82 Classification and Clinical Manifestations of the Clonal Myeloid Disorders Flashcards

1
Q

Refers to the relationship of the disease in question to normal cellular differentiation and maturation and the regulation of cell population homeostasis (birth and death rates)

A

Deviation

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2
Q

Clonal hematopoiesis as a result of a somatic mutation in a clone of marrow cells, but marrow and blood cells without any phenotypic evidence of a blood cell disorder, that is, normal marrow and blood cell morphology and normal blood cell counts.

A

CLONAL HEMATOPOIESIS OF INDETERMINATE POTENTIAL (CHIP)

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3
Q

A somatic mutation in which an unequivocally abnormal cytopenia is or cytopenias are present

A

Clonal cytopenia of unknown significance (CCUS)

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4
Q

Definition of cytopenias in clonal cytopenia of unknown significance (CCUS)

Hemoglobin :
Absolute neutrophil count :
Platelet count :

A

Hemoglobin : <100 g/L
Absolute neutrophil count : <1.8 × 10 9 /L
Platelet count : <100 × 10 9 /L

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5
Q

A somatically mutated clonal disorder without a phenotype but with more concerning somatic mutations

A

Clonal hematopoiesis of oncogenic potential (CHOP)

**In the case of CHOP, the mutations are disease-related or even disease-specific mutations and have a higher propensity to undergo clonal evolution to a progressive neoplasm.

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6
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

In the cases of CHIP and CHOP, the definition includes absence of evidence of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria or clonal lymphocytosis or cytologic dysmorphia.

A

TRUE

In the cases of CHIP and CHOP, the definition includes absence of evidence of paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria or clonal lymphocytosis or cytologic dysmorphia.

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7
Q

Most frequent specific gene mutations which make up about 75% of CHIP

A

DNMT3A, TET2, ASXL1, and JAK2

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8
Q

Mutations that are more frequently detected in secondary AML, following MDS or CMML

A

TET2
ASXL1

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9
Q

Associated with deletions in the long arm of chromosome 11 and with the presence of ring sideroblasts in MDS.

A

SF3B1

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10
Q

The variant allele frequency (VAF) by definition is above ____ %

A

Above 2%

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11
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Age-related clonal hematopoiesis (ARCH) is in essence a synonym for CHIP but denotes the effect of aging

A

TRUE

Age-related clonal hematopoiesis (ARCH) is in essence a synonym for CHIP but denotes the effect of aging

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12
Q

The rate of progression of CHIP to a clinically evident neoplasm is approximately 0.75% of affected persons per year, of which the majority are __________ neoplasms

A

Myeloid neoplasms

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13
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

A coexisting significant finding in patients with CHIP is a predisposition to cardiovascular morbidity and mortality.

A

TRUE

A coexisting significant finding in patients with CHIP is a predisposition to cardiovascular morbidity and mortality.

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14
Q

The vascular occurrences in CHIP may relate to the mutations of genes such as __________

A

TET2 and JAK 2

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15
Q

Defined as an idiopathic cytopenia(s) without a detectable somatic mutation.

A

Idiopathic cytopenias of undetermined significance (ICUS)

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16
Q

Diseases include one group in which late precursor apoptosis (ineffective myeloproliferation) is characteristic (the clonal cytopenias) and one group in which proliferation is exaggerated and cellular maturation approximates normal (effective myeloproliferation)

A

MODERATE-DEVIATION CLONAL MYELOID DISEASES

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17
Q

Essential characteristic of moderate-deviation clonal myeloid diseases

A

Cytopenias resulting from exaggerated apoptosis of marrow late precursors (referred to as “ineffective hematopoiesis”)

Variable dysmorphogenesis of blood cells

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18
Q

The blood cell abnormalities, characteristic of the clonal cytopenias and oligoblastic myelogenous leukemia, include abnormalities of:

A

(a) red cell size (macrocytosis, anisocytosis), shape (poikilocytosis), and cytoplasm (basophilic stippling, pathologic sideroblasts);

(b) neutrophil nuclear or organelle structure (cytoplasmic hypogranulation, nuclear hypolobulation or hyperlobulation, and condensation)

(c) platelet variation in size (megathrombocytes) and granulation (hypogranulation or abnormal granulation)

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19
Q

Blast percentage in:

AML:
MDS:

A

Blast percentage in:

AML: 20% or more
MDS:5%–20%

**The use of an arbitrary boundary of 20% blasts has no pathobiologic basis.

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20
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

In severe inflammatory states with leukemoid reactions, the marrow myeloblast percent is usually increased .

A

FALSE

In severe inflammatory states with leukemoid reactions, the marrow myeloblast percent is usually DECREASED because in this circumstance, precursor cell expansion in the myelocyte pool is far greater, such that the percent of blast cells decreases.

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20
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Three percent or 4% blast cells in the marrow at the time of presentation, after therapy, or suspected relapse should not be considered “normal” and is evidence of leukemic hematopoiesis.

A

TRUE

Three percent or 4% blast cells in the marrow at the time of presentation, after therapy, or suspected relapse should not be considered “normal” and is evidence of leukemic hematopoiesis.

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21
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Polycythemia vera and essential thrombocythemia show morphologic evidence of leukemic hematopoiesis

A

FALSE

Polycythemia vera and essential thrombocythemia DO NOT show morphologic evidence of leukemic hematopoiesis; the proportion of blast cells in the marrow is never increased above normal, and blast cells are never present in the blood.

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22
Q

Percentage of Janus kinase 2 (JAK2) gene mutation in:

PV:
ET:

A

PV: 95%
ET: 50%

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23
Q

Other mutations in ET aside from JAK2

A

Wild-type JAK2 gene
Calreticulin (CALR) gene
Myeloproliferative leukemia virus gene (MPL)

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24
Q

The most constant feature in primary myelofibrosis

A

Abundance of neoplastic, dysmorphic megakaryocyte

** The megakaryocytic abnormalities are so dominant and consistent in this disorder that it could be considered chronic megakaryocytic leukemia

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25
Q

Gene mutations in PMF

A

JAK2 gene (50%)
CALR gene
MPL mutation

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26
Q

Percentage with “triple negative” mutation in PMF

A

10%

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27
Q

Cause of fibrosis in PMF

A

Cytokines released by neoplastic (leukemic) megakaryocytes

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28
Q

Gene mutation in CML

A

translocation t(9;22) (q34;q11)(BCR-ABL1 [Abelson murine leukemia viral oncogene homologue 1])

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29
Q

Percentage of patients with CML with t(9;22) mutation

A

90%

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30
Q

Percentage of CML patients do not have the rearrangement

A

4%

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31
Q

Primary myelofibrosis terminates in acute leukemia in approximately _____% of patients.

A

15%

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32
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Therapy is required in all cases of CML and primary myelofibrosis at the time of diagnosis.

A

FALSE

Therapy is required in all cases of CML, and in most, but not all, cases of primary myelofibrosis at the time of diagnosis.

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33
Q

Gene mutation in Chronic neutrophilic leukemia

A

Colony-stimulating factor 3 receptor gene (CSF3R) 30%
CSF3R and a SET binding protein gene (SETBP1) mutation 60%
JAK2 V617F mutation 10%

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34
Q

Previous name of Chronic eosinophilic leukemia

A

Hypereosinophilic syndrome with evidence of clonal hematopoiesis involving eosinopoiesis

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35
Q

Gene mutation in Chronic eosinophilic leukemia

A

PDGFR-β gene
PDGFR-α gene (FIP1L1–PDGFR-α fusion gene)

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36
Q

Treatment for Chronic eosinophilic leukemia

A

Imatinib mesylate (or a congener)

37
Q

FIP1L1–PDGFR-α fusion gene mutation is inferred by

A

Deletion in the CHIC2 gene

**detected during FISH

38
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

A clonal myeloid syndrome that includes eosinophilia and a translocation between 8p11, at the site of the tyrosine kinase domain of the fibroblast growth factor receptor-1 (FGFR1) gene, and several different partner chromosomes, is responsive to imatinib mesylate

A

FALSE

A clonal myeloid syndrome that includes eosinophilia and a translocation between 8p11, at the site of the tyrosine kinase domain of the fibroblast growth factor receptor-1 (FGFR1) gene, and several different partner chromosomes, is NOT responsive to imatinib mesylate

39
Q

Gene mutation in Systemic mastocytosis

A

KIT gene mutation

40
Q

KIT V560G or KIT D816V

is sensitive to imatinib mesylate

A

KIT V560G

KIT V560G is sensitive to imatinib mesylate and KIT D816V is insensitive to imatinib but may be responsive to second-generation tyrosine kinase inhibitors.

41
Q

These disorders fall into a group that progresses less rapidly than acute leukemia and more rapidly than CML; have a predisposition to develop with a granulocytic and monocytic phenotype, either morphologically or cytochemically

A

SEVERE-DEVIATION CLONAL MYELOID DISEASES

Include oligoblastic myelogenous leukemia (formerly designated refractory anemia with excess blasts), chronic myelomonocytic leukemia, and juvenile myelomonocytic leukemia

42
Q

Characteristics of atypical myeloproliferative disease or atypical CML (aCML)

A

Seen in older patients (>65 years)
Low myeloblast percentage in marrow (<5%) and blood
Never have a rearrangement in the BCR gene
Not responsive to tyrosine kinase inhibitors
Have a poor prognosis (median survival of 5–20 months)

43
Q

Atypical myeloproliferative disease (aCML) has a relatively high frequency of ______ gene mutations

A

CSF3R

44
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

In AML, knowing the cytogenetic alteration is useful for estimating the probability of entering a sustained remission (risk category)

A

TRUE

In AML, knowing the cytogenetic alteration is useful for estimating the probability of entering a sustained remission (risk category)

45
Q

Cytogenetics in AML with favorable outcome; more likely to enter a prolonged remission or be cured with therapy

A

t(8;21)
t(15;17)
t(16;16)
inv(16)

46
Q

Treatment for patients with t(15;17) AML

A

All-trans-retinoic acid and arsenic trioxide

47
Q

Useful for determining subclinical (minimal) residual disease and monitoring therapy in cases in which an appropriate genetic marker is available, such as the t(8;21) or t(15;17)

A

Polymerase chain reaction

48
Q

Gene expression studies in AML are important because:

A

(a) identify genes that cooperate or interact to result in a fully malignant phenotype,
(b) provide potential new targets for therapy,
(c) help identify patients who might benefit from early hematopoietic stem cell transplantation,
(d) may be used to measure minimal residual disease, and
(e) may permit analysis of the mutational evolution from the earliest neoplastic cell without malignant potential to cells with additional mutations capable of developing lethal clones

49
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Currently, prognostic group stratification of AML has value, principally in assessing the utility of using allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation as an early therapy.

A

TRUE

Currently, prognostic group stratification of AML has value, principally in assessing the utility of using allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation as an early therapy.

49
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Currently, prognostic group stratification of AML has value, principally in assessing the utility of using allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation as an early therapy.

A

TRUE

Currently, prognostic group stratification of AML has value, principally in assessing the utility of using allogeneic hematopoietic stem cell transplantation as an early therapy.

50
Q

Likelihood of clonal myeloid disases progressing to florid (polyblastic) AML (a very-severe-deviation neoplasm)

PNH:
Clonal anemia:
Clonal bi- or tricytopenia:
Oligoblastic myelogenous leukemia:
ET:
PV:
PMF:

A

PNH: less than 1%
Clonal anemia: 10%
Clonal bi- or tricytopenia: 35%
Oligoblastic myelogenous leukemia: 66%
ET: 5% (rises to 10% over 25 years)
PV: 12%
PMF: 20%

51
Q

Likelihood of polycythemia vera evolving to a syndrome indistinguishable from primary myelofibrosis

A

15%

52
Q

Term used for exposures that result in the development of AML, presumably without a preexisting predisposing mutation, such as exposure to chemotherapy or radiation therapy

A

Secondary AML

53
Q

Term used for AML that results from clonal evolution of a less advanced neoplasm (eg, CHIP, CHOP, CCUS, MDS, CMML, CNL, or a MPN)

A

ceAML (clonal evolution to AML)

54
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

A severe block in maturation is characteristic of AML, whereas a high proportion of leukemic primitive multipotential cells mature into terminally differentiated cells of all lineages in patients with CML.

A

TRUE

A severe block in maturation is characteristic of AML, whereas a high proportion of leukemic primitive multipotential cells mature into terminally differentiated cells of all lineages in patients with CML.

55
Q

AML associated with tissue infiltration, including into the CNS

A

Monocytic leukemia

56
Q

AML associated with disseminated intravascular coagulation, fibrinolysis, and hemorrhage

A

Promyelocytic leukemia

*Monocytic leukemia (to lesser extent)

57
Q

AML associated with hepatosplenomegaly

A

Eosinophilic leukemia

58
Q

AML associated with mediator-release syndromes

A

Basophilic or mast-cell leukemia

59
Q

AML associated with predisposition to myeloid sarcomas

A

AML with t[8;21] or inv[16] cytogenetic abnormalities

60
Q

AML associated with intense marrow fibrosis

A

Megakaryocytic leukemia

61
Q

Identification of markers unique for erythroid cells

A

CD 71

62
Q

Identification of markers unique for megakaryocytic cells

A

CD41, CD42, or CD61

63
Q

Gene mutation in Paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria

A

PIG-A gene on the active X chromosome

**The mutation causes a highly specific alteration in blood cell membranes, a deficiency in the glycosylphosphatidylinositol anchor, with decreased cell-surface CD59, rendering the blood cells exquisitely sensitive to complement lysis.

64
Q

Discrete tumors of leukemic cells that form in skin and soft tissues, breast, periosteum and bone, lymph nodes, mediastinum, lung, pleura, gastrointestinal tract, gonads, urinary tract, uterus, central nervous system, and virtually any other site

A

Myeloid (granulocytic) sarcomas (also called chloromas or myeloblastomas)

65
Q

One of four histopathologic patterns usually is evident by immunocytochemistry in Myeloid (granulocytic) sarcomas

A

Myeloblastic, monoblastic, myelomonoblastic, or megakaryoblastic

66
Q

AML with these cytogenetics has a predisposition to form myeloid sarcomas

A

t(8;21) and inv(16)

67
Q

Patients with this type of AML has more diffuse collections of leukemic promonocytes or monoblasts can invade the skin, gingiva, anal canal, lymph nodes, CNS, or other tissues

A

Monocytic subtype

68
Q

AML with features of microvascular thrombosis

A

Acute promyelocytic
Acute monocytic
Acute myelomonocytic leukemia

69
Q

A very rare presenting feature or complication of leukemia but has occurred in the setting of hyperleukocytosis and as a presenting feature of acute promyelocytic leukemia.

A

Large-vessel arterial thrombosis

70
Q

Proportion of patients with AML and CML that manifest extraordinarily high blood leukocyte counts.

A

AML (5%–15%)
CML (10%–20%)

71
Q

Hyperleukocytic Syndromes occur when counts are greater than:

AML: _____________
CML: ______________

A

AML:100 × 109/L
CML:300 × 109/L

72
Q

In AML with hyperleukocytosis, _________________ and _________________ are the most serious manifestations in predicting early death

A

Intracerebral hemorrhage and the impairment of pulmonary function

73
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

In CML, there is a very close negative correlation of hematocrit with leukocrit, preventing an increase in bulk viscosity.

A

TRUE

In CML, there is a very close negative correlation of hematocrit with leukocrit, preventing an increase in bulk viscosity.

74
Q

Initial management of hyperleukocytosis

A

Hydration, leukapheresis, and/or cytotoxic therapy

75
Q

A consequence of rapid cell lysis, usually as a result of cytotoxic therapy, and the resultant release of potentially toxic intracellular contents, resulting in hyperuricemia, hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hypocalcemia

A

Tumor Lysis Syndrome

76
Q

It has been proposed that the risk of tumor lysis syndrome can be predicted most accurately by the ______________ level

A

Serum uric acid

77
Q

Another marker of high tumor burden

A

Serum lactic dehydrogenase

78
Q

The major vascular manifestations of thrombocythemia.

A

Arterial vascular insufficiency and venous thromboses

79
Q

Patients with essential thrombocythemia who have the _________ mutation have a significantly lower risk of thrombotic disease

A

CALR mutation

80
Q

Thrombotic complications occur in approximately _____% of patients with polycythemia vera.

A

40%

81
Q

Erythrocytosis and thrombocytosis may interact and cause hypercoagulability, especially in the _________________ circulation.

A

Abdominal venous circulation

82
Q

Nearly ____________ of patients with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria have thrombosis, especially in the venous system.

A

Half

83
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Thrombosis is more common in patients with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria–aplastic anemia hybrid than in those with the paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria with the classical hemolytic syndrome

A

FALSE

Thrombosis is more common in patients with paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria with the classical hemolytic syndrome than in those with the paroxysmal nocturnal hemoglobinuria–aplastic anemia hybrid

84
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Fever during cytotoxic therapy, when neutrophil counts are extremely low, is nearly always a sign of infection

A

TRUE

Fever during cytotoxic therapy, when neutrophil counts are extremely low, is nearly always a sign of infection

85
Q

Acid–base disturbances occur in approximately 25% of patients, the majority having _______________.

A

Respiratory or metabolic alkalosis

86
Q

FACTITIOUS LABORATORY RESULTS in leukemia

A

High K
Low glucose
Low arterial blood oxygen

87
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

In AML, palpable splenomegaly is present in approximately one-third of cases, but usually is slight in extent.

A

TRUE

In AML, palpable splenomegaly is present in approximately one-third of cases, but usually is slight in extent.

88
Q

Percentage of splenomegaly in MPNs:

PV:
CML:
PMF:
ET:

A

PV: 80%
CML: 90%
PMF: 100%
ET: 30%

89
Q

TRUE OR FALSE

Extensive marrow necrosis, an uncommon event, can occur in any clonal myeloid disease, especially AML, and less often, primary myelofibrosis, CML, essential thrombocythemia, and polycythemia vera.

A

TRUE

Extensive marrow necrosis, an uncommon event, can occur in any clonal myeloid disease, especially AML, and less often, primary myelofibrosis, CML, essential thrombocythemia, and polycythemia vera.

90
Q

Most common finding in marrow necrosis

A

Bone pain and fever