55 Hemolytic Anemia resulting from Immune Injury Flashcards

1
Q

The two main features of immune red blood cell (RBC) injury are

A

(a) shortened RBC survival in vivo and

(b) evidence of host antibodies reactive with autologous RBCs, most frequently demonstrated by a positive direct antiglobulin test (DAT) result, also known as the Coombs test

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2
Q

Most cases in adults are mediated by ___________ autoantibodies.

A

Warm-reactive autoantibodies

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3
Q

Sera of some patients with hemolytic anemia directly agglutinated saline suspensions of normal or autologous human RBCs

These serum factors, later shown to be specific antibodies (largely of the immunoglobulin [Ig] M class), were termed

A

Direct or saline agglutinins

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4
Q

The patients’ sera could mediate lysis of the test RBCs in the presence of fresh serum as a complement source.

The heat-stable factors (antibodies) necessary for in vitro complement-mediated lysis were called

A

Hemolysins

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5
Q

When the RBCs are coated chiefly with complement proteins, a positive DAT result depends on the presence of anticomplement (principally ____________) in the antiglobulin reagent.

A

anti-C3

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6
Q

Cryopathic hemolytic syndromes are caused by autoantibodies that bind RBCs optimally at temperatures less than _____°C and usually less than ______°C.

A

Less than 37°C and usually less than 31°C

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7
Q

Two major types of “cold antibody” may produce AHA:

A

Cold agglutinins: cold agglutinin disease

Donath-Landsteiner autoantibody: paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria

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8
Q

In both cryopathic syndromes, the (immunoglobulin OR complement system) plays a major role in RBC injury; as such, much greater potential exists for direct intravascular hemolysis than in warm antibody–mediated AHA.

A

Complement system

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9
Q

Cold agglutinin disease pertains to patients with chronic AHA in which the autoantibody directly agglutinates human RBCs at temperatures below body temperature, maximally at __________°C.

A

0°C–5°C

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10
Q

Cold agglutinins typically are Ig_____, although occasionally they may be immunoglobulins of other isotypes.

A

IgM

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11
Q

The cold agglutinins in chronic cold agglutinin disease generally are__________.

A

Monoclonal

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12
Q

Most cold agglutinins have specificity for _______________of the RBC

A

Oligosaccharide antigens (I or i)

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13
Q

Viral disease associated with Donath-Landsteiner antibody

A

Congenital or tertiary syphilis

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14
Q

An increasing proportion of Donath-Landsteiner autoantibody-mediated hemolytic anemias occurs as a single postviral episode in children, without recurrent attacks (paroxysms).

The prognosis for such cases is excellent.

A

Donath-Landsteiner hemolytic anemia

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15
Q

When no recognizable underlying disease is present, the AHA is termed

A

Primary or idiopathic

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16
Q

Account for approximately half of all secondary warm AHA cases

A

Lymphocytic malignancies, particularly chronic lymphocytic leukemia (CLL) and lymphomas

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17
Q

The majority of AHA cases mediated by cold agglutinins have a

A

Clonal lymphoproliferative disorder

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18
Q

A large proportion of patients with mixed cold and warm autoantibodies have this autoimmune disease

A

SLE

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19
Q

Infections associated with AHA mediated by cold agglutinins

A

Infectious mononucleosis and Mycoplasma pneumoniae

**hemolytic anemia is rare

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20
Q

Two of the mechanisms of drug-immune hemolytic anemia that involve drug-dependent antibodies

A

Hapten-drug adsorption and ternary complex formation

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21
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Drug-related nonimmunologic protein adsorption by RBCs may result in a positive DAT without actual RBC injury.

A

TRUE

Drug-related nonimmunologic protein adsorption by RBCs may result in a positive DAT without actual RBC injury.

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22
Q

In general, AHA is considered secondary when

A

(a) AHA and the underlying disease occur together with greater frequency than can be accounted for by chance alone,

(b) the AHA reverses simultaneously with correction of the associated disease, or

(c) AHA and the associated disease are related by evidence of immunologic aberration.

Careful follow-up of patients with primary AHA is essential because hemolytic anemia may be the presenting finding in a patient who subsequently develops overt evidence of an underlying disorder.

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23
Q

The most common cause of drug-induced autoantibodies

A

Fludarabine

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24
Q

In warm-antibody AHA, the autoantibodies that mediate RBC destruction are predominantly (but not exclusively) ______ globulins

A

IgG

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25
Q

Although generally transient, the positive DAT result may persist for up to _______ days in some transfusion recipients, long after any transfused RBCs have disappeared.

A

300 days

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26
Q

Drug that can induce warm-reacting IgG anti-RBC autoantibodies in otherwise normal persons

A

α-methyldopa

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27
Q

The approximate frequency of positive DATs in the entire population

A

1 in 10,000

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28
Q

Almost all patients with cold agglutinin disease display _______________ whose heavy-chain variable regions are encoded by ________________

A

Monoclonal IgM cold agglutinins (with either anti-I or anti-i specificity)

IGHV4–34 (immunoglobulin heavy chain variable region)

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29
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

A direct relationship between the quantity of RBC-bound IgG antibody and RBC survival

A

FALSE

An inverse relationship between the quantity of RBC-bound IgG antibody and RBC survival

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30
Q

In wAIHA, The macrophage has surface receptors for the Fc region of IgG, with preference for the:

A

IgG1 and IgG3 subclasses and surface receptors for opsonic fragments of C3 (C3b and C3bi) and C4b

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31
Q

RBC sequestration in warm-antibody AHA occurs primarily in the

A

Spleen

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32
Q

A consistent and diagnostically important hallmark of AHA, and the degree correlates well with the severity of hemolysis.

A

Spherocytosis

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33
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Direct complement-mediated hemolysis with hemoglobinuria is unusual in warm-antibody AHA, even though many warm autoantibodies fix complement.

A

TRUE

Direct complement-mediated hemolysis with hemoglobinuria is unusual in warm-antibody AHA, even though many warm autoantibodies fix complement.

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34
Q

Glycosylphosphatidylinositol-linked erythrocyte membrane proteins that limit the action of autologous complement on autoantibody-coated RBCs

A

Decay-accelerating factor (DAF; CD55) and homologous restriction factor (HRF; CD59)

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35
Q

Inhibits the formation and function of cell-bound C3-converting enzyme, thus indirectly limiting formation of C5-converting enzyme

A

DAF

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36
Q

Impedes C9 binding and formation of the C5b–9 membrane attack complex

A

HRF

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37
Q

The highest temperature at which these antibodies cause detectable agglutination is termed the

A

Thermal amplitude

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38
Q

The pathogenicity of a cold agglutinin depends on its ability to bind host RBCs and to activate complement. This process is called

A

Complement fixation

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39
Q

The great preponderance of cold agglutinin molecules are IgM (pentamers or hexamers)

A

IgM pentamers

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40
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Pentamers fix complement and lyse RBCs more efficiently than do hexamers, suggesting that pentameric IgM plays a role in the pathogenesis of hemolysis in these patients.

A

FALSE

Hexamers fix complement and lyse RBCs more efficiently than do pentamers, suggesting that hexameric IgM plays a role in the pathogenesis of hemolysis in these patients.

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41
Q

Cold agglutinins of the______ isotype, an isotype that does not fix complement, may cause acrocyanosis but not hemolysis.

A

IgA isotype

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42
Q

Complement fixation by cold agglutinins may effect RBC injury by two major mechanisms:

A

(a) direct lysis and
(b) opsonization for hepatic and splenic macrophages

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43
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Donath-Landsteiner antibody is a more potent hemolysin than cold agglutinin.

A

TRUE

Donath-Landsteiner antibody is a more potent hemolysin than cold agglutinin.

44
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Most of the antiglobulin-positive RBCs of patients with cold agglutinin disease are coated with C3dg

A

TRUE

Most of the antiglobulin-positive RBCs of patients with cold agglutinin disease are coated with C3dg

45
Q

Prototype drug for Hapten-Drug
Adsorption

A

Penicillin

46
Q

Prototype drug for Ternary Complex Formation

A

Quinidine

47
Q

Prototype drug for Autoantibody Binding

A

α-Methyldopa

48
Q

Prototype drug for Nonimmunologic Protein Adsorption

A

Cephalothin

49
Q

Most individuals who receive penicillin develop ______antibodies directed against the _____________ determinant of penicillin

A

IgM antibodies

Benzylpenicilloyl determinant of penicillin

**This antibody plays no role in penicillin-related immune injury to RBCs

50
Q

This step is critical in distinguishing these drug-dependent antibodies from true autoantibodies.

A

Antibodies eluted from patients’ RBCs or present in their sera react in the indirect antiglobulin test (IAT) only against penicillin-coated RBCs.

51
Q

Blood cell injury is mediated by a cooperative interaction among three reactants to generate a ternary complex involving

A

(a) the drug (or drug metabolite in some cases),
(b) a drug-binding membrane site on the target cell, and
(c) antibody

52
Q

Risk factors for hemolysis in patients with CLL treated with the purine analogues fludarabine, pentostatin, or cladribine

A

Previous therapy with a purine analogue, high β2-microglobulin, a positive DAT result before therapy, and hypogammaglobulinemia

53
Q

The most common offender among immune checkpoint inhibitors causing AIHA

A

Nivolumab

54
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

The hapten-drug adsorption mechanism (eg, cephalosporins or quinidine) often causes sudden, severe hemolysis with hemoglobinuria

A

FALSE

The ternary complex mechanism (eg, cephalosporins or quinidine) often causes sudden, severe hemolysis with hemoglobinuria

55
Q

Lab features of AIHA

A

Increased reticulocyte count and a positive DAT result
Polychromasia
Spherocytes
RBC fragments, nucleated RBCs, and occasionally erythrophagocytosis by monocyte
Mild leukocytosis and neutrophilia
Reticulocyte count usually is elevated
Hyperbilirubinemia (chiefly unconjugated)
Urinary urobilinogen is increased
Serum haptoglobin levels are low
Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) levels are elevated

Cold-antibody AHA: RBC autoagglutination

56
Q

Severe immune thrombocytopenia that is associated with warm-antibody AHA

A

Evans syndrome

**may occur de novo or as a phenomenon secondary to an autoimmune disease, lymphoma, or immunodeficiency

57
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Patients with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria have hematocrit levels that decrease rapidly during a paroxysm

A

TRUE

Patients with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria have hematocrit levels that decrease rapidly during a paroxysm

During a paroxysm, leukopenia is noted early followed by leukocytosis.

Complement titers frequently are depressed because of consumption of complement proteins during hemolysis.

58
Q

Drug-induced immune hemolytic anemia that hematologic findings are similar to those described for spontaneously occurring warm-antibody AHA.

A

Hapten-drug adsorption and true autoantibody types

**Leukopenia and thrombocytopenia may be noted in cases of ternary complex-mediated hemolysis

59
Q

Hemoglobinuria is encountered in rare patients with warm-antibody AHA and hyperacute hemolysis, more commonly in patients with:

A

Cold agglutinin disease, and characteristically in patients with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria and with drug-induced immune hemolytic anemia mediated by the ternary complex mechanism

60
Q

As a screening procedure, use of a _______________—that is, one that contains antibodies directed against human immunoglobulin and complement components (principally C3)—is customary.

A

“broad-spectrum” antiglobulin (Coombs) reagent

61
Q

Three possible major patterns of direct antiglobulin reaction in AHA and drug-induced immune hemolytic anemia exist:

A

(a) RBCs coated with only IgG,
(b) RBCs coated with IgG and complement components, and
(c) RBCs coated with complement components without detectable immunoglobulin.

62
Q

DAT Reaction pattern: Immunoglobulin (Ig) G alone

A

Warm-antibody autoimmune hemolytic anemia (AHA)
Drug-immune hemolytic anemia: hapten drug adsorption type or autoantibody type

63
Q

DAT Reaction pattern: Complement alone

A

Warm-antibody AHA with subthreshold IgG deposition
Cold-agglutinin disease
Paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
Drug-immune hemolytic anemia: ternary complex type

64
Q

DAT Reaction pattern: IgG plus
complement

A

Warm-antibody AHA
Drug-immune hemolytic anemia: autoantibody type (rare)

65
Q

Major portion detected by the DAT

A

Autoantibody bound to the patient’s RBCs

66
Q

Major portion detected by the IAT

A

“free” Autoantibody

67
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Patients whose RBCs are heavily coated with IgG more likely exhibit plasma autoantibody.

A

TRUE

Patients whose RBCs are heavily coated with IgG more likely exhibit plasma autoantibody.

68
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Patients with a positive IAT as a result of a warm-reactive autoantibody should also have a positive DAT result.

A

TRUE

Patients with a positive IAT as a result of a warm-reactive autoantibody should also have a positive DAT result.

69
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

A patient with a serum anti-RBC antibody (positive DAT result) and a negative IAT result probably have an autoimmune process by prior transfusion or pregnancy.

A

FALSE

A patient with a serum anti-RBC antibody (positive IAT result) and a negative DAT result probably does not have an autoimmune process but rather an alloantibody stimulated by prior transfusion or pregnancy.

70
Q

There are three principal causes for the negative DAT reaction:

A

(a) IgG or complement sensitization below the threshold of detection of commercial antiglobulin (Coombs) reagents;

(b) low-affinity IgG sensitization with loss of cell-bound antibody during the cell washing steps before the direct antiglobulin reaction; and

(c) sensitization with IgA or IgM antibodies, which many commercial DAT reagents cannot detect because they contain only anti-IgG anti-C3.

71
Q

The IgG subclass most commonly encountered

A

IgG1

72
Q

The IgG subclass autoantibodies that appear to be more effective in decreasing RBC lifespan

A

IgG1 and IgG3

73
Q

Nearly half of all AHA patients have autoantibodies specific for epitopes on__________.

A

Rh proteins

Occasionally, the anti-Rh autoantibodies have anti-e, anti-E, or anti-c (or, more rarely, anti-D) specificity

74
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Patients who have autoantibodies with selective specificity (eg, anti-e) nearly always have other autoantibodies reactive with all human RBCs, except Rhnull.

A

TRUE

Patients who have autoantibodies with selective specificity (eg, anti-e) nearly always have other autoantibodies reactive with all human RBCs, except Rhnull.

75
Q

Group of autoantibodies is designated non–Rh related

A

anti-Wrb, anti-Ena, anti-LW, anti-U, anti-Ge, anti-Sc1, or antibodies to Kell blood group antigens

76
Q

Autoantibodies with non-Rh serologic specificity react with the ___________________.

A

Band 3 anion transporter or with both band 3 and glycophorin A

77
Q

Cold agglutinins are distinguished by their ability to directly agglutinate saline-suspended human RBCs at low temperature, maximally at ________

A

0°C–5°C

78
Q

Cold agglutinins are characteristically ______.

A

IgM

79
Q

The majority of cold agglutinins are reactive with oligosaccharide antigens of the______ system

A

I/i system

80
Q

Anti-I is the predominant specificity of cold agglutinins in:

A

Idiopathic cold agglutinin disease, in patients with M. pneumoniae, and in some cases of lymphoma

81
Q

Anti-i specificity are found in patients with :

A

Infectious mononucleosis and in some patients with lymphoma.

82
Q

A small percentage of cold agglutinin-containing sera react equally well with adult and neonatal RBCs and are outside the I/i system

A

Pr antigens, M or P blood group antigens

83
Q

Most cold agglutinins associated with ________exhibit anti-Pr specificity

A

Chickenpox

84
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

In paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria, the direct antiglobulin reaction usually is positive during and briefly following an acute attack because of the coating of surviving RBCs with complement, primarily C3dg fragments.

A

TRUE

In paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria, the direct antiglobulin reaction usually is positive during and briefly following an acute attack because of the coating of surviving RBCs with complement, primarily C3dg fragments.

85
Q

The Donath-Landsteiner antibody typically has specificity for the _______________, a glycosphingolipid structure

A

P blood group antigen

The P antigen also occurs on lymphocytes and skin fibroblasts.

86
Q

Coomb’s test result in hapten-drug adsorption mechanism

A

Positive DAT reactions with anti-IgG

**react only with drug-coated RBCs

87
Q

Coomb’s test result in ternary complex mechanism

A

DAT result is positive with anticomplement serum

** cold agglutinin titer and the Donath-Landsteiner test result are normal

88
Q

In ternary complex mechanism, the IAT reaction with anticomplement serum may be positive only if the incubation mixture permits interaction of:

A

(a) normal RBCs;
(b) antidrug antibody from the patient’s serum;
(c) the relevant drug, either still in the patient’s serum or added in vitro in appropriate concentration; and
(d) a source of complement, that is, fresh normal serum or the patient’s own serum if freshly obtained

89
Q

Coomb’s test result in patients with true autoantibodies as a result of α-methyldopa

A

DAT reaction is strongly positive for IgG, but complement only rarely is detected on the patient’s RBCs.

90
Q

Transfusion of RBCs in immune hemolytic anemia presents two difficulties:

A

(a) crossmatching and

(b) the short half-life of the transfused RBCs

91
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Units that are incompatible because of the presence of autoantibody are less dangerous to transfuse than units that are incompatible because of an alloantibody.

A

TRUE

Units that are incompatible because of the presence of autoantibody are less dangerous to transfuse than units that are incompatible because of an alloantibody.

92
Q
  • Glucocorticoids can cause dramatic cessation or marked slowing of hemolysis in about _________ of patients.
A

Two-thirds

93
Q

The best responses with glucocorticoids are seen in _________________.

A

Idiopathic cases or in those related to SLE

94
Q

Dose of steroids

A

Oral prednisone at an initial daily dose of 1–1.5 mg/kg

Critically ill patients with rapid hemolysis may receive: IV methylprednisolone 100–200 mg in divided doses over the first 24 hours.

High doses of prednisone may be required for 10–14 days.

95
Q

Primary site of RBC trapping

A

Spleen

96
Q

Approximately _________ of AHA patients have a partial or complete remission after splenectomy.

A

Two-thirds

97
Q

Reserved primarily for patients who do not respond to glucocorticoids or rituximab and for patients who are poor surgical risks.

A

Immunosuppressive therapy

Oral cyclophosphamide 50–100 mg daily or oral azathioprine 2–4 mg/kg given daily

**If the patient tolerates the drug, continue treatment for at least 3 months while waiting for a response.
**Treatment with either agent increases the risk of subsequent neoplasia.

OTHERS:
Mycophenolate mofetil and cyclosporin A
high-dose cyclophosphamide 50 mg/kg ideal body weight per day for 4 consecutive days intravenously with granulocyte colony-stimulating factor support

98
Q

Used to treat five patients with refractory AHA associated with CLL

A

Alemtuzumab

99
Q

Other therapies for AIHA

A

Plasma exchange or plasmapheresis- life-threatening warm IgG-mediated AHA refractory to glucocorticoids and splenectomy

Plasma-derived C1 inhibitor concentrate: severe warm IgM-mediated AHA

Rituximab and eculizumab: refractory warm IgM-mediated AHA

High-dose IV γ-globulin

Danazol

100
Q

For patients with chronic compensated hemolysis, treatment with oral folate at _________ is recommended to

A

1 mg/day

101
Q

Treatment for cold-antibody hemolytic anemia

A

Treatment directed at B lymphocytes
Rituximab
Rituximab in combination with bendamustine
Bortezomib

Complement-directed therapies
Eculizumab
Sutimlimab

102
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Most contemporary cases of paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria are self-limited.

A

TRUE

Most contemporary cases of paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria are self-limited.

Glucocorticoid therapy and splenectomy have not been useful.

103
Q

Treatment for drug-induced hemolytic anemia

A

Discontinuation of the offending drug

104
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

In patients taking α-methyldopa in the absence of hemolysis, a positive DAT result has not necessarily been an indication for stopping the drug.

A

TRUE

In patients taking α-methyldopa in the absence of hemolysis, a positive DAT result has not necessarily been an indication for stopping the drug.

105
Q

Glucocorticoids are generally unnecessary, and their efficacy is questionable except in cases of AHA provoked by _____________, in which glucocorticoids are generally effective

A

Immune checkpoint inhibitors

106
Q
A