Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

MS3 > Peds 11 > Flashcards

Peds 11 Flashcards

1
Q

What are names of inhaled glucocorticoids used for asthma

A

Budesonide, Fluticasone, Beclomethasone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are names of systemic glucocorticoids used for asthms

A

Oral prednisone/prednisolone or dexamethasone

IV methylprednisolone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Describe clinical presentation of HUS

A

♣ Findings (triad):
• Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia
• Renal insufficiency (thrombi involve vessels of the kidney)
• Thrombocytopenia

Often preceded by diarrhea (caused by E. Coli or Shigella)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe pathogenesis of thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura (TTP)

A

♣ Platelets used up in pathologic formation of microthrombi in small vessels
♣ Due to decreased ADAMTS13, enzyme that normally cleaves vWF for degradation
• No vWF degradation = abnormal platelet adhesion = microthrombi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Describe clinical presentation of TTP

A

♣ Findings (Pentad):
• Thrombocytopenia = platelets being used up
• Microangiopathic hemolytic anemia = RBCs sheared by microthrombi
• Renal insufficiency (thrombi involve vessels of the kidney)
• Neurological symptoms (confusion, HA, seizures, coma) – thrombi involve vessels of CNS
• Fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe pathogenesis of immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

A

♣ IgG autoantibodies to GP2b3a

♣ Antibodies produced by plasma cells of spleen and antibody-bound platelets consumed by macrophages of spleen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Clinical presentation of ITP

A
  • Decreased platelet count
  • Increased megakaryocytes on bone marrow biopsy

♣ Often triggered by preceding viral illness
o WBC and hemoglobin levels will be normal (unless excessive bleeding has occurred) because bone marrow infiltration does not occur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Tx of ITP

A
  • Usually a self-limited disease
  • Steroids and IVIG (autoimmune treatment)
  • Platelet transfusion for life-threatening bleeding
  • Splenectomy for serious complications without response to other therapies
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What platelet count is considered thrombocytopenia

A

< 150,000 (nl = 150-400)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a normal WBC

A

4,500-11,000

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Describe presentation of Henoch Schonlein purpura

A 
o	Most common vasculitis in children
o	Follows URI infections
o	Findings:
♣	Palpable purpura on butt and legs
♣	Arthralgias
♣	Abdominal pain
♣	Renal disease – IgA nephropathy (IgA immune complexes deposited in mesangium) aka Berger disease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Treatment of Henoch Scholnein purpura

A

♣ Disease is self-limited

♣ Steroids if severe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Necessary testing/tx of Kawasaki

A

♣ Echocardiography to identify coronary artery abnormalities, pericarditis, CHF, and valvular regurgitation
♣ Aspirin (to prevent thrombosis of coronary arteries)
♣ IVIG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Diagnostic criteria for Kawasaki

A

♣ Fever lasting > 5 days with at least 4 out of five of the following:
• Bilateral bulbar conjunctival injection
• Oral mucous membrane changes, including injected or fissured lips, injected pharynx, or strawberry tongue
• Peripheral extremity changes, including erythema or palms or soles, edema of hands or feet, and periungual desquamation
• Polymorphous rash
• Cervical lymphadenopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Describe presentation of Scarlet fever

A

o 3 main symptoms
♣ 1) redness and swelling of tongue (strawberry tongue)
♣ 2) pharyngitis
♣ 3) widespread rash that spares the face
• Rash has a “sandpaper” texture with accentuation in flexural creases known as Pastia lines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Diseases caused by H. Flu

A
  • pneumonia
  • epiglottitis
  • otitis media
  • meningitis
  • sepsis
  • septic arthritis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Two general names of diseases caused by Legionella

A

Pontiac fever and Legionnaire’s disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Describe presentation of Pontiac disease

A

fever and malaise - usually self-limiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Describe presentation of Legionnaire’s disease

A 
Atypical pneumonia 
Unique characteristics:
- hyponatremia
- neuro sx (HA and confusion)
- diarrhea
- high fever
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Tx of Legionairre disease

A

Macrolides, Fluoroquinolones

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Describe clinical findings of Henoch Schonlein purpura

A 
♣	Palpable purpura on butt and legs
♣	Arthralgias
♣	Abdominal pain	
•	Intussusception is most common GI complication – intestinal edema and bleeding can act as a lead point
Renal disease – IgA nephropathy
22
Q

Tx of Henoch Schonlein

A

♣ Disease is self-limited

♣ Steroids if severe

23
Q

Presentation and tx of Reye syndrome

A

o Clinical features
♣ Acute liver failure
♣ Enceophalopathy

o Treatment
♣ Supportive

24
Q

Describe difference in CSF between bacterial and viral meningitis

A

o Bacterial meningitis
♣ WBC: > 1000
♣ Glucose: <40
♣ Protein: >250

o Viral meningitis
♣ WBC: 100-1000
♣ Glucose: 40-70
♣ Protein: >250

25
Q

Describe CSF of TB

A

o Tuberculosis meningitis
♣ WBC: 5-1000
♣ Glucose: <10
♣ Protein: >250

26
Q

Describe CSF of Guillan Barre

A

o Guillain-Barre
♣ WBC: 0-5
♣ Glucose: 40-70
Protein: 45-1000

27
Q

Diagnose: 15 y/o male presenting with ataxia, dyarthria, and scoliosis

A

Friedreich ataxia

28
Q

What is the most common cause of death in Friedriech ataxia

A

Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

29
Q

Diagnosis: progressive hip pain in a sickle cell patient

A

Avascular necrosis due to red blood sickling

30
Q

What type of liver damage is seen in Reye syndorme

A

Microvascular steatosis

31
Q

What bug causes perianal itching with positive tape test

A

Enterobius vermicularis (aka pinworm)

32
Q

Tx of pinworm

A

Albendazole or Pyrantel pamote

33
Q

Describe the etiology of SCID

A

o Defect in early stem cell differentiation
♣ Gene defect leading to failure of T cell development
♣ B cell dysfunction due to absent T cells

34
Q

Presentation of SCID

A

♣ Failure to thrive
♣ Chronic diarrhea
♣ Recurrent infections
♣ Absence of thymic shadow

35
Q

Tx of SCID

A

Stem cell transplant

36
Q

What are the causes of microcytic anemia

A 
♣	Iron deficiency
♣	Anemia of chronic disease (late)
♣	Thalassemia
♣	Lead poisoning
♣	Sideroblastic anemia
37
Q

Describe clinical features of necrotizing enterocolitis

A

♣ Systemic: Vital sign instability, lethargy

♣ GI: Vomiting, bloody stools, abd distension/tenderness

38
Q

X-ray findings of nec enterocolitis

A

♣ Pneumatosis intestinalis
♣ Portal venous gas
♣ Pneumoperitoneum

39
Q

Tx of nec enterocolitis

A

• Bowel rest
• Paraenteral hydration/nutrition
♣ Broad spectrum IV abx
♣ +/- surgery

40
Q

Describe cause and presentation of laryngomalacia

A

o Pathophysiology
♣ Caused by “floppy” supraglottic structures that collapse during inspiration
o Clinical presentation
♣ Inspiratory stridor worsens when supine
♣ Peaks at age 4-8 months

41
Q

Diagnosis and management of laryngomalacia

A

o Diagnosis
♣ Usually clinical
♣ Confirmation by flexible laryngoscopy for moderate/severe cases

o Management
♣ Reassurance for most cases
Supraglottoplasty for severe symptoms.

42
Q

Preferred imaging modality of midgut volvulus

A

Upper GI series

43
Q

Diagnose: long limbs, gynecomastia, low IQ

A

Klinefelter

44
Q

Tx of DKA

A
  1. IV fluids + Potassium
  2. Insulin
  3. Add dextrose to IV fluids once serum glucose reaches 250-300
45
Q

What will you see on bone age in GH deficiency vs familial short stature

A

GH def: Bone ages are delayed, indicating catch-up growth potential

Familial short stature: Bone age equals chronological age, indicating no “extra” growth potential

46
Q

Tests used to diagnose GH deficiency

A
  • GH level is of little value because secretion is pulsatile and always chagneing
  • Screening tests include: IGF-1 (insulin-like growth factor)
  • Confirmation often requires GH stimulation testing
47
Q

Describe the cause of Central precocious puberty

A

o Gonadotropin dependent

o Hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal activation leading to secondary sex characteristics

48
Q

Describe the cause of Noncentral precocious puberty

A

o Gonadotropin independent
o No hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal activation
o Hormones usually are either exogenous (birth control pills, estrogen, testosterone cream) or from adrenal/ovarian tumors

49
Q

What is premature thelarche

A

♣ Early breast development (typically in girls ages 1-4 years)
♣ No pubic/axillary hair development or linear growth acceleration

50
Q

What is premature adrenarche

A

Early activation of adrenal androgens (typically in girls ages 6-8 years), with gradually increasing pubic/axillary hair development and body odor

51
Q

Causes of premature thelarchy

A

♣ Causes include ovarian cysts and transient gonadotropin secretion

52
Q

Tx of premature thelarchy

A

No tx necessary

MS3 (88 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions