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From Flashcardlet > anesthesia ch. 3, 8-10 > Flashcards

anesthesia ch. 3, 8-10 Flashcards

0
Q

T/F

Most preanesthetics will not cross the placental barrier.

A

False

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1
Q

A neuroleptanalgesic is a combination of:

A

An opioid and a tranquilizer

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2
Q

T/F

It is recommended that atropine not be given to an animal that has tachycardia.

A

True

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3
Q

Anticholinergic drugs such as atropine block the release of acetylcholine at the:

A

Muscarinic receptors of the parasympathetic system

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4
Q

T/F

Hugh doses of opioids can cause bradycardia and respiratory depression.

A

True

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5
Q

Severe bradycardia caused by dexmedetomidine is best treated with the following drug:

A

Atipamezole

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6
Q

Opioids may be reversed with:

A

Naloxone

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7
Q

Which of the following drugs will precipitate out when mixed with other drugs or solutions?

A

Diazepam

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8
Q

Etomidate is particularly well suited for induction of dogs with which of the following problems?

A

Severe cardiac disease

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9
Q

Which if the following is an example of a dissociative anesthetic?

A

Ketamine hydrochloride

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10
Q

T/F
One of the disadvantages of the drug methohexital is that animals that are anesthetized with it may demonstrate excitement during recovery.

A

True

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11
Q

Compared with methoxyflurane, isoflurane is considered to have a:

A

Higher vapor pressure

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12
Q

An anesthetic agent that has a low blood-gas partition coefficient will result in _________ induction and recovery time.

A

Fast

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13
Q

Which of the following has the lowest blood-gas partition coefficient?

A

Sevoflurane

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14
Q

As a rough guideline, to safely maintain a surgical plane of anesthesia, the vaporizer should be set at about:

A

1.5 X MAC

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15
Q

Propofol sometimes causes transient apnea. To avoid this, the anesthetist should:

A

Titrate this drug in several blouses

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16
Q

One problem frequently associated with recovery from the tiletamine-zolazepam in dogs is:

A

Excitement

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17
Q 
The concentration of barbiturate entering the brain is affected by a variety of factors such as:
A- perfusion of the brain
B- lipid solubility of the drug
C- plasma protein levels
D- blood pH
A

A, B, C, D

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18
Q 
Effects that are commonly seen after administration of a dissociative include:
A- increased blood pressure
B- increased heart rate
C- increased CSF pressure
D- increased intraocular pressure
A

A, B, C, D

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19
Q

Adverse effects common with isoflurane include:

A

Depression of respiration

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20
Q 
MAC will vary with:
A- body temperature of the patient
B- age if the patient
C- concurrent use of other drugs
D- anesthetic agent
A

A, B, C, D

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21
Q

factors that may affect the speed of anesthetic induction with a volatile gaseous anesthetic include:

A

Partition coefficient of the agent

Vaporizer setting

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22
Q

Which of the following are alpha2-agonists?

A

Xylazine

Dexmedetomidine

23
Q

Effects that atropine may have on the body include:

A

Decreased salivation
Decreased gastrointestinal motility
Mydriasis

24
Q

Characteristic effects of the benzodiazepines include:

A

Muscle relaxation

Minimal effect on cardiovascular system

25
Q

Consider the following scenario: you are performing a procedure on a canine patient that you feel is at an appropriate anesthetic depth. Which of the following settings would be most appropriate if using sevoflurane in this patient?

A

3.5%

26
Q

Which of the following statements about how to induce anesthesia in a young healthy patient using an IV agent such as thiopental or Propofol is least accurate?

A

If, after the initial amount, the patient is not adequately anesthetized to allow intubation, give the rest of the calculated dose

27
Q

Which of the following statements regarding IV induction agents is least accurate?

A

Thiopental sodium is generally given intravenously but can be given intramuscularly in uncooperative patients

28
Q

Which of the following barbiturates can be used to maintain anesthesia without prolonging recovery?

A

Methohexital

29
Q

Which of the following statements about thiopental sodium is least accurate?

A

It commonly induces seizures during recovery

30
Q

Which if the following statements concerning endotracheal intubation is false?

A

Choosing a tube that is too short may cause increased mechanical dead space

31
Q

Which of the following is an indicator that the endotracheal tube has been placed in the esophagus instead of the trachea?

A

The unidirectional valves don’t move

32
Q

The term atelectasis refers to:

A

Collapsed alveoli

33
Q

After an anesthetic procedure, when is it best to extubate a dog?

A

When the animal begins to swallow

34
Q

Hypostatic congestion may be present at the end of the anesthetic protocol. This term refers to the:

A

Pooling of blood in the dependent lung

35
Q

Which of the following protocols would result in the fastest induction time and the best control over anesthetic depth?

A

IV induction with an ultra-short-acting agent, and maintenance with an inhalant

36
Q

Mask inductions in small animal patients are:

A

Possible only with use of inhalant agents with a low solubility coefficient

37
Q

Which of the following techniques are used most often in most general small animal practices?

A

General anesthesia and sedation

38
Q

An 18-kg adult dog of normal conformation would likely require a _________ endotracheal tube.

A

9-9.5 mm

39
Q

An endotracheal tube is used to:
A- decrease dead space
B- maintain a patent airway
C- protect the patient from aspiration of vomitus
D- allow the anesthetist to ventilate the patient

A

A, B, C, D

40
Q

Problems associated with endotracheal intubation include:

A

Pressure necrosis of the tracheal mucosa
Intubation of a bronchus
Spread of infectious disease

41
Q

During anesthetic maintenance:

A

The patient should be supported as it loses consciousness
If a patient has one diseased lung, it should be positioned with the diseased side down
The anesthetist should avoid any more than a 15-degree elevation of the rear quarters

42
Q

The length of the anesthetic recovery period may be influenced by:
A- body temperature
B- patient condition
C- the length of time the patient was under
D- the breed of the patient

A

A, B, C, D

43
Q

Which of the following is/are not a normal sign(s) of recovery?

A

Seizures

44
Q

Which of the following actions is appropriate during anesthetic recovery?
A- administer oxygen at a high flow rate for 5 minutes after discontinuation of the anesthetic or until extubation
B- leave the cage door open so you can monitor the patient from across the room
C- turn the patient about every 10 to 15 minutes
D- use warming methods to increase the body temperature

A

A, C, D

45
Q

Comparing the sensitivity of cattle, horses, and swine to xylazine, which of the following is true?

A

Cattle are more sensitive than horses, which are more sensitive than swine

46
Q

T/F

An anticholinergics is an essential component of premedication in ruminants.

A

False

47
Q

“Double drip” contains which two drugs?

A

Guaifenesin and ketamine

48
Q

You plan to anesthetize a 1000-kg bull and maintain anesthesia using an inhalant technique. Which of the following state,nets regarding intubation is correct?

A

You will have to manually incubate the bull

49
Q

T/F

It is common for anesthetized ruminants to hypoventilate.

A

True

50
Q

Positioning the head of an anesthetized ruminant with the pharynx higher than the mouth helps to prevent:

A

Aspiration

51
Q

Ruminants should be placed in sternal recumbency during recovery to allow them to:

A

Eructation

52
Q

Intubation is made easier in pigs by:

A

The use of a stylet the

53
Q

Which of the following statements regarding porcine anesthesia is true?

A

Intravenous sedation is virtually impossible in healthy pigs

54
Q

Which of the following is not a sign of porcine stress syndrome?

A

Hypothermia

From Flashcardlet (28 decks)

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