conditions
a. autonomy
b. beneficence
c. non-maleficence
d. justice
c. non-maleficence
455
treat all patients fairly (fairness and equity to all)
a. autonomy
b. beneficence
c. non-maleficence
d. justice
d. justice
456
what are the principles of professionalism
a. accountability
b. altruism
c. duty
d. honor
e. integrity
457
activities , resposibilities and results
a. accountability
b. altruism
c. duty
d. honor
e. integrity
a. accountability
458
do the best for the best interest of the patient ( no self- interest)
a. accountability
b. altruism
c. duty
d. honor
e. integrity
b. altruism
459
commitment to the service
a. accountability
b. altruism
c. duty
d. honor
e. integrity
c. duty
460
highest standard of behavior and good conduct
a. accountability
b. altruism
c. duty
d. honor
e. integrity
d. honor
461
adherence to ethical principles and refusal to violate personal codes
a. accountability
b. altruism
c. duty
d. honor
e. integrity
e. integrity
462
what are the common characteristics of professionalism
1. knowledge
2. ethics
3. social sanction = public trust
463
Pharmacists should be aware of the basic moral responsibilities that all health care practitioners have toward
their patients. There are three characteristics that a pharmacist should possess:
1- Pharmacists must be competent.
* They must possess the knowledge base that at least minimally allows them to carry out their Functions as
reliable therapeutic experts.
2- Pharmacists must be trustworthy.
* Patients must know that they can seek the confidential advice and assistance of their pharmacist and that their
wishes will be carried out.
3- Pharmacists must care for and about their patients.
* As the 1995 American Pharmaceutical (now Pharmacists) Association (APhA) Code of Ethics directs, -A
pharmacist places concern for the well- being of the patient at the center of professional practice."
* pharmacists who do spend time with their patients and attempt to understand their concerns are much more
likely to be viewed as caring.
464
pharmacist should be honest in their dealings with patients. ( telling the truth)
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
a. veracity
465
violation of this may be ethically justifiable (as with the use of placebos)
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
a. veracity
466
patients have a right to expect that pharmacist will be frank in dealing with them
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
a. veracity
467
it means that the pharmacists demonstrate loyalty to their patients, regardless of the length of the professional relationship
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
b. fidelity
468
trust and keep promises
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
b. fidelity
469
what are the two kinds of fidelity?
a. covenantal fidelity
b. contractual fidelity
470
what kind of fidelity is often described as an intimate and spiritaul commitment between individuals
a. covenantal fidelity
b. contractual fidelity
a. covenantal fidelity
471
it includes fidelity in marriage and fidelity between a member of the clergy and his or her congregation
a. covenantal fidelity
b. contractual fidelity
a. covenantal fidelity
472
is does not involve a level of commitment beyond that owned another as the result of a binding agreement
a. covenantal fidelity
b. contractual fidelity
b. contractual fidelity
473
an example of this form of fidelity would be the relationship one might have with a contractor such as a plumber or electrician
a. covenantal fidelity
b. contractual fidelity
b. contractual fidelity
474
what and how much information about a medication should be given to a patient
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
c. informed consent
475
patients must be fully informed about the benefits and risks of their participation in a clinical trial, taking a medication, or electing to have surgery, and this disclosure must be followed by their autonomous consent
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
c. informed consent
476
what are the two types of informed consent
a. formally informed consent
b. informally informed consent
477
what is and informed consent that is for legal and ethical reasons
a. formally informed consent
b. informally informed consent
a. formally informed consent
478
clinical trials
a. formally informed consent
b. informally informed consent
a. formed informed consent
479
research
a. formally informed consent
b. informally informed consent
a. formally informed consent
480
surgery
a. formally informed consent
b. informally informed consent
a. formally informed consent
481
where a pharmacist counseld a patient and dispenses a medication to a patient, a type of informal occurs. the patient is informed about the benefits and any risks of the drug, and then decides whether to take it or not.
a. formally informed consent
b. informally informed consent
b. informally informed consent
482
refuse or give privileged information
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
d. confidentiality
483
revealing information about a patient's medications to members of the family
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
d. confidentiality
484
medical confidentiality need not be requested by patients ; all medical information, is considered confidential , unless the patient grants approval for its release
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
d. confidentiality
485
members of the health care team have acces to confidential medical recors without the consent of the patient.
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
d. confidentiality
486
a patient who expresses a desire not ot have information reveal to a member of the health care team
a. veracity
b. fidelity
c. informed consent
d. confidentiality
d. confidentiality
exceptions: weak paternalism , herm principle
487
inform the patients about Benefit and risk then decide what to do
a. full disclosure
b. patient centered care
c. patient adherence
d. respect for persons
a. full disclosure
488
pre-vision information about the patient
a. full disclosure
b. patient centered care
c. patient adherence
d. respect for persons
B. PATIENT centered care
489
culture competition- confidentiality - full disclosure
a. full disclosure
b. patient centered care
c. patient adherence
d. respect for persons
b. patient centered care
490
help patient to stick to the drug dose and time ( Help not to force)
a. full disclosure
b. patient centered care
c. patient adherence
d. respect for persons
c. patient adherence
491
duty to the welfare of the individual , particularly described in religion
a. full disclosure
b. patient centered care
c. patient adherence
d. respect for persons
d. respect for persons
492
efforts and commitment of life long learning and ongoing professional development
a. respect for persons
b. excellence
c. humanism
d. distributive justice
b. excellence
493
respect and compassion for others
a. respect for persons
b. excellence
c. humanism
d. distributive justice
C. HUMANISM
494
Equal distribution of the benefits and burdens of among all members of society
a. respect for persons
b. excellence
c. humanism
d. distributive justice
d. distributive justice
495
pharmacist do not always provide care with rqual dedication to all patients
a. respect for persons
b. excellence
c. humanism
d. distributive justice
d. distributive justice
496
patients socioeconomic status often impact the lecel and intensity of care provided by health care professionals
a. respect for persons
b. excellence
c. humanism
d. distributive justice
d. distributive justice
497
medicaid patients are sometimes provided a much lower quality of care that a patient who is a cash- paying customer or who has a full coverage drug benefits plan
a. respect for persons
b. excellence
c. humanism
d. distributive justice
d. distribution justice
498
justice demands that the docus be on patients and their medical needs, not on the financial impact on the health care professional
a. respect for persons
b. excellence
c. humanism
d. distributive justice
d. distributive justice
499
issues that are not specific to a given pharmacist, but rahter are those that must be addressed by all pharmacists andd by society in general
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
a. macro ethical issues
500
issues that may confront individual pharmacists in the course of their daily practice
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
b. micro situations
501
abortion
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
a. macro ethical issues
502
assisted suicide
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
a. macro ethical issues
503
genetic engineering
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
a. macro ethical issues
504
rationing of and access to health care
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
a. macro ethical issues
505
organ transplantation
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
a. macro ethical issues
506
in vitro fertilization
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
a. macro ethical issues
507
the use of placebo
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
b. micro situation
508
patient confidentiality
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
b. micro situation s
509
informed consent
a. macro ethical issues
b. micro situations
b. micro situation
510
medical euthanasia ( mercy killing )
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
b. assisted suicide
511
legally it is not set yet whether to support or to prohibit
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
b, assisted suicide
512
Hippocratic responsibilities of health care practitioners to do no harm
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
b. assisted suicide
513
thos who advocate its availability to patients suggest that allowing apatient to continue to expoerience unrelenting pain is doing harm
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
b. assisted suicide
514
they suggest that patients have the right to make an autonomous decision to end their life; their opponents worry that legal assisted suicide would be abused
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
b. assisted suicide
515
what are the two importnat ethical aspects of human drug experimentation are
1. the role of the institutional review board ORB
2. the use of placebos
516
review protocol for ethical purposes, clinical experiments or before animal studies
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
c. human drug experimentation
517
making sure that the rights and welfare of the patient subject are protected
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
d. human drug experimentation
518
evaluatre and approve iformed consent forms used in conjunction with the tesertch
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
c. huma drug experimentation
519
the placebos are agents deboid of pharmacologic activity and habe serbed as a pount of comparison for determining therapeituc efficacy
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
c. humna drug experimentation
520
paritnts do not receive any benefits ( beneficence )
a. law and ethics
b. assisted suicide
c. human drug experimentation
c. human drug experimentation
521
1) The Drug Enforcement Administration (DEA) regulations require pharmacies to keep controlled
substances records, including prescriptions for at least ..........
a) two years
b) three years
c) four years
d) five years.
a) two years
522
2)............ are issues that are not specific to a given pharmacist, but rather are those that must be
addressed by all pharmacists and by society in general.
a) Macro ethical issues
b) Micro ethical issues
c) Micro situations
d) Macro situation
a) Macro ethical issues
523
3) revealing information about a patient's medications to members of the family is example of:
a) patient confidentiality
b) informed consent
c) informed refusal
d) express consent
a) patient confidentiality
524
4) Pharmacist must possess the knowledge base that's at least minimally allows them to carry out their
Functions as reliable therapeutic experts. This is called:
A) Competency.
b) Caring
c) Trustworthiness.
d) Knowledge.
A) Competency.
525
5) ................................. is the right of individuals to make decisions about what will happen to their
bodies, what choices will be made among competing options, and what they choose to take, or not take,
into their bodies, choice among health care providers, and the choice of refusing medical treatment.
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
a) Autonomy
526
6) .......................... indicates that you act in a manner to do good.
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) justice
b) Beneficence
527
7) ......................... is sometimes used more broadly to include the prevention of harm and the removal of
harmful conditions.
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) justice
c) Nonmaleficence
528
8) ............................. means that the pharmacists demonstrate loyalty to their patients. Pharmacists have
an obligation of fidelity to all their patients, regardless of the length of the professional relationship.
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) Fidelity
d) Fidelity
529
9) ......................... is the ethical principle that instructs pharmacists to be honest in their dealings with
patients?
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) veracity
d) veracity
530
10) ........................refers to the equal distribution of the benefits and burdens of society among all
members of this society.
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) distributive justice
d) distributive justice
531
11) euthanasia means:
a) Autonomy
b) Beneficence
c) Nonmaleficence
d) mercy killing
d) mercy killing
532
12) if one lacks the ability to make an autonomous decision, then it is up to health care provider, this is
called:
a) weak paternalism
b) strong paternalism
c) the harm principle
d) autonomy.
a) weak paternalism
533
13) making the wrong decision or a decision that will cause harm to themselves is called:
a) weak paternalism
b) strong paternalism
c) the harm principle
d) autonomy.
c) the harm principle
534
14)................... are unenforceable norms and values guide behavior
a) ethics.
b) morals.
c) laws.
d) rules.
a) ethics.
535
15) ............................ values are written into enforceable standards of behavior
a) ethics.
b) morals.
c) laws.
d) rules.
c) laws.
536
branch of biomedical science that covers the study of all aspects of immune system
a. immunology
b. hapten
c. antigen
d. antibody
a. immunology
537
smal molecules which could never induce an immune response when administered alone but can induce immune response when coupled a carrier protein
a. immunology
b. hapten
c. antigen
d. antibody
b. hapten
538
foreign material causing an immune response
a. immunology
b. hapten
c. antigen
d. antibody
c. antigens
539
specific substance formed in the body in response to antigenic situation stimulation and react specifically with antigen
a. immunology
b. hapten
c. antigen
d. antibody
d. antibody
540
what are the first line of diffense
1- Anatomical barriers
* Skin
* Cilia in respiratory tract
2- Mucous membrane and their secretions
3- Bacterial flora
541
what are the 2nd line of defense
1- Inflammation
2- Fever
3- Natural killer cells
4- Phagocytic white blood cells
5- Antimicrobial substances
* Coagulation system
* Lactoferrin and transferrin
* Lysozymes
* Interferons
542
skin
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
a. 1st line defense
543
cilia in respiratory tract
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
a. 1st line defense
544
mucous membrane and their secretion
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
a. 1st line defense
545
bacterial flora
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
a. 1st line defense
546
inflammation
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
b. 2nd line defense
547
fever
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
b. 2nd line defense
548
natural killer cell
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
b. 2nd line defense
549
phagocytic white blood cells
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
b. 2nd line defense
550
coagulatio nsysten
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
b. 2nd line defense
551
lactoferrin and transferrin
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
b. 2nd line defense
552
lysozymes
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
b. 2nd line defense
553
interferons
a. 1st line defense
b. 2nd line defense
b. 2nd line defense
page 18
554
rapid response
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
a. innate immunity
555
slow response
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
b. adaptive immunity
556
macrophage
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
a. innate immunity
557
natural killer cell
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
a. innate immunity
558
neutrophil
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
a. innate immunity
559
dendritic cell
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
a. innate immunity
560
esosinophil
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
c. both
a. innate immunity
561
Basophil
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
c. both
a. innate immunity
562
T-cell
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
c. both
c. both
563
natural killer t cell
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
c. both
c. both
564
B cell
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
c. both
d. adaptive immunity
565
CD4 + T cell
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
c. both
d. adaptive immunity
566
CD8+ T cell
a. innate immunity
b. adaptive immunity
c. both
b. adaptive immunity
567
T cell maturation occurs in the ___
a. bone marrow
b. thymus galnd
a. bone marrow
568
T cell is store in __ then circulated to various destinations
a. bone marrow
b. thymus galnd
b. thymus gland
569
immediate hypersensitivity reaction
a. type 1
b. type 2
b. type 3
d. type 4
a. type 1
570
allergic hypersensitivity reaction
a. type 1
b. type 2
b. type 3
d. type 4
a. type 1
571
cytotoxic hypersensitivity reaction
a. type 1
b. type 2
b. type 3
d. type 4
a. type 2
572
immune complex hypersensitivity reaction
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
c. type 3
573
complement activation hypersensitivity reaction
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
c. type 3
574
Delayed hypersensitivity reaction
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
d. type 4
575
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in antigen form is soluble
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
a. type 1 and c. type 3
576
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in the antigen form is cell bound
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
b. type 2
577
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in the antigen form is cell bound and soluble
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
d. type 4
578
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in the humoral component is IgE
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
a. type 1
579
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in the humoral component is IgG -IgM
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
b. type 2 and c. Type 3
580
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in there is no humoral component
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
d. type 4
581
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in the cellular component is mast cells
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
a. type 1
582
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in the cellular component is Macrophages
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
b. type 2
583
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in the cellular component is neutrophil
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
c. type 3
584
what type of hypersensitivity reaction where in the cellular component is T cell- Macrophages
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
d. type 4
585
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
anaphylaxis
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
a. type 1
586
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
allergies
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
a. type 1
587
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
blood transfusion reactions
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
b. type 2
588
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
ErythroBlastosis fetalis
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
b. type 2
589
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
Hemolytic anemia
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
b. type 2
590
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
Serum sickness
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
c. type 3
591
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
lupus
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
c. type 3
592
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
tubular lesion
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
d. type 4
593
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
contact dermatitis
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
d. type 4
594
what type of hypersensitivity is this:
Draft rejection
a. type 1
b. type 2
c. type 3
d. type 4
d. type 4
595
what are the types of immunoglobulin
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
596
what type of imm;unoglobulin that has a structure of monometric
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
a. IgG, d. IgD, e. IgE
597
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
structure: monomer in serum
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
b. IgA
598
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
Structure: Dimer in secretions
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
b. IgA
599
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
Structure:Pentameric
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
C. IgM
600
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
serum concentration:
1st-> 80% highest
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
a. IgG
601
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
serum concentration:
2nd-> 10:15%
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
b. IgA
602
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
serum concentration:
3rd-> 5:10 %
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
c. IgM
603
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
serum concentration:
4th-> 0.2%
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
d. IgD
604
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
serum concentration:
5th-> 0.002% lowest
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
e. IgE
605
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
Half life: 23 days
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
a. IgG
606
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
Half life: 7 days
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
b. IgA
607
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
Half life: 5 days
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
c. IgM
608
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
Half life: 2: 8 days
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
d. IgD
609
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
Half life: 2:3 days
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
e. IgE
610
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
smallest in size
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
a. IgG
611
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
largest in size
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
c. IgM
612
613
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
can pass the placenta
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
a. IgG
614
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
it can fix complement
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
a. IgG and c. IgM
615
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
neutralize toxins
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
a. IgG
616
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
Present in milk ( Colostrum)
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
b. IgA
617
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
is the primary immune response after allergic stimulus
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
c. IgM
618
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
differentiation of lymphocytes
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
d. IgD
619
what type of immunoglobulin is this:
type 1 hypersensiticity ( allergic reactions)
a. IgG
b. IgA
c. IgM
d. IgD
e. IgE
e. IgE
620
what is maslow's hierarchy of needs
at page 20
621
he was psychologist who studied positive human qualities and lives of exemplary people.
a. Abraham Harold Maslow
b. Abraham de Moivre
a. Abraham Harold Maslow
622
In 1954, he created the hierarchy of Human Needs and expressed his theories in his book, Motivation and personality
a. Abraham Harold Maslow
b. Abraham de Moivre
a. Abraham Harold Maslow
623
a person's motivation to reach his or her full potential.
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
a. self actualization
624
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
morality
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
a. self-actualization
625
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
creativity
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
a. self actualization
626
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
spontaneity
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
a. self acrualization
627
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
problem solving
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
a. self actualization
628
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
lack of prejudice
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
a. self- actualization
629
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
acceptance of facts
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
a. self actualization
630
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
self-esteem
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
b. esteem
631
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
confidence
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
b. esteem
632
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
achievement
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
b. esteem
633
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
respect of others
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
b. esteem
634
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
friendship
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
c. love/ belonging
635
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
family
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
c. love/ belonging
636
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
sexual intimacy
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
c. love/belonging
637
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
security of body
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
e. safety
638
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
security of employment
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
e. safety
639
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
security of resources
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
e. safety
640
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
security of morality
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
e. safety
641
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
security of family
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
e. safety
642
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
security of health
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
e. safety
643
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
security of property
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
e. safety
644
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
breathing
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
d. physiological
645
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
food
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
d. physiological
646
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
water
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
d. physiological
647
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
sex
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
d. physiological
648
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
sleep
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
d. physiological
649
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
homeostasis
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
d. physiological
650
what Maslow's hierarchy of need is this :
excretion
a. self actualization
b. esteem
c. love / belonging
d. physiological
e. safety
d. physiological
651
what type or medication is this:
inappropriate drug selection, dose, dosage form or route of administration
a. prescribing
b. omission
c. unauthorized drugs
a. prescribing
652
what type or medication is this:
patient doesn't receive a scheduled dose of medication
a. prescribing
b. omission
c. unauthorized drugs
b. omission
653
what type or medication is this:
2nd most common error in the medication use process.
a. prescribing
b. omission
c. unauthorized drugs
b. omission
654
what type or medication is this:
drug was not authorized by an appropriate prescriber
a. prescribing
b. omission
c. unauthorized drugs
c. unauthorized drugs
655
what type or medication is this:
medication given to wrong patient
a. prescribing
b. omission
c. unauthorized drugs
c. unauthorized drugs
656
what type or medication error is this one :
drug not administered in accordance to the interval
a. wrong time
b. wrong dose
c. wrong dosage form
a. wrong time
657
what type or medication error is this one :
1st common error in the medication use process
a. wrong time
b. wrong dose
c. wrong dosage form
a. wrong time
658
what type or medication error is this one :
the dose administered is different form that prescribed
a. wrong time
b. wrong dose
c. wrong dosage form
b. wrong dose
659
what type or medication error is this one :
dosage form different from that prescribed
a. wrong time
b. wrong dose
c. wrong dosage form
c. wrong administration
660
what type or medication error is this one :
reconstitution error
a. wrong preparation
b. wrong administration
a. wrong preparation
661
what type or medication error is this one :
IV admixture compounding error
a. wrong preparation
b. wrong administration
a. wrong preparation
662
what type or medication error is this one :
drug is given to a patient inappropriately
a. wrong preparation
b. wrong administration
b. wrong administration
663
what type or medication error is this one :
IM drug given IV
a. wrong preparation
b. wrong administration
b. wrong administration
664
what type or medication error is this one :
patient given expired or deteriorated drug
a. deteriorated drug
b. monitoring
c. compliance
d. duplication error
a. deteriorated drug
665
what type or medication error is this one :
patients are not monitored approproately
a. deteriorated drug
b. monitoring
c. compliance
d. duplication error
b. monitoring
666
what type or medication error is this one :
patient use medications in an inappropriately
a. deteriorated drug
b. monitoring
c. compliance
d. duplication error
c. compliance
667
what type or medication error is this one :
patient use metered dose inhaler in wrong way
a. deteriorated drug
b. monitoring
c. compliance
d. duplication error
c. compliance
668
what type or medication error is this one :
2 drugs from the same class are prescribed
a. deteriorated drug
b. monitoring
c. compliance
d. duplication error
d. duplication error
669
what type or medication error that has no error and no harm. possibility of error but no error occurred.
a. medication error A
b. medication error B
c. medication error C
d. medication error D
a. medication error A
670
what classification of medication error that has error and no harm. error did not reach patient
a. medication error A
b. medication error B
c. medication error C
d. medication error D
b. medication error B
671
what classification of medication error that has error and no harm. error reach patient and causes no harm
a. medication error A
b. medication error B
c. medication error C
d. medication error D
c. medication error C
672
what classification of medication error that has error and no harm. error reach patient and causes no harm but need high monitoring
a. medication error A
b. medication error B
c. medication error C
d. medication error D
d. medication error D
673
what classification of medication error that has error and temporary harm. needs treatment and intervention
a. medication error E
b. medication error F
c. medication error G
d. medication error H
e. medication error I
a. medication error E
674
what classification of medication error that has error and temporary harm. and has prolonged hospitalization
a. medication error E
b. medication error F
c. medication error G
d. medication error H
e. medication error I
b. medication error F
675
what classification of medication error that has error and permanent harm
a. medication error E
b. medication error F
c. medication error G
d. medication error H
e. medication error I
c. medication error G
676
what classification of medication error that has error and near death harm. at this error there is an anaphylaxis and cardiac arrest
a. medication error E
b. medication error F
c. medication error G
d. medication error H
e. medication error I
d. medication error H
677
what classification of medication error that has error and can cause death
a. medication error E
b. medication error F
c. medication error G
d. medication error H
e. medication error I
e. medication error I
page 22
678
the process of comparing a patient's medication orders to all the medications that the patient has been taking.
a. medication compliance
b. medication reconciliation
b. medication reconciliation
679
is done to avoid medication errors such as omissions, duplications, dosing errors , or drug interactions
a. medication compliance
b. medication reconciliation
b. medication reconciliation
680
it should be done at every transition of care in which new medication s are ordered or existing orders are rewritten
a. medication compliance
b. medication reconciliation
b. medication reconciliation
681
this has lipopolysaccharide
a. gram +
b. gram -
b. gram -
682
this has outer membrane
a. gram +
b. gram -
b. gram
683
this has thick peptidoglycan layer
a. gram +
b. gram -
a. gram +
684
which is thicker
a. gram +
b. gram -
`
a. gram +`
685
peroplasm: gelatinous material // cytopalsmic membrane and peptidoglycan
a. gram +
b. gram -
a. gram +
686
peroplasm: gelatinous material// cytoplasmic membrane and outer membrane
a. gram +
b. gram -
b. gram -
687
numerous layers of peptidoglycan -> retain crystal violet dye after alcohol use ( no decolorization )-> stain dark violet
a. gram +
b. gram -
a. gram +
688
2 layers of peptidoglycan -> removal crystal violet dye after alcohol use (decolorization ) -> accept counter stain" safranin" -> pink
a. gram +
b. gram -
a. gram +
b. gram -
page 24
689
what is the shape of a cocci
a. spherical
b. rod
c. spherical and rod shape
d. comma like shaped
a. spherical
690
what is the shape of bacilli
a. spherical
b. rod
c. spherical and rod shape
d. comma like shaped
b. rod
691
what is the shape of coccobacilli
a. spherical
b. rod
c. spherical and rod shape
d. comma like shaped
c. spherical and rod shape
692
what is the shape of vibrio
a. spherical
b. rod
c. spherical and rod shape
d. comma like shaped
d. comma like shape ( curved rods)
page 25
693
what is the shape of a spiral ( Corkscrew)
a. wavy undulating
b. tightly coiled
c. filamentous
a. wavy undulating
694
what is the shape of a spirochaetes
a. wavy undulating
b. tightly coiled
c. filamentous
b. tightly coiled
695
what is the shape of a branched filamentous
a. surrounded by sheat similar in appearance to fungal mycelia
b. has many shapes can stretch and contract similar to amoeba
a. surrounded by sheat similar in appearance to fungal mycelia
696
what is the shape of Pleomorphic
a. surrounded by sheat similar in appearance to fungal mycelia
b. has many shapes can stretch and contract similar to amoeba
b. has many shapes can stretch and contract similar to amoeba
697
Staphylococcus aureus
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. coccobacilli
d. vibrio
a. cocci
698
Bacillus anthrax
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. coccobacilli
d. vibrio
b. bacilli
699
Haemophilus influenza
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. coccobacilli
d. vibrio
c. coccobacilli
700
Vibrio cholera
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. coccobacilli
d. vibrio
d. vibrio
701
Helicobacter pylori
a. Helical
b. Club
c. Fusobacterium
a. Helical
702
Corynebacteriaceae
a. Helical
b. Club
c. Fusobacterium
b. club
703
Fusobacterium novum
a. Helical
b. Club
c. Fusobacterium
c. Fusobacterium
page 25
704
Actinobacteria
a. simple filamentous
b. branched filamentous
c. pleomorphic
a. simple filamentous
705
Nocardia
a. simple filamentous
b. branched filamentous
c. pleomorphic
b. branched filamentous
706
Mycoplasma
a. simple filamentous
b. branched filamentous
c. pleomorphic
c. pleomorphic
707
it is arranged in grape like cluster
a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Bacillus anthrax
c. Haemophilus influenzae
a. staphylococcus aureus
page 25
708
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth of o Celsius to 15 Celsius
a. pyschrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
a. pyschrophiles
709
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth of 25 celsius to 40 celsius
a. pyschrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
b. mesophiles
710
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth of 55 celsius to 65 celsius
a. pyschrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
711
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth of 80 celsius to 113 celsius
a. pyschrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
712
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth of acidic pH
a. acidophiles
b. neutrophiles
c. alkaliphiles
a. acidophiles
713
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth of neutral pH
a. acidophiles
b. neutrophiles
c. alkaliphiles
b. neutrophiles
714
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth of basic pH
a. acidophiles
b. neutrophiles
c. alkaliphiles
c. alkaliphiles
715
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth that growth occurs only in presence of oxygen
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
a. obligate aerobes
716
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth that growth occurs in presence and absence of oxygen
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
717
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth that has a greater growth in presence of oxygen
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
718
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth that growth occurs only in absence of oxygen
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
719
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth that growth occurs in absence of osygen but can grow in presence of oxygen
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
720
this microorganism has an environmental requirement for micorbial growth that growth occurs only in presence of low oxygen concentration
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
721
Mycobacterium tuberculosis
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
a. obligate aerobes
722
Most bacteria
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
723
E. coli
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
724
Staph
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
b. Facultative anaerobes
725
Clostridium species
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
726
Streptococcus pyogenes
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
d. Aerotolerant anaerobes
727
H. pylori
a. obligate aerobes
b. facultative anaerobes
c. obligate anaerobes
d. aerotolerant anaerobes
e. microaerophile aerobes
e. Microaerophile aerobes
728
Flavobacterium species
a. psychrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
a. psychrophiles
729
Pseudomonads aeruginosa
a. psychrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
b. mesophiles
730
E. coli
a. psychrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
b. mesophiles
731
Staph
a. psychrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
b. mesophiles
732
Bacillus stearothermophilus
a. psychrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
733
Thermococcus celer
a. psychrophiles
b. mesophiles
c. moderate thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
d. extreme thermophiles
734
Lactobacillus acidophilus
a. acidophiles
b. neutrophiles
c. alkaliphiles
a. acidophiles
735
most bacteria
a. acidophiles
b. neutrophiles
c. alkaliphiles
c. neutrophiles
736
Vibrio cholera
a. acidophiles
b. neutrophiles
c. alkaliphiles
c. alkaliphiles
737
Streptococcus pneumonia
a. acidophiles
b. neutrophiles
c. alkaliphiles
c. alkaliphiles
738
cocci
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
739
staphylococcus
a. catalse +ve
b. catalase -ve
a. catalase + ve
740
Streptococcus
a. catalse +ve
b. catalase -ve
b. catalase -ve
741
Coagulase + ve
a. S. auresu
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saprophyticus
a. S. auresu
742
coagulase -ve
a. S. auresu
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saprophyticus
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saprophyticus
743
novobionic sensitivity
a. S. auresu
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saprophyticus
b. S. epidermidis
c. S. saprophyticus
744
partial hemolysis
a. alpha hemolysis
b. beta hemolysis
c. gamma hemolysis
a. alpha hemolysis
745
complete hemolysis
a. alpha hemolysis
b. beta hemolysis
c. gamma hemolysis
b. beta hemolysis
746
no hemolysis
a. alpha hemolysis
b. beta hemolysis
c. gamma hemolysis
c. gamma hemolysis
747
optochin sensitivity
a. alpha hemolysis
b. beta hemolysis
c. gamma hemolysis
a. alpha hemolysis
748
bacitracin sensitivity
a. alpha hemolysis
b. beta hemolysis
c. gamma hemolysis
b. beta hemolysis
749
growth in 6.5% NaCl
a. alpha hemolysis
b. beta hemolysis
c. gamma hemolysis
c. gamma hemolysis
750
listeria
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
751
bacillus
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
752
Corynebacterium
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
753
Clostridium
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
b. anaerobic
754
nocardia
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
755
Actinomyces
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
b. anaerobic
756
Nocardia
a. weak acid fast
b. not acid fast
a. weak acid fast
757
Actinomyces
a. weak acid fast
b. not acid fast
b. not acid fast
758
S. aureus
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
a. cocci
759
S. epidermidis
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
a. cocci
760
S. saprophyticus
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
a. cocci
761
S. pneumonia
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
a. cocci
762
S. viridians
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
a. cocci
763
S. pyogenes
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
a. cocci
764
S. agalactia
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
a. cocci
765
Enterococci
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
a. cocci
766
Non- enterococci
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
a. cocci
767
listeria
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
b. bacilli
768
Bacillus
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
b. bacilli
769
Corynebacterium
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
b. Bacilli
770
Clostridium
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
b. bacilli
771
Nocardia
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
c. branched filaments
772
Actinomyces
a. cocci
b. bacilli
c. branched filaments
c. branches filaments
773
Diplococci
a. earobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
774
maltose utilization
a. diplocoddi
b. bacilli
c. comma shaped
a. diplocoddi
775
lactose fermentation
a. diplocoddi
b. bacilli
c. comma shaped
b. bacilli
776
oxidase positive
a. diplocoddi
b. bacilli
c. comma shaped
c. comma shaped
777
what Diplococci is maltose utilization positive ?
a. Neisseria meningitides
b. Neisseria gonorrhea
c. Moraxella
a. Neisseria meningitides
778
what Diplococci is maltose utilization negative ?
a. Neisseria meningitides
b. Neisseria gonorrhea
c. Moraxella
b. Neisseria gonorrhea
c. Moraxella
779
Citrobacter
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
a. lactose fermentation positive
780
Serratia
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
a. lactose fermentation positive
781
E. coli
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
a. lactose fermentation positive
782
Klebsiella
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
a. lactose fermentation positive
783
Enterobacter
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
a. lactose fermentation positive
784
Pseudomonads
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
b. lactose fermentation negative
785
Salmonella
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
b. lactose fermentation negative
786
Proteus
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
b. lactose fermentation negative
787
Shigella
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
b. lactose fermentation negative
788
Yersinia
a. lactose fermentation positive
b. lactose fermentation negative
b. lactose fermentation negative
789
Citrobactger
a. slow lactose fermentation
b. fast lactose fermentation
a. slow lactose fermentation
790
Serratia
a. slow lactose fermentation
b. fast lactose fermentation
a. slow lactose fermentation
791
E.coli
a. slow lactose fermentation
b. fast lactose fermentation
b. fast lactose fermentation
792
Klebsiella
a. slow lactose fermentation
b. fast lactose fermentation
b. fast lactose fermentation
793
Enterobacter
a. slow lactose fermentation
b. fast lactose fermentation
b. fast lactose fermentation
794
Pseudomonads
a. oxidase positive
b. oxidase negative
a. oxidase positive
795
Salmonella
a. oxidase positive
b. oxidase negative
b. oxidase negative
796
Proteus
a. oxidase positive
b. oxidase negative
b. oxidase negative
797
Shigella
a. oxidase positive
b. oxidase negative
b. oxidase negative
798
Yersinia
a. oxidase positive
b. oxidase negative
b. oxidase negative
799
Salmonella
a. H2S producing positive
b. H2S producing negative
a. H2S producing positive
800
Proteus
a. H2S producing positive
b. H2S producing negative
a. H2S producing positive
801
Shigella
a. H2S producing positive
b. H2S producing negative
b. H2S producing negative
802
Yersinia
a. H2S producing positive
b. H2S producing negative
b. H2S producing negative
803
Grows in 42 celsius
a. C. jejuni
b. V. cholera
c. H. pylori
a. C. jejuni
804
grows in alkaline media
a. C. jejuni
b. V. cholera
c. H. pylori
b. V. cholera
805
urease producing
a. C. jejuni
b. V. cholera
c. H. pylori
c. H. pylori
806
Neisseria meningitides
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
a. diplococci
807
Neisseria gonorrhea
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
a. diplococci
808
Moraxella
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
a. diplococci
809
H. influenza
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
b. coccobacilli
810
B. pertussis
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
b. coccobacilli
811
Pasteurella
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
b. coccobacilli
812
Brucella
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
b. coccobacilli
813
F. tularensis
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
b. coccobacilli
814
Citrobacter
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
815
Serratia
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
page 28
816
E. coli
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
817
Klebsiella
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
818
Enterobacter
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
819
Pseudomonads
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
820
Salmonella
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
821
Proteus
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
822
Shigella
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
823
Yersinia
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
c. bacilli
824
C. jejuni
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
d. comma shape
825
V. cholera
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
d. comma shape
826
H. pylori
a. diplococci
b. coccobacilli
c. bacilli
d. comma shape
d. comma shape
827
what are the encapsulated bacteria ?
mnemonic: SHiNE K
S
* Streptococcus Pneumonia
* Streptococcus group B
* Salmonella typhi
Hi
* Haemophilus influenza
N
* Neisseria meningitides
E
* E. Coli
K
* Klebsiella
828
S. aureus
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
829
S. epidermidis
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
830
S. saprophyticus
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
831
S. pneumonia
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
832
S. viridians
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
833
S. pyogenes
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
834
S. agalactia
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
835
Enterococci
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
836
S. bovis
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
837
Listeria
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
838
Bacillus
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
839
Corynebacterium
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
840
Nocardia
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
841
Neisseria gonorrhea
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
842
Moraxella
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
a. aerobic
843
Clostridium
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
b. anaerobic
844
Actinomyces
a. aerobic
b. anaerobic
anaerobic
page 29
845
watch the
disk diffusion method- Kirby- Bauer method
page 30
846
which of these causes plague
a. Yersinia pestis
b. streptococcus mutans
c. Bordetella pertussis
d. H. pylori
a. Yersinia pestis
847
which of these causes dental plaque / carries ?
a. Yersinia pestis
b. streptococcus mutans
c. Bordetella pertussis
d. H. pylori
b. Streptococcus mutans
848
which of these causes whooping cough
a. Yersinia pestis
b. streptococcus mutans
c. Bordetella pertussis
d. H. pylori
c. Bordetella pertusis
849
which of these causes peptic ulcer?
a. Yersinia pestis
b. streptococcus mutans
c. Bordetella pertussis
d. H. pylori
d. H. pylori
850
is a carbohydrate enrihed coating that covers the outside of many eukaryotic cells and prokaryotic cells, particularly bacteria
a. Glycocalyx
b. Capsid
a. Glycocalyx
851
the ___ of most bacateria is contaminated in a single circular molecule
a. RNA
b. DNA
b. DNA
852
viral structure contains:
1- Nucleic acid genome
2- Protein capsid that covers the genome
3- Lipid envelope
853
nucleic genome + capsid =
Nucleocapsid
854
the entire contact virus is called the
virion
855
fungi
a. eukaryotic
b. prokaryotic
a. eukaruyotic
856
fungi
a. unicellular
b. multicellular
b. multicellular
857
what are the types of healthcare cost categories
a. direct
b. indirect
c. tangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
858
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
additional cost that a service or treatment alternative impose over another compared with the additional effect , benefit, or outcome it provides
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
a. direct
b. indirect
c. tangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
b. indirect
c. tangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
e. incremental
859
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
economic benefit forgone when using one therapy instead of the next best alternative therapy
a. direct
b. indirect
c. tangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
d. opportunity
860
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
lost opportunity - revenue forgone
a. direct
b. indirect
c. tangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
d. opportunity
861
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
grief
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
c. intangible
862
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
inconvenience
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
c. intangible
863
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
fatigue
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
c. intangible
864
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
pain and suffering
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
c. intangible
865
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
anxiety
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
c. intangible
866
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
income forgone because of premature death (mortality)
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
b. indirect
867
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
lost wages (morbidity )
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
b. indirect
868
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
cost of decrease productivity (e.g. morbidity and mortality costs)
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
b. indirect
869
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
hospitalization
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
870
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
Ambulance services -nursing services
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
871
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
home medical cisit/ clinic visits
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
872
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
Emergency department visits
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
873
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
diagnostic test
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
874
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
patient and family expenses
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
875
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
travel cost
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
876
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
hospital stays for patient or family
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
877
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
Child care service for children of patients
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
878
what type of Healthcare cost category is this :
food (meals on )
a. direct
b. indirect
c. intangible
d. opportunity
e. incremental
a. direct
879
what are the types of direct healthcare cost categories
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
880
what type of direct healthcare cost category is this :
hospitalization
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
a. direct medical
881
what type of direct healthcare cost category is this :
ambulance services-nursing services
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
a. direct medical
882
what type of direct healthcare cost category is this :
home medical visit/ clinic visits
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
a. direct medical
883
what type of direct healthcare cost category is this :
emergency department visits
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
a. direct medical
884
what type of direct healthcare cost category is this :
diagnostic test
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
a. direct medical
885
what type of direct healthcare cost category is this :
patient and family expenses
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
b. direct non medical
886
what type of direct healthcare cost category is this :
travel cost
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
b. direct non medical
887
what type of direct healthcare cost category is this :
hotel stays for patient or family
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
b. direct non medical
888
what type of direct healthcare cost category is this :
child care service for children of patients
a. direct medical
b. direct non medical
b. direct non medical
889
what type of direct medical is this :
for setting up the service
a. fixed - capital
b. fixed- labor
c. fixed -overhead
d. semi fixed
e. variable
a. fixed - capital
890
what type of direct medical is this :
couinselling rooms equipment
a. fixed - capital
b. fixed- labor
c. fixed -overhead
d. semi fixed
e. variable
a. fixed -capital
891
what type of direct medical is this :
salary of pharmacist
a. fixed - capital
b. fixed- labor
c. fixed -overhead
d. semi fixed
e. variable
b. fixed -labor
892
what type of direct medical is this :
for running the service
a. fixed - capital
b. fixed- labor
c. fixed -overhead
d. semi fixed
e. variable
c. fixed - overhead
893
what type of direct medical is this :
lighting , heating , cleaning , rent
a. fixed - capital
b. fixed- labor
c. fixed -overhead
d. semi fixed
e. variable
c. fixed - overhead
894
what type of direct medical is this :
staff
a. fixed - capital
b. fixed- labor
c. fixed -overhead
d. semi fixed
e. variable
d. semi fixed
895
what type of direct medical is this :
drugs, blood products, disposable equipment
a. fixed - capital
b. fixed- labor
c. fixed -overhead
d. semi fixed
e. variable
e. variable
896
what are the models of Pharmacoeconomic analysis
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
897
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
comparing drug A to drug B
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
898
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
Drug A saves you 5 dollars
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
a. cost minimixation analysis (CMA)
899
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
Hibiotic and augmentin
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
a. cost minimization analysis (MA)
900
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
the benefit to cost ratio of hiring a pharmacist =1.25
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
b. cost benefit analysis
901
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
the benefit to cost ratio of automated system =1.15
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
902
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
the benefit of cost ratio of pharmacist is better than the automated system
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
903
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
drug A (5 dollars) and
drug B (10 dollars)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
904
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
both have the same action
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
905
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
Drug B cause no gastric irritation as drug A
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. sot effectiveness analysis
906
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
Aspirin and aspirin enteric coated
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
907
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
measure the effect of an intervention on health units that measure both quantity and quality of life
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
908
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
cancer patient without treatment lives for short time in great pain but with treatment lives for longer time in less pain
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
909
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
type of outsome: Equivalent
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
a.cost minimization analysis
910
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
type of outcome: economic
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
911
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
type of outcome: clinical
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
912
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
type of outcome: humanistic
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
913
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
outcome measurement unit: assumed to equivalent in comparable groups analysis
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
914
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
outcome measurement unit: monetary outcome dollars
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
915
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
outcome measurement unit: natural unit
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis
916
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
mmHg blood pressure
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
917
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
outcome measurement unit: mmHg blood pressure
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
918
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
outcome measurement unit: mmol/L blood glucose
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis
919
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
outcome measurement unit: case cure yes or no
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis
920
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
outcome measurement unit: Quality Adjusted Life year = utility x expected length of time
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
921
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
the two drugs must be equivalent therapeutically then we determine the least costly alternative
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
a. cost minimization analysis(CMA)
922
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
measured by: human capital (HC)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
923
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
measured by : willingness to pay ( WTP)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
924
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
both must have the dame unit to be compared
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
925
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
calculated by : Average cost effectiveness ratio (ACER)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
926
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
calculated by: Incremental Cost Effectiveness Ratio (ICER)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
927
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
calculated by : Symptoms Free Days (SFD)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis (CEA)
928
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
calculated by : % healed
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
c. cost effectiveness analysis
929
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
outcomes assess patient's functional status or quality of life
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
930
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
calculated by: Rating Scales (RS)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
d. cost utility analysis
931
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
calculated by Standard Gambles (SG)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
d. cost utility analysis
932
what model of pharmacoeconomic analysis is this :
calculated by Time Trade Off (TTO)
a. cost minimization analysis (CMA)
b. cost benefit analysis (CBA)
c. cost effective analysis (CEA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
d. cost utility analysis (CUA)
933
Description and analysis of the cost of drug therapy to healthcare system and society
a. pharmacoeconomic
b. pharmacokinetic
a. pharmacoeconomic
934
what is the formula of Average COst Effectiveness Ratio (ACER)
healthcare cost in dollar / clinical cost not in dollar
look at page 34
935
what is the formula of Incremental cost effectiveness Ration ICER)
Cost A in dollars - Cost B in dollars / effective A % - effective B %
look at page 34
936
what are the economic outcome assessment
a. cost
b. consequence
c. perspective
937
what economic outcome assessment is this :
the value of the resourced consume by program or drug therapy of interest
a. cost
b. consequence
c. perspective
c. cost
938
what economic outcome assessment is this :
types of healthcare cost categories: direct , indirect , intangible , incremental , opportunity
a. cost
b. consequence
c. perspective
a. cost
939
what economic outcome assessment is this :
the effects, outputs, and outcomes of the program or treatment alternative
a. cost
b. consequence
c. perspective
b. consequence
940
what economic outcome assessment is this :
the point of view from which a pharmacoeconomically study is constructed.
a. cost
b. consequence
c. perspective
c. perspective
941
what economic outcome assessment is this :
it is important to understand the study perspective because it determines with outcomes and costs will be measured.
a. cost
b. consequence
c. perspective
c. perspective
942
what economic outcome assessment is this :
if comparing the value of Alteplase ( tissue plasminogen activator, or t-PA) with that of Streptokinase.
a. cost
b. consequence
c. perspective
c. perspective
943
what are the types of cost in economic outcome assessment
a. total
b. average
c. marginal
d. incremental
e. operating
944
what economic outcome assessment is this :
all expenses directly and indirectly
a. total
b. average
c. marginal
d. incremental
e. operating
a. total
945
what economic outcome assessment is this :
the average cost per unit of output
a. total
b. average
c. marginal
d. incremental
e. operating
b. average
946
what economic outcome assessment is this :
extra cost of producing one extra unit of output
a. total
b. average
c. marginal
d. incremental
e. operating
c. marginal
947
what economic outcome assessment is this :
additional cost
a. total
b. average
c. marginal
d. incremental
e. operating
d. incremental
948
what economic outcome assessment is this :
support the operation to provide the output
a. total
b. average
c. marginal
d. incremental
e. operating
e. operating
949
what are the types of consequence outcomes (ECHO model )
a. economic
b. clinical
c. positive
d. negative
e. intermediate
950
what type of consequence outcome is this:
the direct, indirect and intangible costs compared with the consequences of medical treatment alternatives
a. economic
b. clinical
c. positive
d. negative
e. intermediate
a. economic
951
what type of consequence outcome is this:
the medical events that occur as a result of disease or treatment (e.g. , safety and efficacy end point )
a. economic
b. clinical
c. positive
d. negative
e. intermediate
b. clinical
952
what type of consequence outcome is this:
the consequences of disease ot treatment on patient functional status or quality of life along several dimension(e.g., physical function, social function, general health and well being, and life satisfaction)
a. economic
b. clinical
c. positive
d. negative
e. intermediate
f. humanistic
f. humanistic
953
what type of consequence outcome is this:
is the desired effect of a drug (efficacy or effectiveness measure ), possibly manifested as cases curved cured, life-years gained, or improved health-related quality of life (HRQOL)
a. economic
b. clinical
c. positive
d. negative
e. intermediate
f. humanistic
c. positive
954
what type of consequence outcome is this:
is an undesired or adverse effect of drug, possibly manifested as sa treatment failure, an adverse drug reaction (ADR), a drug toxicity, or even death
a. economic
b. clinical
c. positive
d. negative
e. intermediate
d. negative
955
what type of consequence outcome is this:
can serve as a proxy for more relevant final outcomes
a. economic
b. clinical
c. positive
d. negative
e. intermediate
e. intermediate
956
what type of consequence outcome is this:
achieving a decrease in low density lipoprotein cholesterol levels with a lipid- lowering afents is an intermediate consequence that can serve as a proxy for a more final outcome such as a decrease in MI rate
a. economic
b. clinical
c. positive
d. negative
e. intermediate
e. intermediate
957
waht are the common perspectives in cluded
1. patient
2. provider
3. prayer
4. society
958
what perspective of economic outcome assesment is this:
t-PA may be the best value alternatice because a 1% reduction in mortality rate is observed in this large population
a. from a patient of social perspective
b. from a small community hospital's perspective
a. from a patient or societal perspective
959
what perspective of economic outcome assesment is this:
streptokinase may represent a better value because it provides similar outcomes for less money
a. from a patient of social perspective
b. from a small community hospital's perspective
b. from small community hopital perspective
960
2 alleles are identical
a. homozygous
b. heterozygous
a. homozygous
961
2 alleles are different
a. homozygous
b. heterozygous
b. heterozygous
page 37
962
an approach to disease treatment and prevention that takes in consideration genes, environment , life style
a. precision medicine
b. pharmacogenomics
c. pharmacogenetics
a. precision medicine
963
component of precision medicine
a. precision medicine
b. pharmacogenomics
c. pharmacogenetics
b. pharmacogenomics
964
PGX
a. precision medicine
b. pharmacogenomics
c. pharmacogenetics
b. pharmacogenomics
965
study relation // variation in multiple genes and variability of drug response
a. precision medicine
b. pharmacogenomics
c. pharmacogenetics
b. pharmacogenomics
966
study relation // variation in single gene.... and variability of drug response
a. precision medicine
b. pharmacogenomics
c. pharmacogenetics
c. pharmacogenetics
967
basic structural unit of DNA and RNA
a. nucleotide
b. Gene
c. DNA
a. nucleotide
968
stretch of nucleotides that codes for single protein
a. nucleotide
b. Gene
c. DNA
b. gene
969
genetic material that is the main component of chromosome
a. nucleotide
b. Gene
c. DNA
c. DNA
970
Double helix
a. nucleotide
b. Gene
c. DNA
c. DNA
971
set of unique genes that determine specific trait in a person ( creativity )
a. Genotype
b. Phenotype
a. genotype
972
observable traie of genotype ( gene responsible for blue eye color )
a. Genotype
b. Phenotype
b. phenotype
973
genetic variation is common 1% or more
a. polymorphism
b. mutation
c. single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)
a. polymorphism
974
genetic variation is inherited
a. polymorphism
b. mutation
c. single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)
a. polymorphism
975
genetic variation is rare less than 1 %
a. polymorphism
b. mutation
c. single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)
b. mutation
976
change in a single nucleotide in a genetic sequence
a. polymorphism
b. mutation
c. single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)
c. single nucleotide polymorphism (SNP)
977
What HLA complex determines the hypersensitivity reaction of Abacavir
a. HLA-B (5701)
b. HLA-B (5801)
c. HLA-B(1502)
a. HLA-B (5701)
978
what HLA-B complex determines the hypersensitivity reaction of Allopurinol
a. HLA-B (5701)
b. HLA-B (5801)
c. HLA-B(1502)
b. HLA-B (5801)
979
what HLA-B complex when combined with Carbamazepine or Oxcarbazepine will cause severe dermatologic reactions in steven johnson syndrome
a. HLA-B (5701)
b. HLA-B (5801)
c. HLA-B(1502)
a. HLA-B (5701)
b. HLA-B (5801)
c. HLA-B(1502)
980
what HLA-B complex is determination for the hypersensitivity reaction of phenytoin or fosphenytoin
a. HLA-B (5701)
b. HLA-B (5801)
c. HLA-B(1502)
c. HLA-B(1502)
981
what CYP is needed for the activation of the prodrug of Clopidogrel
a. CYP2C19*1
b. CYP2C19*2
c. CYP2C19*3
a. CYP2C19*1
982
what this/ these CYP is present, clopidogrel will not be converted into active form. It will increase the CVS (chorionic villus sampling) event
a. CYP2C19*1
b. CYP2C19*2
c. CYP2C19*3
b. CYP2C19*2
c. CYP2C19*3
983
GO BACK TO PAGE 38
984
GO BACK TO PAGE 39 ABOVE
985
1- Which of the following is correct?
a. Phenotype is the observable trait that results from gene expression
b. Humans have one copy of each chromosome
c. If the alleles are identical, it is called heterozygous genotype
d. If the alleles are different, it is called homozygous genotype
a. Phenotype is the observable trait that results from gene expression
986
2- Pharmacogenomic testing shows a female patient with breast cancer is HER2 positive. She is
likely to benefit from which of the following?
a. Ivacaftor
b. Leuprorelin
c. Trastuzumab
d. Rituximab
c. Trastuzumab
987
3- A child is rapid metabolizer of CYP2D6. How would his body respond?
a. Codeine would be rapidly metabolized to morphine
b. The child will have reduced opioid response
c. Codeine will not be converted into morphine
d. The child will have severe diarrhea
a. Codeine would be rapidly metabolized to morphine
988
4- A Chinese patient is going to be started on carbamazepine. He should be tested for:
a. HLA-B*1501 allele
b. HLA-B*1502 allele
c. He does not need pharmacogenomic testing as he is from Asian descent
d. A gene because if he is found to have at-risk allele, he is more likely to experience agranulocytosis with the
use of carbamazepine.
b. HLA-B*1502 allele
989
5- A patient is found to have been lacking in functional CYP2C19 enzyme activity. What would be
your recommendation?
a. He should not receive Clopidogrel
b. He should not receive any CYPC19 enzyme inhibitors such as omeprazole or fluoxetine
c. If clopidogrel is administered, he will have increases INR
d. He is an ideal candidate to receive Clopidogrel
a. He should not receive Clopidogrel
990
6- Which of the following best describes chromosome?
a. Building blocks of DNA, composed of four bases: adenine (A), Guanine (G), Thiamine (T) and Cytosine (C)
b. Organized into 23 pairs (46 chromosomes) as a supercoil structure
c. A stretch of DNA that codes for a single protein
d. Double helix molecule containing noncovalently bonded nucleotides
b. Organized into 23 pairs (46 chromosomes) as a supercoil structure
991
go back to page 40
992
Go BACK TO PAGE 42
993
what is the color label for narcotic drugs
a. red label
b. yellow label
a. red label
994
what is the color label for the controlled drug
a. red label
b. yellow label
b. yellow label
995
who are the only allowed to prescribed HAM (High alert Medication)
consultant and specialist
996
true or false ?
telephone orders are allowed in HAM ( high alert medication )
false
997
true or false ?
Verbal orders are allowed in case of emergency only
true
998
parental nutrition bags must be removes from the refrigerator ____ hours before usage
0.5 hours
999
what dextrose id used for dialysis patient for treating sudden hypoglycemia
a. D50W
b. NaCl
. D50W( dextrose 50%
1000
what are the high aler medicdations (HAM ) for aderenergic agonist
Epinephrine, norepinephrine, phenylephrine
1001
what adrenergic antagonist are high alerr medications (HAM)
propranolol, metoprolol, labetalol
1002
what anesthetic agents that are high alert medications
propofol, ketaimine
1003
what aniarrhytimic drugs that are high alert medications
lidocaine, amiodarone
1004
what anticoagulation drugs that are high alert medications
Heparin, LMW heparin (Enoxaparin, Dalteparin
Warfarin
Factor 10 inhibitors (Fondaparinux, Apixaban
Factor 2 inhibitors (Argatroban, Dabigatran
1005
waht antiplatetlet drugs that are high alert medications
ADP receptor blocker → Ticlopidine, clopidogrel
2b/3a receptor blocker → Abciximab, eptifibatide
1006
what firbinolytic drugs that are high alert medications
Streptokinase, urokinase, alteplase, reteplase
1007
waht electrolytes are high alert medications
Sterile water for injection
Dextrose ≥ 20%
NaCl > 0.9%
KCl injectable
1008
what inotropic drugs that are high alert medications
digoxin
1009
waht sulfonyl urea is high alert medications
Chlorpropamide, Glimepiride
1010
waht liposomal forms of drugs that are high alert medications
amphoteracin B
1011
what narcotics and controlled drugs that are alert medications
Morphine, Fentanyl, pethidine
Lorazepam, Diazepam
1012
what neuromuscular blocking agent that are high alert medications
Succinylcholine, vecuronium
1013
noted in high alert medication :
Specific label or color
✓ Narcotic drugs → Red Label
✓ Controlled drug → Yellow Label
* Consultant and specialist are only allowed to prescribe HAM
* Telephone orders not allowed in HAM → Verbal orders are allowed in case of emergency only.
* Must be double checked before administration.
* Limit access to HAM
* All IV HAM are administrated via IV pump.
* All IV infusions are standardized in mMole or mequ.
* Using "U" instead of units is not accepted for insulin and Heparin
* Concentrated electrolytes should not be stocked in patient care area.
* Parenteral nutrition bags → Remove from refrigerator 0.5 hour before usage.
* IV anesthesia & Skeletal muscle relaxant → Stocked in ER, OR, ICU
* Dextrose 50% (D50W) → Stocked for dialysis patients for treating sudden hypoglycemia.
1014
addicted drugs reduce pain and induce euphoria, lead to increase tolerance and psychological dependence
a. narcotic drugs
b. controlled drugs
c. psychotic drugs
a. narcotic drugs
1015
drug wiht potential to be abused or addicted which is held under strict control
a. narcotic drugs
b. controlled drugs
c. psychotic drugs
b. controlled drugs
1016
affecting mind, wmotions , and behavior
a. narcotic drugs
b. controlled drugs
c. psychotic drugs
c. psychotic drugs
1017
Patient own narcotic and controlled medication shall be kept in the inpatient pharmacy in ___________drugs cabinet separately from the regular stock medication → not kept in patient cassette or trolly.
a. narcotic drugs
b. controlled drugs
c. psychotic drugs
Patient own narcotic and controlled medication shall be kept in the inpatient pharmacy in narcotics and
controlled drugs cabinet separately from the regular stock medication → not kept in patient cassette or trolly.
1018
Narcotics and controlled drugs are stored behind
steel door with double lock.
1019
no one allowed to enter inside narcotic and controlled drugs except:
1- Pharmacy staff
2- Anesthesia department
3- Assigned nursing staff.
1020
true or false
Physician cannot prescribe narcotic or controlled drug to himself or family.
true
1021
Narcotic, controlled and psychotropic drugs
Replace used ampoules from pharmacy within _ days from date of Rx
3 days
1022
Narcotic, controlled and psychotropic drugs
Strength and quantity of narcotics and controlled drug must be written clearly in words and figures.
* No strike-over, erasers or misspelling of drug name, strength or quantity.
* ID number should be written with physician name.
* Physician cannot prescribe narcotic or controlled drug to himself or family.
* Empty ampoule returns to the pharmacy with documents.
* Use the closest size ampoule for required dose.
* Unused drugs (tablets) must be returned to the pharmacy in charge.
* Replace used ampoules from pharmacy within 3 days from date of Rx
1023
injection not dispensed for outpatient or ambulatory patients to be used outside
a. narcotics and controlled
b. psychotropics
a. narcotics and controlled
1024
tablets or patches are allowed to be given to outpatient
a. narcotics and controlled
b. psychotropics
a. narcotics and controlled
1025
IV or tablets are allowed to be given in OPD
a. narcotics and controlled
b. psychotropics
b. psychotropics
1026
dispense as long as indicated
a. psychiatric
b. neurologist, neurosurgeon
c. non psychiatric
d. ER department
a. psychiatric
1027
Dispense maximum of 3 months
a. psychiatric
b. neurologist, neurosurgeon
c. non psychiatric
d. ER department
b. neurologist, neurosurgeon
1028
dispense maximum of 1 month . (consultant and specialist )
a. psychiatric
b. neurologist, neurosurgeon
c. non psychiatric
d. ER department
c. non psychiatrist
1029
Dispense maximum of 1 day
a. psychiatric
b. neurologist, neurosurgeon
c. non psychiatric
d. ER department
d. ER department
If drug is not available → original stamped Rx by the pharmacy department & copy given to the patient to be
dispensed from other hospital or street pharmacy & Copy kept in patient File.
1030
narcotic
a. Rx form emergency room ER
b. Rx from outpatient department (OPD) / clinic
a. Rx form emergency room ER
1031
psychotropic drugs
a. Rx form emergency room ER
b. Rx from outpatient department (OPD) / clinic
a. Rx form emergency room ER
1032
controlled drugs
a. Rx form emergency room ER
b. Rx from outpatient department (OPD) / clinic
a. Rx form emergency room ER
1033
Narcotic drugs is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
a. 1 day
1034
psychotropic drugs is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
b. 3 days
1035
controlled drug is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 week
b. 3 days
1036
Rx from outpatient department (OPD)/ clinic is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 week
c. 7 days
1037
Lorazepam is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 week
d. 1 week
1038
Phenobarbital is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 week
d. 1 week
1039
Clonazepam is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 week
d. 1 week
1040
Tramadol is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 week
d. 1 week
1041
Diazepam is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 week
d. 1 week
1042
Oxycodone is valid for filling in the pharmacy for how many days?
a. 1 day
b. 3 days
c. 7 days
d. 1 week
d. 1 week
page 43
1043
Psychotropic and controlled drugs must be documented for how many years
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 10 years
a. 2 years
1044
Narcotics must be documented for how many years
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 10 years
b. 3 years
1045
narcotic log book must be documented for how many years
a. 2 years
b. 3 years
c. 10 years
c. 10 years
1046
what Rx must be in 3 copies
1. patient life
2. patient himself
3. original in the pharmacy with empty ampoules
every case must be documented in a separate request form
1047
unused anrcotics and controlled drugs must be destroyed / discarded within
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
b. 6 months
1048
empty morphine vials discarded after
a. 3 months
b. 6 months
c. 1 year
b. 6 months
1049
15 celsius -25 celsius
a. room temperature
b. cool place
c. refrigerator
d. freeze
a. room temperature
1050
8 celsius -15 celsius
a. room temperature
b. cool place
c. refrigerator
d. freeze
b. cool temperature
1051
2 celsius - 8 celsius
a. room temperature
b. cool place
c. refrigerator
d. freeze
c. refrigerator
1052
35:46 Fahrenheit
a. room temperature
b. cool place
c. refrigerator
d. freeze
c. refrigerator
1053
-10 celsius to -25 celsius
a. room temperature
b. cool place
c. refrigerator
d. freeze
d. freeze
1054
vaccine should be store in
a. room temperature
b. cool place
c. refrigerator
d. freeze
c. refrigerator
1055
insulin should be stored in
a. room temperature
b. cool place
c. refrigerator
d. freeze
c. refrigerator
1056
Human plasma should be store in
a. room temperature
b. cool place
c. refrigerator
d. freeze
c. refrigerator
1057
OPV stored at
a. room temperature
b. cool place
c. refrigerator
d. freeze
d. freeze
at -20 celsius
1058
insulin is stable for __ month/s after first use . and to be kept at the refrigerator
a. 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 6 months
a. 1 month
1059
what should you do in unused human plasma
a. store for 1 month
b. store for 6 months
c. discard immediately
c. discard immediately
1060
outdated (expired ) medication returned to drug store
1061
multi dose vials with preservative should be discarded
a. 28 days
b. immediately
c. 3 hours
d. 1 hour
a. 28 days
1062
multi dose vials with no preservative should be discarded
a. 28 days
b. immediately
c. 3 hours
d. 1 hour
b. immediately after single dose
1063
multi dose vaccine with preservative should be discarded
a. 28 days
b. immediately
c. 3 hours from the opening
d. 1 hour from the opening
c. 3 hours from the opening
1064
multi dose vaccine that has no preservative should be discarded
a. 28 days
b. immediately
c. 3 hours from the opening
d. 1 hour from the opening
d. 1 hour from the opening
1065
Nitroglycerin sublingual tab
Deteriorate once exposed to light, air, temperature → once the bottle opened must be discarded within _ days.
a. 3 days
b. 15 days
c. 30 days
c. 30 days
1066
how long is the stability hour of tetanus
a. 1 hour
b. 3 hours
c. 4 hours
a. 1 hour
1067
how long is the stability hour of
MCV (Meningococcal vaccine)
a. 1 hour
b. 3 hours
c. 4 hours
b. 3 hours
1068
how long is the stability hour of OPV (polio vaccine)
a. 1 hour
b. 3 hours
c. 4 hours
b. 3 hours
1069
how long is the stability hour of BCG (Bacillus Calmetter-Guerin )
a. 1 hour
b. 3 hours
c. 4 hours
c. 4 hours
1070
what temperature should this drug be stored
Tetanus
a. 2 celsius - 8 celsius
b. -20 celcius
c.15 celsius to 25 celsius
a. 2 celsius - 8 celsius
1071
what temperature should this drug be stored
MCV vaccine
a. 2 celsius - 8 celsius
b. -20 celcius
c.15 celsius to 25 celsius
a. 2 celsius - 8 celsius
1072
what temperature should this drug be stored
OPV vaccine
a. 2 celsius - 8 celsius
b. -20 celcius
c.15 celsius to 25 celsius
b. -20 celcius
1073
what temperature should this drug be stored
BCG vaccine
a. 2 celsius - 8 celsius
b. -20 celcius
c.15 celsius to 25 celsius
a. 2 celsius - 8 celsius
1074
which of these drug need protection form light
a. tetanus
b. MCV
c. OPV
d. BCG
b. MCV and d. BCG
note: vaccines that should be protected from light are :MCV,BCG, measles
1075
after opening be kept ( 2-8 celsius ) for 6 months
a. tetanus
b. MCV
c. OPV
c. OPV
1076
In Patient: dispense medications in unit dose system for ___hours only.
In Patient: dispense medications in unit dose system for 24 hours only.
1077
❖ Safe dispense:
* In Patient: dispense medications in unit dose system for 24 hours only.
* Medication prescription by generic name except when brand name is acceptable or required.
* Pharmacist can dispense generic equivalent drug.
* If there is no generic equivalent drug but therapeutic equivalent → should call the physician:
- If accepted → must write order for medication
- If not → the chief pharmacist asks for direct purchase.
1078
❖ Medication purchase
* If drug is not available:
1- Pharmacy department make request to MOH medical supply.
2- If a drug is finished (out of stock) chief pharmacist make direct purchase → Purchase form → Finance department.
1079
❖ Disposal of ampoules:
Disposal of ampoules:
1- Flushing → 30 seconds of running water
2- Placing in sharp containers (Injection only)
1080
❖ Occurrence/variance report (OVR)
❖ Occurrence/variance report (OVR)
* If there are any discrepancies → OVR must be completed before end of the shift & discrepancies must be resolved.
* Un resolved discrepancies → reported immediately to director of the pharmaceutical service.
* Broken or lost ampoule policy: OVR must be completed by nurse submitted to the TQM department, give the
written report to the pharmacy with 2 witnesses.
1081
must approve every single case
a. physicians's departememt head
b. consultant physician
c. pharmacist
d. nurse
a. physicians's departememt head
1082
are allowed to RX formulary drugs for umapproved indication (off label) -> dispense as unit-dose
a. physicians's departememt head
b. consultant physician
c. pharmacist
d. nurse
b. consultant physicians
1083
monthly inspection of pharmacy care areas to ensure proper patient safety and stock storage
a. physicians's departememt head
b. consultant physician
c. pharmacist
d. nurse
c. pharmacist
1084
weekly inspection of pharmacy care areas to ensure proper patient safety and stock storage
a. physicians's departememt head
b. consultant physician
c. pharmacist
d. nurse
d. nurse
1085
what are the drugs prescribed only by consultants
1- Amphotericin B
2- Ciprofloxacin
3- Caspofungin
4- Colomycin
5- Imipenem/meropenem
6- Voriconazole
7- Linezolid
8- Tigecycline
page 45
1086
Drugs prescribed only by consultants and specialist
1- High cost medications
✓ Botox, Mabthera, Humira, Keppra, Femara, Entecavir
2- High alert medication
3- Narcotics
✓ Morphine, Pethidine, Fentanyl
4- Central stores medication
✓ Hepatitis B, C drugs
✓ Multiple sclerosis drugs
✓ Peg-interferon, Pegasys, Ribavirin, Zeffix
page 45
1087
what are the types of medical orders
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
1088
what type of medical order is this :
administered immediately to the patient
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
a. STAT order
1089
what type of medical order is this :
stated at the top of Rx -> dispense within 30 minutes
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
a. STAT order
1090
what type of medical order is this :
Nurse shouldn't leave the pharmacy without STAT order
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
a. STAT order
1091
what type of medical order is this :
labeled
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
a. STAT order
1092
what type of medical order is this :
stated at the top of the Rx -> dispensed immediately
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
b. emergency order
1093
what type of medical order is this :
immediately dispensing
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
c. now order
1094
what type of medical order is this :
must include indication for use and duration
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
d. PRN order
1095
what type of medical order is this :
valid for 7 days unless short time period is specified
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
e. Routine orders
1096
must be signed within 24 hours from giving the order
what type of medical order is this :
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
f. Telephone orders
1097
what type of medical order is this :
Accepted only in situation requires action facility care of the patinet and patient condition doesnt requires physician presence -> verified by red- black by 2 licensed HCP workers receiving the order
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
f. telephone order
1098
what type of medical order is this :
In emergency -> verified by repeat back -> signed by HCP when emergency case ends
a. STAT order
B. emergency order
c. now order
d. PRN orders
e. Routine orders
f. Telephone orders
g. verbal orders
g. verbal orders
1099
Medications that are visually similar in physical appearance or packaging and name of medications that have
spelling similarities and/or similar phonetics.
a. LASA medication
b. HAM medication
LASA ( lookalike soundalike ) medication
1100
how to avoid LASA ( lookalike soundalike medication)
1. Physical separation
2. Use tall MAN lettering → Capitalization of some letters to differentiate between 2 similar medications.
3. Use alert stickers
1101
what is the meaning of SCFHS ?
Saudi Commission For Health Specialist
1102
what is the meaning of MOH
Ministry Of Health
1103
what is the meaning of MOI
Ministry Of Interior
1104
waht is the meaning of MOE
Ministry Of Education
1105
what is the meaning of SFDA
Saudi Food and Drug Administration
1106
what is the meaning of CBAHI
Saudi Central Board for Accreditation of Health care Institutions
1107
Supervise and evaluate training programs for HCP
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
a. SCFHS
1108
Set controls and standards for practice of HCP
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
a. SCFHS
1109
Develops medical education programs
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
a. SCFHS
1110
Supervise and approve the results of specialized exams
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
a. SCFHS
1111
Issue certificates (diploma , fellowship.. etc. )
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
a. SCFHS
1112
Evaluates and approve health certificates
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
a. SCFHS
1113
Coordinates with associations, school inside and outside the kingdom
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
a. SCFHS
1114
develops standards governing the practice of health professions and code of ethics
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
a. SCFHS
1115
Supervise Health affairs
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
1116
Set strategic plans for hospitals
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
1117
Set laws concerning healthcare , clinical pracitce
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
1118
Set laws concerning healthcare , clinical practice
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
1119
Regulate drug distribution and usage
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
1120
determine the official tole of each HCP
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
1121
Check quality of clinical institution (Inspection , fellow up
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
1122
Responsible for psychological health
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
1123
Responsible for drug information resources
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
1124
only source to issue data and analysis of diseases in KSA
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
1125
inspection of restaurants and food resources
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
1126
medication errors reported to ____
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
B. MOH
1127
is responsible for vaccination
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
b. MOH
1128
responsinble for licensing narcotics drugs
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
c. MOI
1129
responsible for equivalence of the pharmacy certificates coming from external countries
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
d. MOE
1130
drug registreation and pricing
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
1131
Recieves complains about drug products
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
1132
inspection of pharmaceutical firms
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
1133
setting laws for importing pharmaceutical and cosmetic
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
1134
Setting laws concerning medical equipment
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
1135
determine list of companies for dealing with outside KSA
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
1136
approving drug formulary
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
1137
Responsible for medication regulation
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
1138
adverse drug reaction s resoirts uploaded to this
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
1139
drug shortage is reported to this
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
1140
Misleading advertisement is reported to
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
1141
Loss of Narcotic log book is reported to
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
1142
Chief pharmacist signs the form that is sent to this
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
E. SFDA
1143
Grant healthcare accreditation to all governmental and private healthcare facilities
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
F. CBAHI
1144
responsible for setting the quality and safety standards to ensure a better and safer healthcare
a. SCFHS
B. MOH
C. MOI
D. MOE
E. SFDA
F. CBAHI
F. CBAHI
1145
stored in locked cabinet alphabetically and store in OPD
a. free sample
b. drug recall
c. E-health in 2030
a. free sample
1146
action taken by a company at any time to remove a defective drug product from the market
a. free sample
b. drug recall
c. E-health in 2030
b. drug recall
1147
Maximum utilization of health resources
a. free sample
b. drug recall
c. E-health in 2030
c. E health in 2030
1148
they decides which drugs will appear on that entity's drug formulary
a. pharmacy and therapeutics (P and T) committee
a. pharmacist and physicians only
a. pharmacy and therapeutics (P and T) committee
1149
pharmacy and therapeutics (P and T) committee includes
physicians, pharmacist, nurses
1150
medication errors are reported to:
1- P and T committee
2- Medication safety committee
1151
If patient own medication (not ordered by physician, expired, not clean) → disposal of the drug and the patient
should be informed about that action.
1152
repeat dispensing enables community pharmacists to dispense regular medicines to patients on each
occasion a repeat is needed, without requiring another prescription from their GP.
a. HAM medications
b. refill
b. refill
1153
Refill repeat dispensing enables community pharmacists to dispense regular medicines to patients on each
occasion a repeat is needed, without requiring another prescription from their GP. The GP can sign for up to
___ months of repeat prescription forms, lasting ___ days each time.
repeat dispensing enables community pharmacists to dispense regular medicines to patients on each
occasion a repeat is needed, without requiring another prescription from their GP. The GP can sign for up to
12 months of repeat prescription forms, lasting 28 days each time.
1154
no refills are permitted
a. outpatient pharmacy
b. street pharmacy
a. outpatient pharmacy
1155
refills are permitted
a. outpatient pharmacy
b. street pharmacy
b, street pharmacy
1156
1 month refill in each time
a. outpatient pharmacy
b. street pharmacy
b. street pharmacy
1157
Maximum 3 month refill
a. outpatient pharmacy
b. street pharmacy
b. street pharmacy
1158
what is the meaning of DIU
Drug information unit
1159
Receive phone calls from HCPs and give the answers verbally and written
a. DI pharmacist
b. physician
a. DI pharmacist
1160
what are the 5 tights of medication administration
1- Right Patient
2- Right Drug
3- Right Dose
4- Right Route
5- Right Time
1161
what are the 4 P of marketing
1- Product
2- Price
3- Place
4- Promotion
1162
prescription dispensing :
dispense the medication for chromic disease every __ days
a. 30 days
b. 90days
b. 90 days
1163
prescription dispensing:
The maximum allowed amount of Diazepam to dispense in
a. 30 days
b. 90days
a. 30 days
1164
❖ Humira patient asking you about his concerns that Humira causes cancer, what will you tell him
a. Humira doesn’t cause cancer
b. Talk to him about the benefits vs risks
c. Yes, it may cause cancer
b. Talk to him about the benefits vs risks
1165
❖ Medical representative give you sample, what will you do?
a. Refuse
b. Accept
c. Tell pharmacy director
c. Tell pharmacy director
1166
❖ Physician prescribes 10 mg of drug; the technician gave the pharmacist 100 mg by mistake and the wrong
dose was given to the patient. After 3 days the patient came to the ER because of overdose. What should be
done?
a. Tell the physician
b. Tell the pharmacy manager
c. Report to SFDA
d. Tell the patient
1167
what is the side effect of
Hydralazine
a. tachycardia
b. bradycardia
c. constipation
d. diarrhea
a. tachycardia
1168
what is the side effect of
Salbutamol
a. tachycardia
b. bradycardia
c. constipation
d. diarrhea
a. tachycardia
1169
what is the side effect of
Nitroglycerine
a. tachycardia
b. bradycardia
c. constipation
d. diarrhea
a. tachycardia
1170
what is the side effect of
Propranolol
a. tachycardia
b. bradycardia
c. constipation
d. diarrhea
b. bradycardia
1171
what is the side effect of
Atropine
a. tachycardia
b. bradycardia
c. constipation
d. diarrhea
c. constipation
1172
what is the side effect of
Morphine
a. tachycardia
b. bradycardia
c. constipation
d. diarrhea
c. constipation
1173
what is the side effect of
Alpha blocker
a. tachycardia
b. bradycardia
c. constipation
d. diarrhea
c. constipation
1174
what is the side effect of
Augmentin
a. tachycardia
b. bradycardia
c. constipation
d. diarrhea
d. diarrhea
1175
what is the side effect of
insulin
a. hypokalemia
b. persistent cough and hyperkalemia
c. metallic taste
d. loss of taste
a. hypokalemia
1176
what is the side effect of
Thiazide
a. hypokalemia
b. persistent cough and hyperkalemia
c. metallic taste
d. loss of taste
a. hypokalemia
1177
what is the side effect of
ACE inhibitor
a. hypokalemia
b. persistent cough and hyperkalemia
c. metallic taste
d. loss of taste
b. persistent cough and hyperkalemia
1178
what is the side effect of
metformin
a. hypokalemia
b. persistent cough and hyperkalemia
c. metallic taste
d. loss of taste
c. metallic taste
1179
what is the side effect of
Captopril
a. hypokalemia
b. persistent cough and hyperkalemia
c. metallic taste
d. loss of taste
d. loss of taste
1180
what is the side effect of
rifampicin
a. red color urine
b. brown color urine
c. dark color urine
a. red color urine
1181
what is the side effect of
Doxorubicin
a. red color urine
b. brown color urine
c. dark color urine
a. red color urine
1182
what is the side effect of
Senna laxatives
a. red color urine
b. brown color urine
c. dark color urine
a. red color urine
1183
what is the side effect of
nitrofurantoin
a. red color urine
b. brown color urine
c. dark color urine
b. brownn color urine
1184
what is the side effect of
Metronidazole
a. red color urine
b. brown color urine
c. dark color urine
c. dark color urine
1185
what is the side effect of
Atropine
a. constipation and urine retention
b. hypoglycemia
c. water retention
d. cathartic effect
a. constipation and urine retention
1186
what is the side effect of
Pioglitazone
a. constipation and urine retention
b. hypoglycemia
c. water retention
d. cathartic effect
b. hypoglycemia
1187
what is the side effect of
Indomethacin
a. constipation and urine retention
b. hypoglycemia
c. water retention
d. cathartic effect
c. water retention
1188
what is the side effect of
MgOH2/ MgSO4
a. constipation and urine retention
b. hypoglycemia
c. water retention
d. cathartic effect
d. cathartic effects
1189
what is the side effect of
K supplements
a. heart burn
b. bronchospasm
c. aplastic anemia and gray baby syndrome
d. gray man syndrome
e. Red man syndrome
a. heart burn
1190
what is the side effect of
class 2 antiarrhythmics
a. heart burn
b. bronchospasm
c. aplastic anemia and gray baby syndrome
d. gray man syndrome
e. Red man syndrome
b. bronchospasm
1191
what is the side effect of
Chlorampenicol
a. heart burn
b. bronchospasm
c. aplastic anemia and gray baby syndrome
d. gray man syndrome
e. Red man syndrome
c. aplastic anemia and gray baby syndrome
1192
what is the side effect of
Amiodarone
a. heart burn
b. bronchospasm
c. aplastic anemia and gray baby syndrome
d. gray man syndrome
e. Red man syndrome
d. gray man syndrome
1193
what is the side effect of
Vancomycin
a. heart burn
b. bronchospasm
c. aplastic anemia and gray baby syndrome
d. gray man syndrome
e. Red man syndrome
e. red man syndrome
1194
what is the side effect of
Chlorpheniramine
a. increase incidence of BPH
b. cardiotoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
a. increase incidence of BPH
1195
what is the side effect of
Celecoxib
a. increase incidence of BPH
b. cardiotoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
b. cardiotoxicity
1196
what is the side effect of
Doxorubicin
a. increase incidence of BPH
b. cardiotoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
b. cardiotoxicity
1197
what is the side effect of
Bupivacaine
a. increase incidence of BPH
b. cardiotoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
b. cardiotoxicity
1198
what is the side effect of
paracetamol
a. increase incidence of BPH
b. cardiotoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
1199
what is the side effect of
ketoconazole
a. increase incidence of BPH
b. cardiotoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
1200
what is the side effect of
Quinidine
a. increase incidence of BPH
b. cardiotoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
1201
what is the side effect of
Aminoglycoside
a. increase incidence of BPH
b. cardiotoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
d. ototoxicity
1202
what is the side effect of
Furosemide
a. increase incidence of BPH
b. cardiotoxicity
c. hepatotoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
d. Ototoxicity
1203
what is the side effect of
Ciprofloxacin
a. Phototoxicity
b. Headache
c. lupus ( inflammation of skin )
a. phototoxicity
1204
what is the side effect of
Nitrates
a. Phototoxicity
b. Headache
c. lupus ( inflammation of skin )
b. headache
1205
what is the side effect of
Epinephrine
a. Phototoxicity
b. Headache
c. lupus ( inflammation of skin )
b. headache
1206
what is the side effect of
Isoniazid
a. Phototoxicity
b. Headache
c. lupus ( inflammation of skin )
c. lupus ( inflammation of the skin )
1207
what is the side effect of
Hydralazine
a. Phototoxicity
b. Headache
c. lupus ( inflammation of skin )
c. lupus ( inflammation of the skin )
1208
what is the side effect of
Procainamide
a. Phototoxicity
b. Headache
c. lupus ( inflammation of skin )
c. lupus (inflammation of the skin )
1209
what is the side effect of
Clozapine
a. agranulocytosis
b. life threatening arrhythmia
c. facial flushing and dyspnea
d. depression
a. agranulocytosis
1210
what is the side effect of
Propylthiouracil (PTU)
a. agranulocytosis
b. life threatening arrhythmia
c. facial flushing and dyspnea
d. depression
a. agranulocytosis
1211
what is the side effect of
Digoxin
a. agranulocytosis
b. life threatening arrhythmia
c. facial flushing and dyspnea
d. depression
b. life threatening arrhythmia
1212
what is the side effect of
Adenosine phosphate
a. agranulocytosis
b. life threatening arrhythmia
c. facial flushing and dyspnea
d. depression
c. facial flushing and dyspnea
1213
what is the side effect of
Reserpine
a. agranulocytosis
b. life threatening arrhythmia
c. facial flushing and dyspnea
d. depression
d. depression
1214
what is the side effect of
Methotrexate
a. alopecia , nausea and vomiting , bone marrow depression
b. insomnia
c. Gingival hyperplasia
d. Ototoxicity and hypocalcemia
a. alopecia , nausea and vomiting , bone marrow depression
1215
what is the side effect of
Theophylline
a. alopecia , nausea and vomiting , bone marrow depression
b. insomnia
c. Gingival hyperplasia
d. Ototoxicity and hypocalcemia
b. insomnia
1216
what is the side effect of
Phenytoin
a. alopecia , nausea and vomiting , bone marrow depression
b. insomnia
c. Gingival hyperplasia
d. Ototoxicity and hypocalcemia
c. Gingival hyperplasia
1217
what is the side effect of
Frusemide
a. alopecia , nausea and vomiting , bone marrow depression
b. insomnia
c. Gingival hyperplasia
d. Ototoxicity and hypocalcemia
d. ototoxicity and hypocalcemia
1218
what is the side effect of
Tetracycline
a. yellow teeth
b.postural hypotension
c. hypotension
d. Mydriasis
a. yellow teeth
1219
what is the side effect of
prazosin
a. yellow teeth
b.postural hypotension
c. hypotension
d. Mydriasis
b. postural hypotension = 1st dose syncope
1220
what is the side effect of
Guanethidine
a. yellow teeth
b.postural hypotension
c. hypotension
d. Mydriasis
b. postural hypotension = 1st dose syncope
1221
what is the side effect of
Dopamine
a. yellow teeth
b.postural hypotension
c. hypotension
d. Mydriasis
c. hypotension
1222
what is the side effect of
Cocaine
a. yellow teeth
b.postural hypotension
c. hypotension
d. Mydriasis
d. Mydriasis
1223
what is the side effect of
Heroin
a. Miosis
b. Ischemia
c. Cinchonism
a. Miosis
1224
what is the side effect of
Morphine
a. Miosis
b. Ischemia
c. Cinchonism
a. Miosis
1225
what is the side effect of
Norepinephrine (NE)
a. Miosis
b. Ischemia
c. Cinchonism
b. Ischemia = Tissue hypoxia
1226
what is the side effect of
Quinidine
a. Miosis
b. Ischemia
c. Cinchonism
c. cinchonism
1227
is often thought to be a 'treatment' option for the infertile or an alternative to adoption
a. refill
b. surrogacy
b. surrogacy
surrogacy is not allowed in Saudi Arabia
1228
what is the meaning of DTap
Diphtheria Tetanus Pertusis
1229
what is the meaning of Tdap
Tetanus Diphtheria Pertusis
1230
DT
Diphtheria tetanus
1231
HBV
Hepatitis B Vaccine
1232
HAV
Hepatitis A Vaccine
1233
HibV
Hemophilus Influenza B Vaccine
1234
HPV
Human Papilloma virus Vaccine
1235
PCV
Pneumococcal Conjugated Vaccine
1236
PPSV
Pneumococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine
1237
IPV
Inactivated Polio Vaccine
1238
MCV
Meningococcal Conjugate Vaccine
1239
MPSV
Meningococcal Polysaccharide Vaccine
1240
MenBV
Meningococcal B Vaccine
1241
MMR
Measles, Mumps, Rubella
1242
ZVL
Zoster Vaccine Live
1243
RV
Inactivated Influenza Vaccine
1244
LAIV
Live Attenuated Influenza Vaccine
1245
BCG
Bacille Calmette Guerin → Vaccine for TB (Tuberculosis)
1246
TIG
Tetanus ImmunoGlobulin
1247
HBIG
Hepatitis B ImmunoGlobulin
1248
VZIG
Varicella zoster ImmunoGlobulin
1249
IVIG
IntraVenous ImmunoGlobulin
1250
IGIM
ImmunoGlobulin IntraMuscular
1251
what are the two types of immunity
a. active immunity
b. passive immunity
1252
1253
individual own immune system
a. active immunity
b. passive immunity
a. active immunity
1254
an animal or human antibody and transferred
a. active immunity
b. passive immunity
b. passive immunity
1255
acquired by active disease = antigen (Ag)
a. active immunity
b. passive immunity
a. active immunity
1256
acquired by : vaccination ( live, attenuated - inactivated )
a. active immunity
b. passive immunity
a. active immunity
1257
acquired by : antibody (Ab) = immunoglobuliun (Ig)
a. active immunity
b. passive immunity
b. passive immunity
1258
what are the roles of passive immunity
a. prophylaxis of infectious disease
b. Prophylaxis therapy
c. treatment of antibody deficiency
1259
what role of passive immunity is this belong:
tetanus immunoglobulin (TIG)
a. prophylaxis of infectious disease
b. Prophylaxis therapy
c. treatment of antibody deficiency
a. prophylaxis of infectious disease
1260
what role of passive immunity is this belong:
Hepatitis B immunoglobulin (HBIG)
a. prophylaxis of infectious disease
b. Prophylaxis therapy
c. treatment of antibody deficiency
a. prophylaxis of infectious disease
1261
what role of passive immunity is this belong:
varicella zoster immunoglubulin
a. prophylaxis of infectious disease
b. Prophylaxis therapy
c. treatment of antibody deficiency
b. prophylaxis therapy
1262
what role of passive immunity is this belong:
Intravenous immunoglobulin
a. prophylaxis of infectious disease
b. Prophylaxis therapy
c. treatment of antibody deficiency
c. treatment of antibody deficiency
1263
what role of passive immunity is this belong:
intramuscular immunoglobulin
a. prophylaxis of infectious disease
b. Prophylaxis therapy
c. treatment of antibody deficiency
c. treatment of antibody deficiency
1264
what passive immunity should be given to parinets with leukemia or low immunity exposed to varicella zoster
varicella zoster immunoglobulin
1265
1st immunodeficiency or as chronic lymphocytic leukemia must be given
IVIG (intravenous immunoglobulin) or IGIM (Intramuscular immunoglobulin) every 2 to 4 weeks to maintain immunity.
1266
waht are the immunoglobulin that causes prophylaxis od infectious disease
a. tetanus immunoglobulin
b. hepatitis B immunoglobulin
1267
what prophylaxis of infectious disease is this :
minor wound
a. tetanus immunoglobulin
b. hepatitis B immunoglobulin
a. tetanus immunoglobulin
1268
what prophylaxis of infectious disease is this :
major wound
a. tetanus immunoglobulin
b. hepatitis B immunoglobulin
a. tetanus immunoglobulin
1269
what prophylaxis of infectious disease is this :
pregnant woman with hepatitis B when delivers the baby must be given with
a. tetanus immunoglobulin
b. hepatitis B immunoglobulin
b. hepatitis B immunoglobulin(HBIG) + hepatitis B vaccine (HBV)
1270
what prophylaxis of infectious disease is this :
nurse infected with hepatitis B patient blood must be given
a. tetanus immunoglobulin
b. hepatitis B immunoglobulin
b. hepatitis B immunoglobulin + hepatitis B vaccine
these two drugs must be administer in different body sites
1271
what are the types of vaccines?
a. live , attenuated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccines
1272
what type of vaccine is this:
produced by : modifying the virus or bacteria to give immunity
a. live , attenuated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccines
a. live, attenuated vaccine
1273
what type of vaccine is this:
produced by : fraction of the virus of the bacteria such as cell wall polysaccharides
a. live , attenuated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccines
b. inactivated vaccines
1274
what type of vaccine is this:
disease: do not produce disease (but may )
a. live , attenuated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccines
a. live, attenuated vaccines
1275
what type of vaccine is this:
disease: unable to produce disease
a. live , attenuated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccines
b. inactivated vaccines
1276
what type of vaccine is this:
not given in immunocompromised
a. live , attenuated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccines
a. live attenuated vaccines
1277
what type of vaccine is this:
decrease virulence of pathogen by attenuation. Attenuated means weakened but still life/ viable
a. live , attenuated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccines
a. live, attenuated vaccines
1278
what type of vaccine is this:
provide life long immunity
a. live , attenuated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccines
a. live, attenuated vaccines
1279
what type of vaccine is this:
can be given in immunocompromised patient
a. live , attenuated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccines
b. inactivated vaccines
1280
what are the live attenuated vaccines
mnemonic: Yellow ROME In Best Place
Yellow
* Yellow fever
ROME
* Rubella - Rota
* Oral Polio & Oral Typhoid
* Measles & Mumps
* Epidemic typhus
In
* Influenza (LAIV)
Best
* BCG
Place
* Plague
page 56
1281
can be given at the same time ( on the same day )
can be given separated without regard to the spacing
a.live vaccine + inactivated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccine + inactivated vaccine
c. live vaccine + live vaccine
d. live vaccine + antibodies
a.live vaccine + inactivated vaccine
1282
can be given at the same time (on the same day)
can be given separated without regard
a.live vaccine + inactivated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccine + inactivated vaccine
c. live vaccine + live vaccine
d. live vaccine + antibodies
b. inactivated vaccine + inactivated vaccine
1283
must be given at the same time ( on the same day)
if separated the spacing must be 28 days
a.live vaccine + inactivated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccine + inactivated vaccine
c. live vaccine + live vaccine
d. live vaccine + antibodies
c. live vaccine + live vaccine
1284
must be separated
a.live vaccine + inactivated vaccine
b. inactivated vaccine + inactivated vaccine
c. live vaccine + live vaccine
d. live vaccine + antibodies
a. live vaccine + antibodies
1285
most vaccine require storage of ?
a. 2-8 celsius
b. <-15 celsius
a. 2-8 celsius
1286
Zostravax required to be stored at what temperature
a. 2-8 celsius
b. <-15 celsius
b. <-15 celsius
1287
MMR (measles , mumps, rubella) can be stored in ?
in refrigerator or freezer -> bottom self of refrigerator
1288
how long is the stability of tetanus
a. 1 hour
b. 3hour
c. 4hour
a. 1 hou
1289
how long is the stability of MCV vaccine ?
a. 1 hour
b. 3hour
c. 4hour
b. 3 hour
1290
how long is the stability of OPV
a. 1 hour
b. 3hour
c. 4hour
b. 3 houir
1291
how long is the stability of BCG
a. 1 hour
b. 3hour
c. 4hour
c. 4 hours
1292
what is the storage temperature of tetanus
a. 2-8 celsius
b. -20 celsius
c. <-15 celsius
a. 2-8 celsius
1293
what is the storage temperature of MCV
a. 2-8 celsius
b. -20 celsius
c. <-15 celsius
a. 2-8 celsius
1294
what is the storage temperature of OPV
a. 2-8 celsius
b. -20 celsius
c. <-15 celsius
b. -20 celsius
1295
what is the storage temperature of BCG
a. 2-8 celsius
b. -20 celsius
c. <-15 celsius
a. 2-8 celsius
1296
from these vaccines, which of these needed protection from the light ?
a. tetanus
b. MCV
c.. OPV
d. BCG
b. MCV and
d. BCG
1297
note : protect from the light :MCV,BCG, meales
1298
after opening this vaccine, it can be kept (2-8 celsius ) for 6 months
a. tetanus
b. MCV
c. OPV
d. BCG
c. OPV
1299
majority of the vaccines are injected at what route?
a. oral
b. IV
c. IM
c. IM
watch at page 56
1300
what is the administration for this vaccine :
IPV
a. IM or SC
b. SC only
c. Oral only
a. IM or SC
IPV- inactivated polio vaccine
1301
what is the administration for this vaccine :
PPSV
a. IM or SC
b. SC only
c. Oral only
a. IM or SC
PPSV- pneumococcal polysaccharide Vaccine
1302
what is the administration for this vaccine :
MMR
a. IM or SC
b. SC only
c. Oral only
b. SC only
MMR- measles, mumps , rubella
1303
what is the administration for this vaccine :
varicella
a. IM or SC
b. SC only
c. Oral only
b. SC only
1304
what is the administration for this vaccine :
Zostravax
a. IM or SC
b. SC only
c. Oral only
b. SC only
1305
what is the administration for this vaccine :
OPV
a. IM or SC
b. SC only
c. Oral only
c. oral only
OPV- oral polio vaccine
1306
what are the vaccines for pregnant woman ?
a. Tdap
b. IIV( inactivated influenza vaccine )
1307
which of these vaccine for pregnant woman is this :
during each pregnancy ideally between 27,36 weeks gestation (last 3 months)
a. Tdap
b. IIV( inactivated influenza vaccine )
a. Tdap
1308
what is the meaning of IVV vaccine for pregnant woman
Inactivated influenza vaccine
1309
which of these vaccine for pregnant woman is this :
given immunity to child during pregnancy and 6 months after birth
a. Tdap
b. IIV( inactivated influenza vaccine )
b. IIV 9 inactivated influenza vaccine
note: Pregnant woman is more liable for influenza complication
1310
what are the vaccines that are containdicated in pregnancy
1- HPV
2- MMR
3- Varicella
4- ZVL
5- BCG
6- LAIV
All live vaccines
1311
what are the vaccines that may contain train of egg protein
a. MMR
b. influenza vaccine
c. yellow fever vaccine
1312
which of the vaccines that contain egg protein is this :
Egg allergy with just hives → Take the vaccine
a. MMR
b. influenza vaccine
c. yellow fever vaccine
b. influenza vaccine
1313
which of the vaccines that contain egg protein is this :
Egg allergy with angioedema, respiratory distress, light headache, recurrent emesis; or who
require epinephrine or emergency medical intervention → Vaccine is given under
supervision of a health care provider who is able to manage sever allergy.
a. MMR
b. influenza vaccine
c. yellow fever vaccine
b. influenza vaccine
1314
which of the vaccines that contain egg protein is this :
Higher amounts of egg proteins → Allergy specialist is recommended before vaccination
a. MMR
b. influenza vaccine
c. yellow fever vaccine
c. yellow fever vaccine
1315
what are the vaccination before Haj?
1- Annual influenza flu vaccination
2- MCV (Meningococcal)
+ polio + corona +zika
1316
what are the saudi MOH vaccination shedule
look at page 57
1317
what saudi MOH vaccination schedule should be given to babys 12 hours from birth
a.BB
b. DR BHIP
c. DO BHIP
d. MeaM
a. BB(BCG + Hep B)
A = Hep A
* B= Hep B
* D = DTaP
* H = Hib
* I = IPV
* O = OPV
* M = MCV4
* Mea = Measles
* MMR = MMR
* P = PCV
* R = RV
* V = Varicella
1318
what saudi MOH vaccination schedule should be given to 2 months old baby
a.BB
b. DR BHIP
c. DO BHIP
d. MeaM
b. DRBHIP
A = Hep A
* B= Hep B
* D = DTaP
* H = Hib
* I = IPV
* O = OPV
* M = MCV4
* Mea = Measles
* MMR = MMR
* P = PCV
* R = RV
* V = Varicella
1319
what saudi MOH vaccination schedule should be given to 4 months old baby
a.BB
b. DR BHIP
c. DO BHIP
d. MeaM
b. DR DHIP
A = Hep A
* B= Hep B
* D = DTaP
* H = Hib
* I = IPV
* O = OPV
* M = MCV4
* Mea = Measles
* MMR = MMR
* P = PCV
* R = RV
* V = Varicella
1320
what saudi MOH vaccination schedule should be given 6 months old baby
a.BB
b. DR BHIP
c. DO BHIP
d. MeaM
c. DO BHIP
A = Hep A
* B= Hep B
* D = DTaP
* H = Hib
* I = IPV
* O = OPV
* M = MCV4
* Mea = Measles
* MMR = MMR
* P = PCV
* R = RV
* V = Varicella
1321
what saudi MOH vaccination schedule should be given to 9 months old baby
a.BB
b. DR BHIP
c. DO BHIP
d. MeaM
d. MeaM
A = Hep A
* B= Hep B
* D = DTaP
* H = Hib
* I = IPV
* O = OPV
* M = MCV4
* Mea = Measles
* MMR = MMR
* P = PCV
* R = RV
* V = Varicella
1322
what saudi MOH vaccination schedule should be given to 12 months old child
a. MMR MOP
B. MMR DOV AH
C. A
D. MMR DOV
A. MMR MOP
A = Hep A
* B= Hep B
* D = DTaP
* H = Hib
* I = IPV
* O = OPV
* M = MCV4
* Mea = Measles
* MMR = MMR
* P = PCV
* R = RV
* V = Varicella
1323
what saudi MOH vaccination schedule should be given to 18 months old baby
a. MMR MOP
B. MMR DOV AH
C. A
D. MMR DOV
B. MMR DOV AH
A = Hep A
* B= Hep B
* D = DTaP
* H = Hib
* I = IPV
* O = OPV
* M = MCV4
* Mea = Measles
* MMR = MMR
* P = PCV
* R = RV
* V = Varicella
1324
what saudi MOH vaccination schedule should be given to 24 months old baby
a. MMR MOP
B. MMR DOV AH
C. A
D. MMR DOV
C. A
A = Hep A
* B= Hep B
* D = DTaP
* H = Hib
* I = IPV
* O = OPV
* M = MCV4
* Mea = Measles
* MMR = MMR
* P = PCV
* R = RV
* V = Varicella
1325
what saudi MOH vaccination schedule should be given a child 4-6 years ( school entry )
a. MMR MOP
B. MMR DOV AH
C. A
D. MMR DOV
D. MMR DOV
A = Hep A
* B= Hep B
* D = DTaP
* H = Hib
* I = IPV
* O = OPV
* M = MCV4
* Mea = Measles
* MMR = MMR
* P = PCV
* R = RV
* V = Varicella
1326
what are the adverse effects of vaccines
1- Injection site reactions (Pain, swelling, Erythema "redness") → Major side effects
2- Fever
* It is important to monitor patients for at least 15 minutes following administration.
* Sever allergy handled with Epinephrine, diphenhydramine and CPR
1327
When avoid vaccines ( contraindications)
1- Live vaccines in pregnancy.
2- Live vaccines in immunocompromised patients
a- Patient receiving cancer chemotherapy
✓ Live vaccines can be given after chemotherapy has been discontinued for at least 3 months.
b- Recent hematopoietic cell transplant (HCT)
c- Biologic agents (TNF inhibitors, Rituximab, Etanercept
d- All vaccines with CD4 < 200 cells/mm3
e- Receiving daily corticosteroids
f- All vaccines causing sever allergy (Anaphylactic shock)
g- All vaccines in moderate to severe illness with or without fever →→ Given with caution (Not contraindicated)
page 57
1328
what is the key consideration in preterm birth
* Immunize based on chronological base
* Do not reduce the recommended dose
* Delay Hep. B vaccine until the baby is:
1- More than 2 kg body weight or
2- More than 30 days old
1329
whta is the key consideration in patient receiving corticosteroid
Live vaccines may be administered to patients receiving the following:
Topicall steroid:
- any dose
look at page 57
1330
what are the two types of influenza vaccines
a. inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)
b. live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)
1331
What is the meaning of IIV vaccine
inactivated influenza vaccine
1332
what is the meaning of LAIV vaccine
live attenuated influenza vaccine
1333
which of this influenza vaccine is this:
can be given with influenza antiviral drug (IAD) like Tamiflu (Oseltamivir)
a. inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)
b. live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)
a. inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)
1334
which of this influenza vaccine is this:
not ggiven with INfluenza antiviral drug (IAD) like Tamiflu ( Oseltamivir)
a. inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV)
b. live attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)
b. live attenuated influenza vaccine
* IAD cessation → wait 48 hours → Take LAIV
* LAIV → wait 2 weeks → Take IAD
If IAD administered within 2 weeks of LAIV, the
vaccine dose should be repeated 48 hours after the
last dose of antiviral medication
1335
* IAD cessation → wait _____ → Take LAIV
a. 2 week
b. 48 hours
b. 48 hours
1336
LAIV -> WAIT _____-> take IAD
a. 2 week
b. 48 hours
a. 2 week
page 58
1337
LAIV should not be given to:
1- Patient with severe allergic reaction to LAIV
2- Patient allergic to eggs
3- Pregnant woman
4- Child (2:17) receiving aspirin or aspirin containing
5- Child (2:4) with asthma or wheezing in past year
6- Immunosuppressed patient
7- Patient taken antiviral in the previous 48 hours
1338
what viruses undergo shift and drifts; therefore, every year new of these vaccine is formulated and must
be administered every year.. what disease is this ?
a. Influenza (flu).
b. tetanus
c .hepatitis
a. Influenza (flu).
1339
New influenza season start approximately in what month every year?
a. May
b. November
c. December
b. November
New influenza season start approximately in November (11) every year
1340
The new vaccine of this disease must be started in October (10) as it takes about 2 weeks after vaccination for antibodies to
develop and provide protection.
a. Influenza (flu).
b. tetanus
c .hepatitis
a. Influenza (flu).
1341
Child less than 9 years given 2 doses in one season of this disease , one is a booster dose. → (In 1st time only)
a. Influenza (flu).
b. tetanus
c .hepatitis
a. Influenza (flu).
1342
vaccine of this disease normally taken once per year but it can be taken twice (every 6 months) in high risk patients.
a. Influenza (flu).
b. tetanus
c .hepatitis
a. Influenza (flu).
1343
High risk patients of this disease include (COPD, HTN, Dyslipidemia, Female, Old)
a. Influenza (flu).
b. tetanus
c .hepatitis
a. Influenza (flu).
Not used for children (0:6) months
1344
vaccine of this disease is given every year even if you do not need it.
a. Influenza (flu).
b. tetanus
c .hepatitis
a. Influenza (flu).
1345
inhaled influenza vaccine
FluMist
1346
what Td vaccine is given with patient who are infected with tetanus?
Tetanus, Diphtheria
1347
what is the meaning of the TIG vaccine that is given to patients that have tetanus
Tetanus Immune Globulin
1348
what should be given with patients that acquire tetanus with unknown history and has a minor wound
a. Td
b. Td + TIG
a. Td
1349
what should be given with patients that acquire tetanus with unknown history and has a major wound
a. Td
b. Td + TIG
b. Td + TIG
1350
what should be given with patients that acquire tetanus with known history and has a minor wound. Patient history: The patient received a TD dose within 10 years
a. no treatment
b. Td only
c. Td + TIG
a. no treatment
1351
what should be given with patients that acquire tetanus with known history and has a minor wound. Patient history : The patient received a Td dose more than 10 years
a. no treatment
b. Td only
c. Td + TIG
b. Td only
1352
what should be given with patients that acquire tetanus with known history and has a major wound. Patient History: The patient receives a Td dose within 5 years
a. no treatment
b. Td only
c. Td + TIG
a. no treatment
1353
what should be given with patients that acquire tetanus with known history and has major wound. Patient History: the patient received Td dose more than 5 years
a. no treatment
b. Td only
c. Td + TIG
c. Td + TIG
1354
what should be given with patients that acquire tetanus with known history and a minor wound. Patient history: The patient received a Td dose within 5 years
a. no treatment
b. Td only
c. Td + TIG
a. no treatment
1355
what should be given with patients that acquire tetanus with known history and a major wound. Patient history : The patient receive Td dose more than 10 years
a. no treatment
b. Td only
c. Td + TIG
c. Td + TIG
1356
a 5 years old patient is infected with tetanus. what vaccine should be given?
a. DTap
b. TD-Tdap
c. should receive one Td booster every 10 years
d. should replace 1 Td booster with a Tdap dose once in their life time.
a. DTap
if less than 7 years: DTap
if above 7 years : TD-Tdap
If adults:Adult should receive one Td booster every 10 years.
✓ Adult should replace 1 Td booster with a Tdap dose once in their life time.
1357
a 10 year old patient is infected with tetanus. what vaccine should be given?
a. DTap
b. TD-Tdap
c. should receive one Td booster every 10 years
d. should replace 1 Td booster with a Tdap dose once in their life time.
b. TD-Tdap
1358
an adult patient is infected with tetanus. what vaccine should be given?
a. DTap
b. TD-Tdap
c. should receive one Td booster every 10 years
d. should replace 1 Td booster with a Tdap dose once in their life time.
c and d.
c. should receive one Td booster every 10 years
d. should replace 1 Td booster with a Tdap dose once in their life time.
1359
Td vaccine wears off after how many years ?
10 years
1360
a vaccine of this disease is recommended for travel to most parts of the world.
a. Influenza
b. tetanus
c. Hepatitis
c. Hepatitis
1361
what type of hepatitis vaccine is this:
is recommended for travel to most parts of the world
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
a. hepatitis A
1362
what type of hepatitis vaccine is this:
total dose 2
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
a. hepatitis A
1363
what type of hepatitis vaccine is this:
is given in a 3 doses series at 0,1,6 months
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
b. hepatitis B
1364
what type of hepatitis vaccine is this:
minimum duration 4 weeks between two vaccines
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
b. hepatitis B
1365
what type of hepatitis vaccine is this:
If a 2nd dose vaccine was given too soon ( before minimal interval) -> dont count this incorrect dose and repeat it after the minimal time has passed since the incorrect dose
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
c. hepatitis B
1366
what type of hepatitis vaccine is this:
total dose 3
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
b. hepatitis B
1367
note: there is no vaccine available to provide protection against hepatitis C
1368
Pregnant woman with Hepatitis B when she delivers the baby must be given
(HBV) + HBIG
1369
Nurse infected with Hepatis B patient blood must be given →
(HBV) + HBIG
HBV + HBIG → administered at different body sites.
1370
Preterm birth → Delay Hep. B vaccine until the baby is:
1- More than __ kg body weight or
2- More than ___days old
Preterm birth → Delay Hep. B vaccine until the baby is:
1- More than 2 kg body weight or
2- More than 30 days old
page 59
1371
vaccine of this disease must not be given to the patient currently treated for shingles or post-herpetic neuralgia. It can
be administrated once the symptoms are resolved. (Disease symptoms are cleared)
a. Hepatitis
b. Varicella zoster
c. Tetanus
b. Varicella zoster
1372
Given to patients (Leukemia or low immunity exposed to varicella zoster
varicella zoster immunoglobulin
1373
what is the meaning of VZIG
Varicella zoster immunoglobulin
1374
what is the meaning of this vaccine:
HPV
Human Papilloma virus vaccine
1375
what vaccine will decrease incidence of infertility
A. HPV
B. RV
C. Hib
a. HPV
1376
what vaccine will decrease incidence of cervical cancer
A. HPV
B. RV
C. Hib
a. HPV
1377
this vaccine can cause syncope-> patients remain seated for at least 15 minutes after receiving this vaccine
A. HPV
B. RV
C. Hib
A. HPV
1378
brand name : Cervarix
A. HPV
B. RV
C. Hib
A. HPV
1379
brand name: Gardasil
A. HPV
B. RV
C. Hib
A. HPV
1380
which of these brand of HPV vaccine is bivalent and Quadrivalent ?
Cervarix
Gardasil
Carvarix ( bivalent )
Gardasil (quadrivalent)
1381
this vaccine should be given over 5 year child
A. HPV
B. RV
C. Hib
c. Hib
1382
which of these vaccine is this :
_______ containing vaccine -> autism
a. Hg
b. BCG
c.PCV-PPSV
d. MCV
a. Hg
1383
which of the vaccine is this:
has the maximum age -> life - long immunity
a. Hg
b. BCG
c.PCV-PPSV
d. MCV
b.BCG
1384
which of the vaccine is this:
given to patietns older than 65 years
a. Hg
b. BCG
c.PCV-PPSV
d. MCV
c. PCV -PPSV
1385
which of the vaccine is this:
emergency staff and hospital should receive this vaccine
a. Hg
b. BCG
c.PCV-PPSV
d. MCV
d. MCV
1386
Taking antibiotics shouldn't prevent vaccination.
1387
Antibiotics will not affect how your child's body responds to vaccine.
1388
is an immunosuppressant given after organ transplant.
Cyclosporin
1389
which of these vaccine weras off after 10 years
a. Td
b. BCG
a. Td
1390
which of these vaccines has the maximum age (life- long immunity )
a. Td
b. BCG
b. BCG
1391
what is the pathogen of this disease:
Whooping cough
a. pertusis
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Varicella zoster
a. pertusis
1392
what is the pathogen of this disease:
Tuberculosis
a. pertusis
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Varicella zoster
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
1393
what is the pathogen of this disease:
lung obstruction
a. pertusis
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Varicella zoster
b. Mycobacter tuberculosis
1394
what is the pathogen of this disease:
Chicken pox
a. pertusis
b. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
c. Varicella zoster
c. Varicella zoster
1395
what is the treatment for this disease :
whooping cough
a. DTap- TDap
b. BCG
c. influenza vaccine + Pneumococcla vaccine
d. ZVL
a. DTap- TDap
1396
what is the treatment for this disease :
tuberculosis
a. DTap- TDap
b. BCG
c. influenza vaccine + Pneumococcla vaccine
d. ZVL
b. BCG
1397
what is the treatment for this disease :
lung obstruction
a. DTap- TDap
b. BCG
c. influenza vaccine + Pneumococcla vaccine
d. ZVL
c. influenza vaccine + Pneumococcal vaccine
1398
what is the treatment for this disease :
Chicken pox
a. DTap- TDap
b. BCG
c. influenza vaccine + Pneumococcla vaccine
d. ZVL
d. ZVL
1399
What is the recommended duration for stopping an IAD before administering a live vaccine?
a. 1 month
b. 2 days
c. 2 weeks
d. 3 months
b. 2 days
page 60
1400
What is the recommended duration for stopping an live vaccine before administering a IAD?
a. 1 month
b. 2 days
c. 2 weeks
d. 3 months
c. 2 weeks
page 60
1401
What is the recommended duration for stopping an systemic steroid before administering a live vaccine?
a. 1 month
b. 2 days
c. 2 weeks
d. 3 months
a. 1 month
page 60
systemic steroid less than or equals 2mg/kg/day for more than 14 days
1402
What is the recommended duration for stopping an chemotherapy before administering a live vaccine?
a. 1 month
b. 2 days
c. 2 weeks
d. 3 months
d. 3 months
1403
Which of the following vaccines can be
administered either intramuscularly or
subcutaneously?
a. Influenza vaccine
b. PPSV23
c. PCV13
d. MCV
b. PPSV23
1404
Which of the following vaccines is
recommended at birth in KSA?
a. Hepatitis A vaccine
b. Hepatitis B vaccine
c. Meningococcal vaccine
d. Polio vaccine
b. Hepatitis B vaccine
1405
Which of the following is the most
common adverse reaction to an
inactivated vaccine?
a. Fever
b. Injection-site reaction
c. Headache
d. Myalgias
b. Injection-site reaction
1406
How long does it take before a flu vaccine
provides you with maximum protection
against the flu?
a. Immediately
b. 5 days
c. 2 weeks
d. 30 days
c. 2 weeks
1407
Healthy children over what age should not
receive the Hib vaccine?
a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 9 years
b. 5 years
1408
A 60-year-old patient is currently
undergoing chemotherapy for treatment
of acute myeloid leukemi She has had 3
outbreaks of shingles over the past 7
years. Can she receive zoster vaccine
(ZOSTAVAX) now?
a. Yes, she should receive the vaccine at this time
b. Yes, she needs to receive a dose of the vaccine now, and an
additional dose after completion of chemotherapy to
ensure a full immunogenic response
c. No, she should not receive the vaccine due to her diagnosis of
cancer and because she is currently receiving chemotherapy
d. No, she does not need to receive the vaccine because it will
not help since she has experienced past outbreaks
c. No, she should not receive the vaccine due to her diagnosis of
cancer and because she is currently receiving chemotherapy
1409
Which of the following patient is at the
highest risk of developing complications
from infection with the influenza virus?
a. A 70-year-old female with COPD, HTN and dyslipidemia
b. A 74-year-old male who lives in old care nursing facility
c. A 67-year-old otherwise healthy female
d. A 72-year-old-male recently diagnosed with hypertension
a. A 70-year-old female with COPD, HTN and dyslipidemia
1410
A 24-year-old patient is receiving
oseltamivir 75mg PO once daily. Can he
receive influenza vaccine now?
a. No, because he is currently receiving antiviral therapy
b. Yes, because he is only receiving the prophylaxis dose of
oseltamivir
c. Yes, he can receive inactivated influenza vaccine (IIV) now
d. Yes, he can receive live-attenuated influenza vaccine (LAIV)
24 hours after completion of antiviral drug therapy
1411
Children under the age of 9 years require 2
doses of influenza vaccine in the same
season if:
a. It is their first time to receive the vaccine
b. They have not had an influenza vaccine for the past 3 years
c. They have a weakened immune system
d. They had 2 influenza vaccines the previous year
a. It is their first time to receive the vaccine
1412
What is the minimum interval between the
administration of two inactive vaccines?
a. There is no minimum interval; they can be given at any time
b. They must be spaced 28 days apart if not given
simultaneously
c. They must be spaced 14 days apart if not given
simultaneously
d. They must be spaced 7 days apart if not given
simultaneously
1413
Vaccination is available against which of
the following hepatitis types?
a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis A & B
d. Hepatitis A & B
1414
For which case, would it be best to
withhold vaccination until a later date (i.e.
delay the vaccine)?
a. MMR for a 6-year-old boy with HIV and a CD4 count of 650
cells/mm3
b. MMR for a 6-year-old girl receiving etanercept for juvenile
arthritis
c. Inactivated flu vaccine for a 1-year-old with otitis media
d. Tdap for a pregnant 27-year-old female with gestational
diabetes
b. MMR for a 6-year-old girl receiving etanercept for juvenile
arthritis
1415
Which of the following vaccines is usually
not given until after the child's first
birthday?
a. Influenza vaccine
b. MMR vaccine
c. DTap vaccine
d. Hib vaccine
b. MMR vaccine
1416
Which of the following is a
contraindication to inactivated influenza
vaccine?
a. Pregnancy
b. Breastfeeding
c. Anaphylaxis to a previous dose of influenza vaccine
d. Egg allergy
c. Anaphylaxis to a previous dose of influenza vaccine
1417
Which of the following vaccines is strongly
recommended for people going for Hajj?
a. Haemophilus influenza vaccine
b. Pneumococcal vaccine
c. Meningococcal vaccine
d. Tuberculosis vaccine
c. Meningococcal vaccine
1418
A 28-year-old female comes to the
pharmacy during influenza season asking
for advice on whether she needs to receive
the influenza vaccine. She recently
recovered from a documented case of
influenza virus. What is your
recommendation?
a. She should not receive the vaccine because she had the flu
and has now protective antibodies
b. She should not receive the vaccine because she is not in a
high-risk group
c. She should only receive the vaccine if she wants to boost
her titers
d. She should receive the vaccine
d. She should receive the vaccine
1419
At which of the following age, it is
recommended to switch from DTaP to
Tdap?
a. 2 years
b. 5 years
c. 7 years
d. 10 years
c. 7 years
1420
The immunity of which of the following
vaccines generally wears off after 10
years?
a. MMR vaccine
b. Varicella vaccine
c. Pneumococcal vaccine
d. Td vaccine
d. Td vaccine
1421
If a 2nd dose of a vaccine was given too
soon (before the minimal interval time has
passed), the correct course of action would
be:
a. Restart the entire series
b. Do not count this incorrect dose and repeat it after the
minimal time has passed since the incorrect dose
c. Do not worry about it and continue with the next dose as
scheduled
d. Double the next dose
b. Do not count this incorrect dose and repeat it after the
minimal time has passed since the incorrect dose
1422
An 18-year-old received MMR vaccine at
her first clinic visit and the varicella vaccine
2 weeks later. Her mother wants to know
if this method was acceptable. Which of
the following is the correct response?
a. They were given correctly, and her daughter is now
protected
b. They were given too close together, and her daughter
should have both vaccines repeated in 1 month
c. They were given too close together, and her daughter
should receive the varicella vaccine 1 month from the date
of the previous varicella vaccine
d. They were given too close together, and her daughter
should receive another MMR vaccine 1 month from the
date of her previous varicella vaccination
c. They were given too close together, and her daughter
should receive the varicella vaccine 1 month from the date
of the previous varicella vaccine
1423
A patient received an MMR vaccine 2 days
ago. The patient returns because his school
informed him he needs more vaccines.
Which of the following vaccines can he not
receive today?
a. Hep B vaccine
b. Meningococcal vaccine
c. LAIV
d. He can receive any vaccine today
c. LAIV
1424
Herpes zoster vaccine (for shingles) can be
given even if the patient had a case of
shingles. If the patient come into the
pharmacy and state they had a recent case
of shingles, how long should they wait
before vaccination?
a. He should receive it right away, without regard to previous
illness
b. He should wait 1 month after the disease symptoms have
cleared
c. He should wait 1 year after the disease symptoms have
cleared
d. He should wait at least until all disease symptoms have
cleared
d. He should wait at least until all disease symptoms have
cleared
1425
A child should not get a vaccine if he/she: a. has a mild cold
b. is taking antibiotics
c. has had a severe allergic reaction to a previous dose of the
same vaccine
d. developed a fever following a previous dose
c. has had a severe allergic reaction to a previous dose of the
same vaccine
1426
Which of the following is an example of
active immunity?
a. Antibody transfer from mother to fetus
b. Antibody transfer to the child through breastfeeding
c. Injection with tetanus toxoid
d. Injection with tetanus immunoglobulin
c. Injection with tetanus toxoid
1426
Meningococcal vaccination was given to a
child at 12 months (second dose). A
booster dose can be given at what age?
a. 4 years
b. 6 years
c. 8 years
d. 10 years
1427
A 2-year-old has egg allergy (reaction was
noted to include angioedema and hives,
however, the patient can tolerate eggs in
baked goods). He is about to receive MMR
and influenza vaccines first time. What
would be the best recommendation?
a. Advise against administering either the MMR or the flu
vaccine
b. Recommend that a physician with expertise in allergy
management administer both vaccines
c. Recommend administering both the MMR and the influenza
vaccine as usual
d. Recommend administering the MMR vaccine but not the
influenza vaccine
b. Recommend that a physician with expertise in allergy
management administer both vaccines
1428
An acute moderate-to-severe illness is
considered a(n) ............. to vaccination.
a. Precaution
b. Indication
c. Contraindication
d. Recommendation
a. Precaution
1429
Which of the following is an example of
local reaction to vaccine at the injection
site?
a. Fever
b. Malaise
c. Redness
d. Myalgias
c. Redness
1430
A live vaccine is created by reducing the
virulence of a pathogen by the process of:
a. Radiation
b. Inactivation
c. Mutation
d. Attenuation
d. Attenuation
1431
A person received LAIV. Five days later, he
was diagnosed with flu and oseltamivir
was prescribed for 5 days. Which of the
following is best regarding his LAIV
vaccine?
a. He does not need to repeat LAIV dose
b. He needs to repeat LAIV dose 24 hours after completion of
therapy with oseltamivir
c. He needs to repeat LAIV dose 48 hours after completion of
therapy with oseltamivir
d. He needs to repeat LAIV dose 2 weeks after completion of
therapy with oseltamivir
c. He needs to repeat LAIV dose 48 hours after completion of
therapy with oseltamivir
1432
Beta - carotene
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
a. retinol
1433
what are the lipid soluble vitamins
a. retinol (vitamin A)
b. cholecalciferol (vitamin D)
c. Tocopherol (vitamin E)
d. Phylloquinone (vitamin K)
1434
Vitamin A
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
a. retinol
1435
Vitamin D
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
b. cholecalciferol
1436
Vitamin E
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
c. tocopherol
1437
vitamin K
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
d. phylloquinone
1438
which of these vitamins are antioxidant
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
a. retinol
c. tocopherol
- antioxidant -> protect cell membrane
1439
use : vision-> prevent xerophthalmia
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
a. retinol
1440
use : bone growth-> absorption of Ca2+
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
b. cholecalciferol
1441
use: spermatogenesis
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
c. tocopherol
1442
use : fertility -> used in fertility case
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
c. tocopherol
1443
use : blood clotting
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
d. phylloquinone
1444
use : necessary for factors 10-9-7-2
a. retinol
b. cholecalciferol
c. Tocopherol
d. Phylloquinone
d. Phylloquinone
1445
thiamine
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
a. vitamin B1
1446
Riboflavin
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
b. vitamin B2
1447
Niacin
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
c. vitamin B3
1448
Pantothenic
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
d. Vitamin B5
1449
Pyridoxine
a. Vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. Vitamin B9
d. Vitamin C
a. Vitamin B 6
1450
Biotin
a. Vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. Vitamin B9
d. Vitamin C
b. Vitamin B7
1451
Folic acid
a. Vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. Vitamin B9
d. Vitamin C
c. vitamin B9
1452
Ascorbic acid
a. Vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. Vitamin B9
d. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin C
page 65
1453
CHO metabolism through cofactors
a. thiamin
b. riboflavin
c. niacin
d. pantothenic
a. thiamin
1454
use : energy metabolism
a. thiamin
b. riboflavin
c. niacin
d. pantothenic
b. riboflavin
1455
use : growth hormone
a. thiamin
b. riboflavin
c. niacin
d. pantothenic
c. niacin
1456
use : decrease cholesterol
a. thiamin
b. riboflavin
c. niacin
d. pantothenic
c. niacin
1457
use: vasodilator (VD)
a. thiamin
b. riboflavin
c. niacin
d. pantothenic
c. niacin
1458
CHO, protein , fat metabolism
a. thiamin
b. riboflavin
c. niacin
d. pantothenic
d. pantothenic
1459
use : protein and fat metabolism
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
a. pyridoxine
1460
treat pregnancy vomiting
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
a. pyridoxine
1461
antidote for INH
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
a. pyridoxine
1462
cobalamin
a. vitamin B 6
b. vitamin B7
c. Vitamin B9
d. Vitamin B12
d. Vitamin B12
1463
beneficial in skin, hair and nails
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
b. biotin
1464
use : synthesis of nucleic acid
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
c. folic acid
1465
use : formation of blood cells
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
c. folic acid
1466
use: activates B12
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
c. folic acid
1467
use : synthesis of nucleic acid
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
d. cobalamin
1468
use: activates B9
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
d. cobalamin
1469
antioxidant
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
e. ascorbic acid
1470
increases immunity and decreases duration of cold
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
e. ascorbic acid
1471
production of collagen
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
e. ascorbic acid
1472
promote healing and skin repair
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
e. ascorbic acid
1473
increase activity of drug used to treat H. pylori
a. pyridoxine
b. biotin
c. folic acid
d. cobalamin
e. ascorbic acid
e. ascorbic acid
1474
deficiency of this disease will cause night blindness
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
a. vitamin A
1475
deficiency of this disease will cause extreme dry skin, hair and nails
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
a. vitamin A
1476
deficiency of this disease will cause rickets
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
b. vitamin D
1477
deficiency of this disease will cause Osteomalacia
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
b. vitamin D
1478
deficiency of this disease will cause increases risk of cardio vascular disease
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
b. vitamin D
1479
deficiency of this disease will cause RBCs damage and will cause sickle disease and then Thalassemia
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
c. vitamin E
1480
deficiency of this disease will cause bleeding
a. vitamin A
b. vitamin D
c. vitamin E
d. vitamin K
d. vitamin K
1481
deficiency of this disease will cause beri-beri
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
a. vitamin B1
1482
deficiency of this disease will cause fatigue and lack of concentration
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
a. vitamin B1
1483
deficiency of this disease will cause Riboflavinosis
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
b. vitamin B2
1484
deficiency of this disease will cause itching and burning eyes
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
b. vitamin B2
1485
deficiency of this disease will cause cracks and sores in mouth and lips that will later cause stomatitis
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
b. vitamin B2
1486
deficiency of this disease will cause pellagra
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
c. Vitamin B3
1487
deficiency of this disease will cause dermatitis, diarrhea, dementia
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
c. vitamin B3
1488
deficiency of this disease will cause Niacin flush caused by high doses
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B2
c. vitamin B3
d. vitamin B5
c. vitamin B3
1489
deficiency of this disease will cause neurological symptoms
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. vitamin B9
d. vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C
a. vitamin B6
1490
deficiency of this disease will cause Microcytic anemia
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. vitamin B9
d. vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C
a. vitamin B6
1491
deficiency of this disease will cause Alopecia, anorexia, nausea, vomiting
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. vitamin B9
d. vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C
b. vitamin B7
1492
deficiency of this disease will cause Megaloblastic anemia
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. vitamin B9
d. vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C
c. vitamin B9
1493
deficiency of this disease will cause Neural tube defect
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. vitamin B9
d. vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C
c. vitamin B9
1494
deficiency of this disease will cause recommended in pregnancy
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. vitamin B9
d. vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C
c. vitamin B9
1495
deficiency of this disease will cause pernicious anemia
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. vitamin B9
d. vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C
d. vitamin B12
1496
deficiency of this disease will cause scurvy
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. vitamin B9
d. vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C
e. vitamin c
1497
deficiency of this disease will cause gingivitis
a. vitamin B6
b. vitamin B7
c. vitamin B9
d. vitamin B12
e. Vitamin C
e. vitamin c
1498
cholecalciferol
a. vitamin D2
b. vitamin D3
b. vitamin D3
1499
ergocalciferol
a. vitamin D2
b. vitamin D3
a. vitamin D2
1500
which is more effective
a. vitamin D2
b. vitamin D3
b. vitamin D3
1501
is used in chronic kidney disease (CKD) to decrease PTH
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin D
1502
is used with patient using corticosteroids for 6 months
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin D
1503
is considered biologically inactive until it undergoes 2 enzymatic hydroxylation reactions.
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
c. Vitamin D
1504
in high doses ( more than 15000IU) is contraindicated in pregnancy
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C
c. Vitamin D
a. Vitamin A
1505
absorbed by intrinsic factors
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B3
c. Vitamin B12
c. vitamin B12
1506
Niacin
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B3
c. Vitamin B12
b. vitamin B3
1507
in doses above 500 mg daily causes transient increase in liver enzymes
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B3
c. Vitamin B12
b. vitamin B3
1508
function: makes up bone and teeth
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
a. calcium
1509
function: muscle contraction and laxation
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
a. calcium
1510
function: blood pressure- clotting
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
a. calcium
1511
function: nerve functions
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
a. calcium
1512
function: helps insulin to move glucose from blood to cells
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
b. chromium
1513
function: makes bones and teeth stronger
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
c. fluoride
1514
function: helps teeth to resist decay
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
c. fluoride
1515
function: component of thyroid hormone
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
d. iodine
1516
function: regulate growth , development and metabolism
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
d. iodine
1517
function: part of hemoglobin
a. Iron
b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
a. Iron
1518
function: Mineralization of bones and teeth
a. Iron
b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
b. magnesium
1519
function: Helps enzymes functions
a. Iron
b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
b. Magnesium
1520
function: muscle contraction and nerve transmission
a. Iron
b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
b. magnesium
1521
function: present in bones, teeth, DNA and phospholipids
a. Iron
b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
c. Phosphorus
1522
function: Maintain normal electrolyte balance
a. Iron
b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
d. Potassium
1523
function: Muscle contraction and nerve transmission
a. Iron
b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
d. Potassium
1524
function: antioxidant works with vitamin E
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
a. selenium
1525
function: Maintain normal electrolyte balance
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
b. Sodium
1526
function: Muscle contraction and nerve transmission
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
b. Sodium
1527
function: Part of insulin
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
c. Zinc
1528
function: Helps many enzymes function
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
c. Zinc
1529
function: DNA repair
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
c. Zinc
1530
function: Taste perception
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
c. Zinc
1531
function: Immune function
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
c. Zinc
1532
function: Wound healing
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
c. Zinc
1533
function: sperm
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
c. Zinc
1534
function: increase Iron absorption
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin C
1535
Deficiency of this mineral will cause stunded growth in children
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
a. calcium
1536
Deficiency of this mineral will cause bone loss in adults
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
a. calcium
1537
Deficiency of this mineral will cause abnormal glucose metabolism
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
b. chromium
1538
Deficiency of this mineral will cause tooth decay
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
c. fluoride
1539
Deficiency of this mineral will cause goiter
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
d. iodine
1540
Deficiency of this mineral will cause cretinism
a. calcium
b. chromium
c. fluoride
d. iodine
d. iodine
1541
Deficiency of this mineral will cause anemia , weakness, headache , reduced immunity, and low cold tolerance
a. Iron
b. magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
a. iron
1542
Deficiency of this mineral will cause weakness, muscle twitches, confusion, convulsion
a. Iron
b. magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
b. magnesium
1543
Deficiency of this mineral will cause weakness and bone pain
a. Iron
b. magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
c. phosphorus
1544
Deficiency of this mineral will cause muscular weakness, paralysis, and confusion
a. Iron
b. magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. Potassium
d. potassium
1545
Deficiency of this mineral will cause Keshan disease
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
a. selenium
1546
Deficiency of this mineral will cause muscle pain, low sperm , fragile red blood cells, and heart damage
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
a. selenium
1547
Deficiency of this mineral will cause muscle cramps, mental apathy and loss of appetite
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
b. sodium
1548
Deficiency of this mineral will cause failure to growth (kids), dermatitis, loss of taste , poor healing , sex retardation
a. Selenium
b. Sodium
c. Zinc
d. Vitamin C
c. Zinc
1549
memorize the Glutathione oxidation reduction ( Redox) Cycle
page 67
1550
what enzyme is used in the conversion of Homocysteine to methionine
a. Methionine synthase
b. methyltransderase
a. methionine synthase
1551
what enzyme is use in the conversion of S-adenosyl methionine to S- Adenosyl- homocysteine
a. Methionine synthase
b. methyltransderase
b. methyltransferase
page 67
1552
what vitamin is used to convert 5-Methyl TH4 - Folate to TH4-Folate
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B6
c. vitamin B12
c. vitamin B12
1553
what vitamin is used to convert homocysteine to cystathionine
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B6
c. vitamin B12
b. vitamin B6
1554
what vitamin is used to convert cysathionine to cysteine
a. vitamin B1
b. vitamin B6
c. vitamin B12
b. vitamin B6
1555
How many daily doses of FeSO4 should the adult patient take?
a. 1000mg/day
b.600IU
c. 1200mg/day
d. 150mg/day
c. 1200mg/day
1555
How many daily doses of elemental Fe should the adult patient take?
a. 1000mg/day
b.600IU
c. 1200mg/day
d. 150mg/day
d. 150mg/day
1556
How many daily doses of calcium should the pregnant patient take?
a. 1200mg/day
b.600IU
c. 900mg/day
d. 600mg/day
a. 1200mg/day
1556
How many daily doses of folic acid should the pregnant patient take?
a. 1200mg/day
b.600IU
c. 900mg/day
d. 600mg/day
d. 600mcg
1556
How many daily doses of vitamin A should the pregnant patient take?
a. 1200mg/day
b.600IU
c. 900mg/day
d. 600mg/day
c.900mg/day
1556
How many daily doses of vitamin D should the pregnant patient take?
a. 1200mg/day
b.600IU
c. 900mg/day
d. 600mg/day
b. 600 IU
1557
How many daily doses of vitamin D should the breast feeding patient take?
a.600IU
b. 1200mcg/day
c. 500mcg/day
a. 600 IU
1558
How many daily doses of vitamin A should the breast feeding patient take?
a.600IU
b. 1200mcg/day
c. 500mcg/day
b. 1200mcg
1559
How many daily doses of calcium should the breast geriatric patient take?
a.600IU
b.1200mg/day
c. 500mcg/day
b. 1200mg/day
1559
How many daily doses of folic acid should the breast feeding patient take?
a.600IU
b. 1200mcg/day
c. 500mcg/day
c. 500mcg
1559
How many daily doses of vitamin D should the breast geriatric patient take?
a.600IU
b.1200mg/day
c. 500mcg/day
a. 600IU
1560
How many daily doses of calcium should the adult patient take?
a. 1000mg/day
b.600IU
c. 1200mg/day
d. 150mg/day
a.1000mg/day
1561
How many daily doses of Vitamin D should the adult patient take?
a. 1000mg/day
b.600IU
c. 1200mg/day
d. 150mg/day
b. 600IU
1562
what enzyme is used in converting oxidized Glutathione
to reduced glutathione
a. glutathione reductase
b. glutathione peroxidase
a. glutathione reductase
1563
what enzyme is used to convert reduced glutathione to oxidized glutathione
a. glutathione reductase
b. glutathione peroxidase
b. glutathione peroxidase
1564
FAD
a. riboflavin
b. selenium
a. riboflavin
1565
what is used in converting oxidized glutathione to reduced glutathione
a. riboflavin
b. selenium
a. riboflavin
1566
what is used in converting reduced Glutathione to oxidized Glutathione
a. riboflavin
b. selenium
b. selenium
1566
7- dehydrocholecalciferol ---UV from sun---> ?
a. cholecalciferol
b. 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol
c. 1,25-Di-Hydroxy-Cholecalciferol
a. cholecalciferol
1567
vitamin D3
a. cholecalciferol
b. 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol
c. 1,25-Di-Hydroxy-Cholecalciferol
a. cholecalciferol
1568
Vitamin D3--- 25 hydroxylase from liver --->
a. cholecalciferol
b. 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol
c. 1,25-Di-Hydroxy-Cholecalciferol
b. 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol
1569
25-Hydroxy-cholecalciferol ------- 1 hydroxylase from kidney ---->
a. cholecalciferol
b. 7-dehydrochocalciferol
c. 1,25-Di-Hydroxy-Cholecalciferol
c. 1,25-Di-Hydroxy-Cholecalciferol
1570
what enzyme is used to convert cholecalciferol to 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol
a. oxidase
b. hydroxylase
b. hydroxylase
1571
What organ is responsible for converting 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol to 1,25-Di-Hydroxy- Cholecalciferol ?
a. liver
b. kidney
b. kidney
1571
what enzyme is used to convert cholecalciferol to 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol
a. 25 oxidase
b. 1 oxidase
c. 25 hydroxylase
d. 1 hydroxylase
c. 25 hydroxylase
1571
what enzyme is used to convert 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol to 1,25-Di-Hydroxy-Cholecalciferol
a. 25 oxidase
b. 1 oxidase
c. 25 hydroxylase
d. 1 hydroxylase
d. 1 hydroxylase
1571
What organ is responsible for converting cholecalciferol to 25-hydroxy-cholecalciferol?
a. liver
b. kidney
a. liver
