jan 18 Flashcards

1
Q

which type of lung cancer is assocaited with increased PTHrP?

A

squamous cell carcinoma of the lung

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2
Q

which enzyme is reduced in acute intermittent porphyria?

A

porphobilinogen deaminase

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3
Q

inheritance of AIP?

A

AD with low penetrance

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4
Q

manifestations of AIP?

A
  • abdominal pain
  • peripheral neuropathy mostly in upper extremities
  • autonomic dysfunction
  • neuropsychiatric dysfunction
  • red-tinged urine that oxidizes with light/air exposure
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5
Q

what are some exacerbating factors of AIP?

A
  • Medications (CYP450 inducers)
  • Psychological stress
  • Alcohol, tobacco
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6
Q

lab findings in AIP?

A
  • elevated serum & urinary PBG, ALA, porphryns

- hyponatremia, elevated transaminases

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7
Q

management of AIP?

A

glucose and hemin

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8
Q

why does hyponatremia occur in an AIP attack?

A

from SIADH

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9
Q

path of alport syndrome?

A

mutation of type IV collagen

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10
Q

clinical findings of alport syndrome?

A
  • nephropathy - hematuria, progressive renal insufficiency, proteinuria, hypertension
  • bilateral sensineural hearing loss
  • anterior lenticonus
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11
Q

renal biopsy findings of alport syndrome?

A

longitudinal splitting of GBM

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12
Q

inheritance of alport syndrome

A

X-linked

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13
Q

treatment of RSV bronchiolitis?

A

-supportive care

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14
Q

which infants with RSV bronchiolitis require palivuzimab?

A
  • <29 weeks gestation
  • chronic lung disease of prematurity
  • significant congenital heart diseaes
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15
Q

diagnosis of ALL?

A

bone marrow biopsy

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16
Q

which muscles does the suprascapular nerve supply?

A

supraspinatous and infraspinatous

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17
Q

presentation of suprascapular nerve injury?

A

pain

-weakness on abduction adn external rotation of shoulder

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18
Q

most common cause of lobar intracranial hemorrhage?

A

cerebral amyloid angiopathy

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19
Q

what causes bacillary angiomatosis?

A

Bartonella- gram - bacillus

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20
Q

treatment of bacillary angiomatosis?

A

oral erythromycin

21
Q

which cancer is associated with 9:22 translocation?

A

chronic myeloid leukemia

22
Q

path of idiopathic transverse myelitis?

A
  • immune mediated destruction of spinal cord

- often post-infectious (molecular mimicry)

23
Q

idiopathic transverse myolitis often follows…

A

an infection

24
Q

diagnosis of idiopathic transverse myelitis?

A

MRI: no compression lesion - T2 hyperintensity
LP: increased WBCs, increased IgG

25
Q

treatment of idiopathic transverse myelitis?

A
  • high dose IV glucocorticoids

- plasmapheresis

26
Q

what aortic valve area measurement indicates severe aortic stenosis?

A

<1cm

27
Q

treatment of bartonella angiomatosis?

A

-doxycycline or erythromycin

28
Q

Management of uncomplicated spontaneous pneumomediastinum?

A
  • rest
  • analgesics
  • avoidance of valsava maneuvers
29
Q

adverse effect of hydroxychloroquine?

A

retinopathy

30
Q

treatment of juvenile idiopathic arthritis?

A

NSAIDS

31
Q

Management of EHEC?

A

supportive

32
Q

presentation of carbon monoxide poisoning?

A

-headache, confusion, malaise, dizziness, nausea

Severe: seizure, syncope, coma, MI, arythmias

33
Q

renal complications of long term analgesic use?

A
  • chronic tubulointerstitial nephritis

- hematuria due to papillary necrosis

34
Q

patients with hypothyroid are at increased risk for which bone disorder?

A

slipped capital femoral epiphysis

35
Q

treatment of slipped capital femoral epiphysis?

A

surgical screw fixation

36
Q

Dementia with executive function loss and neurologic findings is likely…

A

vascular dementia

37
Q

hep B is a risk factor for which nephrotic syndrome?

A

membranous nephropathy

38
Q

which medication can be given to children with enuresis?

A

desmopressin

39
Q

what will nerve conduction studies show with GBS?

A

evidence of demyelinization (decreased motor nerve conductance)

40
Q

is sensation effected in GBS?

A

no - although parasthesias may be present

41
Q

CSF findings of GBS?

A

increased protein, normal leukocytes

42
Q

presentation of ethylene glycol poisoning?

A
  • flank pain
  • hematuria, oliguria
  • CN palsies, tetany
43
Q

lab findings in ethylene glycol poisoning?

A
  • high osmolar gap
  • high anion gap metabolic acidosis
  • calcium oxalate crystals in urine
44
Q

treatment of ethylene glycol poisoning?

A

fomepizole

45
Q

presentation of methanol ingestion?

A
  • blurred vision
  • central scotoma
  • affarent pupillary defect
  • altered mentation
46
Q

what causes a dermatofibroma?

A

benign fibroblast proliferation that may occur after trauma or insect bites

47
Q

appearance of a dermatofibroma?

A

discrete, firm, hyperpigmented nodules <1cm in diameter

-may have dimpling when pinched

48
Q

where in the brain do neoplastic cells commonly lodge?

A

at the grey-white matter junction