Internal Med 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Initial med choices for treatment of HTN

A
  • Thiazide diuretics
  • CCB
  • ACEi
  • ARBs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What are the components of CHADSVASc and what is it used for

A
o	C = CHF or LVEF = 40%
o	H = HTN
o	A = Age >/= 75
o	D = DM
o	S = Stroke/TIA/Thromboembolism
o	V = Vascular disease
o	A = Age 65-74
o	S = Sex (female)

Risk of stroke for patients with A-fib / used to determine need for anticoagulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is Trousseu syndrome - presentation and association?

A

• Trousseau syndrome is a hypercoagulable disorder that usually presents with unexplained, recurrent, and migratory superficial venous thrombosis at unusual sites (e.g. arm, chest ares)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Describe sx of Lupus

A

♣ R – Rash (malar or discoid)
♣ A – Arthritis (non-erosive, 2 joints)
♣ S – Serositis (e.g. pleuritic, pericarditis)
♣ H – Hematologic disorders (hemolytic anemia, leukopenia, lymphopenia, thrombocytopenia)
♣ O – Oral/nasopharyngeal ulcers (painless)
♣ R – Renal disease (diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis or membranous glomerulonephritis)
♣ P – Photosensitivity
♣ A – Antinuclear antibodies (+ANA)
♣ I – Immunologic disorder (anti-dsDNA, anti-Smith, anti-histone, or anti-phospholipid/anti-cardiolipin)
♣ N – Neurologic disorders (seizures, psychosis)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Mechanism of SLE

A

o Damage due to antibody-antigen complex deposition = Type III HSR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Describe aortic stenosis murmur

A

Crescendo/decrescendo systolic murmur

Ejection click may be present - when aortic valve opens, slightly later that mitral valve closing

Radiates to carotids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Describe murmur of mitral regurg

A

Holosystolic, “blowing” murmur

Radiates to L axilla

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Describe murmur of aortic regurg

A

Early diastolic decrescendo murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Describe murmur of mitral stenosis

A

Opening snap, followed by rumbling mid-to-late diastolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Describe murmur of mitral valve prolapse

A

Mid-systolic click, followed by systolic murmur

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Maximum dose of acetaminophen for a day

A

4 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Why are beta-blockers used in the treatment of acute myocardial infarction

A

♣ Slows down the heart, thus reducing oxygen demand and increasing diastolic filling time to improve coronary blood flow
♣ Will reduce infarct size and decrease mortality

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is the MOA of beta blockers in treating HTN

A
  • Decrease cardiac output – due to ionotropic and chronotropic effects
  • Depression of RAAS system (recall the rain open umbrella) – antagonize beta-1 receptors at JGA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is Ludwig angina

A

o Rapidly progressive cellulitis of the submandibular space
o Clinical manifestations
♣ Fever, chills, malaise
♣ Mouth/neck pain, swollen area on floor of mouth
♣ Drooling, dysphagia, muffled voice, airway compromise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What is the pathogenesis of systemic sclerosis

A

♣ Progressive tissue fibrosis

♣ Vascular dysfunction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Clinical features of systemic sclerosis

A

♣ Systemic: fatigue, weakness
♣ Skin: Telangiectasia, sclerodactyly, digital ulcers, calcinosis cutis
♣ Extremities: Arthralgias, contractures, myalgias
♣ GI: Esophageal dysmotility, dysphagia, dyspepsia
• Esophageal manometry typically shows hypomotility and incompetence of lower esophageal sphincter
♣ Vascular: Raynoud phenomenon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What should you be careful of when treating a pt with ARDS

A

Do not want to over-distend alveoli, so want to use LOW TIDAL VOLUME ventilation

18
Q

What are some causes of acute increase in LFT’s to the 1000’s (e.g. AST = 6,000)

A
  • Shock liver
  • Infectious causes
  • Toxicity (e.g. drugs)
  • Portal venous thrombosis
19
Q

Treatment of aspiration pneumonitis

A
  • Lung parenchyma inflammation (not infection)
  • Aspiration of gastric acid with direct tissue injury

Tx = supportive (no abx)

20
Q

Signs and sx of spinal cord compression

A

♣ Gradually worsening, severe local back pain
♣ Pain worse in recumbent position/at night
♣ Early signs: symmetric lower extremity weakness, hypoactive/absent DTR
♣ Late signs: bilateral babinksi reflex, decreased rectal sphincter tone, parapesis/paraplegia with increased DTR, sensory loss

21
Q

Management of spinal cord compression

A

♣ Emergency MRI
♣ IV glucocorticoids
♣ Radiation-oncology & neurosurgery consultation

22
Q

Describe Factor V Leiden

A

♣ Mutation that makes Factor Va resistant to inactivation by protein C
♣ Increased coagulation

23
Q

What are the clinical features of hemophilia

A

• Delayed/prolonged bleeding after mild trauma
o Hemarthrosis, intramuscular hematomas
o GI or GU tract bleeing
o Intracranial hemorrhage

24
Q

Abnormal lab values in hemophilia

A
  • Deficiency of factor VIII

* Increases PTT (no effect on PT or INR)

25
Q

Treatment of Hemophilia A

A

Factor 8 replacement or Desmopressin:
♣ Increases circulating factor VIII
♣ Stimulates vWF secretion from endothelial cells

26
Q

Inheritance pattern of Hemophilia A

A

X-linked recessive

More likely in males

27
Q

Inheritance pattern of VonWillbrand disease

A

Autosomal dominant

28
Q

Presentation of vWB disease

A

Prolonged mucosal bleeding (oropharyngeal, GI, uterine)

Less likely to see bleeding into deep tissues

29
Q

Abnormal lab values in vWB disease

A

♣ Increased bleeding time – decreased platelet adhesion

♣ Increased PTT – vWF normally stabilizes Factor VIII

30
Q

Treatment of vWB disease

A

♣ Desmopressin – increases vWF release from Weibel-Palade bodies of endothelial cells

31
Q

What androgen is produced by adrenal glands but not testes/ovaries

A

DHEAS (dihydroepiandrosterone sulfate)

32
Q

Major side effect of erectile dysfunction drugs

A

E.g. Sildenafil (phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor, PDE-5 inhibitor)

Hypotension due to vasodilatory effect

33
Q

Name penicillins that cover:

  • Gram + cocci
  • Gram neg
  • Anaerobes
  • Resistant gram neg / pseudomonas
A
  • Gram pos = Pen G and C
  • Gram neg = Amox/Amp
  • Anaerobes = Amox/Clav (Augmentin), or Amp/Sul (Unasyn)
  • Resistant GNR/pseudomonas = Piperacillin/Tazobactam
34
Q

Name Cephalosporins that cover:

  • Gram + cocci
  • Gram neg
  • Anaerobes
  • Resistant gram neg / pseudomonas
A
  • Gram + cocci = 1st gen (Cefelexin/Cefazdin)
  • Gram neg = 3rd gen (Cefdinir/CTX)
  • Anaerobes = none
  • Resistant gram neg / pseudomonas = 4th gen (Cefepime)
35
Q

Name penems that cover:

  • Gram + cocci
  • Gram neg
  • Anaerobes
  • Resistant gram neg / pseudomonas
A
  • GPC, GNR, and Anaerobes = all of them (Ertapenem, Imipenem, and Meropenem)
  • Pseudomonas / resistant GNR = Imi and Mero (not Erta)
36
Q

Name fluoroquionolones that cover:

  • Gram + cocci
  • Gram neg
  • Anaerobes
  • Resistant gram neg / pseudomonas
A
  • GPC and GNR = Levofloxacin, Ciprofloxacin, and Moxifloxacin
  • Anaerobes = none of them
  • Resistant gram neg / pseudomonas = Levofloxacin
37
Q

What would be good drug choices to treat anaerobes

A
  • Amox/Clav
  • Amp/Sul
  • Pip/Tazo
  • Metronidazole
  • Clindamyacin
38
Q

What would be good drug choices to treat resistant GNR/Pseudomonas

A
  • Pip/tazo
  • Cefepime
  • Imipenem
  • Meropenem
  • Levofloxacin
39
Q

What would be good drug choices to treat Resistant GPC (MRSA)

A
  • Vancomycin
  • Linezolid
  • Daptomycin
  • TMP/SMX
  • Doxycyline
  • Clindamycin
40
Q

What would be good drug choices to treat atypicals

A
  • Azithromycin

- Doxy