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APK Enhancement 1 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. If the supraspinatus, infraspinatus, and posterior deltoid are affected, what action is diminished if not totally absent?

a ER
b. IR
c. Abduction
d. Adduction

A

A or B?

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2
Q
  1. The largest pressure drop in the circulatory system, moving away from the heart, occurs along the

a arterioles
b. veins
C. veules
d. aorrta

A
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3
Q
  1. First thing to happen in neural synapse knob

a. Ca influx
b. Sa influx
c. Ach receptor binding
d. Ach reuptake

A
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4
Q

4 True about posterior longitudinal ligament:

a. It is absent in lumbar region
b. It is narrowed in lumbar region
c. It is absent in thoracic region
d. It is narrowed in thoracic region

A
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5
Q
  1. An occupational therapist treats a patient with complete C5 spinal cord injury. The OT wants to focus on pressure relief management in the wheelchair. Which of the following will the OT prioritize first?

a. Practice sitting push ups every 15 minutes
b. Strengthen the triceps of the patient
c. Instruct the family to recline the wheelchair every 15 minutes.

A
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6
Q
  1. Pain

a. Enkephalin
b. Bradykinin
c. Glutamate
d. Substance p

A
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7
Q
  1. Inflammation

a. Enkephalin
b. Bradykinin
c. Histamine
d. Substance p

A
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8
Q
  1. Neurotransmitter for sweating in palms:

a Noradrenergic
b. Muscarinic
c. Cholinergic
d. Nicotinic

A
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9
Q
  1. What structure is PRIMARILY innervated or controlled by Sympathetic NS?

a. Heart
b. Skin
c. Skeletal muscles
d. Brain

A
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10
Q
  1. Exercise best to increase endurance

a. ride lawn mower
b. cleaning window

A
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11
Q
  1. Erb duchenne

a. C4-C5
b. C5-C6
C. C6-C7
d. C7-C8

A
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12
Q
  1. Side for precision

a. Radial side
b. Ulnar side
c. Palmar side
d. All of the above

A
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13
Q
  1. Side for Power grasp

a. Radial side
b. Ulnar side
c. Palmar side
d. All of the above

A
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14
Q
  1. Which joints are in closed kinematic chain during sitting push-ups?

a Wrist and ankle
b. Shoulder and pelvis
c. Elbow and knees
d. Trunk and knees

A
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15
Q
  1. Positive feature of an upper motor neuron syndrome

a. Spasticity
b. Spasms
c. Clonus
d. B and C
e. AOTA

A
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16
Q
  1. The pressure at the height of each pulse, which is about 120 mm Hg in young adults:

a Stroke volume output
b. Pulse pressure
c. Diastolic pressure
d. Systolic pressure

A
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17
Q
  1. Movement of joints except:

a. Spinning
b. Rolling
c. Gliding
d. Bending

A
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18
Q
  1. Loss of motor function to a muscle may result in:

a Flaccidity
b. Reflex Response Failure
c. All of these
d. Progressive Atrophy

A
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19
Q
  1. In voltage gating, when there is a strong negative charge on the inside of the cell membrane; the sodium gates remain tightly closed:

a. The first statement is true, the second statement is false
b. Both statements are false
c. Both statements are true
d. The second statements is true, the first statements is false

A
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20
Q
  1. Brain development begins with the differentiation of three vesicles at the rostral end of the neural tube:

a Telencephalon, diencephalon and mesencephalon
b. Mesencephalon, rhombencephalon and metencephalon
c. Prosencephalon, rhombencephalon and myelencephalon d. Prosencephalon, mesencephalon and rhombencephalon

A
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21
Q
  1. What structure is affected in Broca’s aphasia?

a Superior temporal gyrus
b. Third frontal convolution
c. A and B
d. NOTA

A
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22
Q
  1. Reflex response mediated by more than two neurons:

a. None of these
b. Both of these
c. Polysynaptic nerve response
d. Monosynaptic reflex response

A
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23
Q
  1. Passage pathway of pain and temperature?

a Corticospinal tract
b. Spinocerebellar tract
c. Rubrospinal tract
d. Spinothalamic tract
e. None of the above

A
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24
Q
  1. The line of fusion between the External Oblique is called:

a. Linea Alba
b. None of these
c. Inguinal Ligament of Poupart
d. Aponeurosis

A
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25
Q
  1. This ligament does NOT contribute to the stability of the hip joint:

a. Ischiofemoral ligament
b. Pubofemoral ligament
c. Ligamentum teres
d. Iliofemoral ligament

A
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26
Q
  1. What structure is affected in Wernicke’s aphasia?

a Superior temporal gyrus
b. Third frontal convolution
c. A and B
d. NOTA

A
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27
Q
  1. Greatest force output:

a. Eccentric slow
b. Concentric fast
c. Concentric slow
d. Eccentric fast

A
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28
Q
  1. If there is a lesion in the posterior brainstem what action cannot be done?

a. Both eyes looking toward nose
b. Description of lateral rectus
c. Eyelid elevation
d. Sorry ma. Sorry pa

A
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29
Q
  1. If a 40 kilogram force is applied over an area of four square centimeters, the pressure (in kilograms per square centimeter) is equal to (related to the previous question)

a. 20
b. 160
c.5
d. 80
e. 10

A
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30
Q
  1. How to assess adductor longus:

a. Looking at the foot’s sole in front
b. Looking at the foot’s sole at the back
c. Ankle on the opposite thigh
d. Di ko nanaman ma recall sir.

A
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31
Q
  1. If biceps and brachialis are absent, what muscles will compensate for elbow flexion

a. Pronator teres
b. ECRL
c. Brachioradialis
d. All of the above
e. None of the these

A
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32
Q
  1. The most common presenting symptom of a brain tumor is: (CHB#173)

a. Bowel/bladder abnormality
b. Headache
c. Weakness
d. Paresthesias
e. All of these

A
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33
Q
  1. The primary function of the posterior lobe of the cerebellum is:

a. Maintenance of equilibrium
b. coordination of skilled movement
c. Regulation of muscle tone
d. maintenance of posture

A
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34
Q
  1. Stimulation of the vagus nerve may be expected to result in:

a. Decreased blood pressure and increased cardiac contractility
b. Vasodilatation and bradycardia
c. Vasodilatation and tachycardia
d. Vasoconstriction and increased heart rate

A
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35
Q
  1. A patient is referred to therapy for functional gait difficulties. The patient is unable to take normal step and drags the left foot. Examination reveals muscle weakness with fasciculations in the left lower leg. The therapist should also examine for:

a. Increased tone and hyperreflexia
b. Decreased tone and hyporeflexia
c. Muscle spasms and positive babinski
d. Dyssynergia and timing deficits

A
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36
Q
  1. A patient presents with problems with swallowing. When the OT tests for phonation by having the patient say “Ah” with the mouth open, there is deviation of the uvula to the right. The therapist then tests for function of the gag reflex and notices decreased response to stimulation. These findings suggest involvement of the:

a. Right Vagus nerve
b. Hypoglossal Nerve
c. Left vagus nerve d. Trigeminal Nerve

A
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37
Q
  1. A therapist suspects lower brainstem involvement in a patient with amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS). Examination findings reveal motor impairments of the tongue with ipsilateral wasting and deviation to the right upon protrusion. Assuming a lower motor involvement, these findings confirm involvement of:

a. CNIX
b. CN XII on the L
c. CN XII on the R
d. CN X

A
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38
Q
  1. An elderly person has lost significant functional vision over the past 4 years and complains of blurred vision and difficulty reading. The patient frequently mistakes images directly in front of her, especially in bright light. When walking across a room, the patient is able to locate items in the environment using peripheral vision when items are located to both sides. Based on these findings, the therapist suspects: (818)

a Glaucoma
b. Cataract
c. Homonymous Hemianopsia
d. Bitemporal hemianopsia

A
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39
Q
  1. Systole loudest in:

a. Pulmonary artery b. Right ventricle
c. Renal Artery
d. Left ventricle

A
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40
Q
  1. An elderly patient is being examined by the OT. The therapist notes a regularly bordered ulcer with shiny skin on the periwound area over the lateral malleolus. The patient also states that it is painful. The most likely diagnosis is:

a. Arterial ulcer
b. Venous ulcer
c. Diabetic ulcer
d. Venous insufficiency

A
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41
Q
  1. Gertsmann, except?

a. Ataxia
b. Agraphia
c. Acalculia
d. RL discrimination

A
42
Q
  1. A retired patient is referred to a cardiac exercise group after a mild MI. From the intake questionnaire, the therapist learns the patient has type-1 insulin-dependent diabetes mellitus, controlled with twice daily insulin injections. In order to minimize the risk of a hypoglycemic event during exercise, the therapist should have the patient:

a. Avoid exercise during periods of peak insulin activity
b. Have the patient decrease carbohydrate intake for 2 hours before the exercise session
c. Monitor blood glucose level carefully every week during the rehabilitation program
d. Exercise daily for 40-50 minutes to achieve proper glucose control

A
43
Q
  1. While treating a patient, you noticed she might have a thyroid disorder. Where will you refer?

a. Endocrinologist
b. Oncologist
c. Medical doctor
d. Physiatrist

A
44
Q
  1. Speeds test resists in what motion:

a. Flexion
b. Extension
c. IR
d. ER

A
45
Q
  1. A teen aged female distance runner presents a history of stress fracture and general leg pain. Her parents think it may be due to overtraining. Based on this subjective information, what should the therapist question the patient about next?

a. Recent growth spurts
b. Participation in other sports
c. Menses and eating habits
d. Type of running shoe

A
46
Q
  1. The patient with left hemiplegia would least likely to respond in therapy if the motor learning strategies emphasized:

a. Maximum use of verbal cues
b. Maximum use of demonstration and gesture
c. Simplification or restructuring of the environment
d. Encouraging the patient to slow down
e. NOTA

A
47
Q
  1. Accommodation Reflex

a. II
b. III
c. II, III
d. IV
e. NOTA

A
48
Q
  1. Accommodates the lens

b. III
c. II, III
d. IV
e. NOTA

A
49
Q
  1. The following values are increased in patients with COPD except?

a. RV
b. FRC
c. FEV
d. TLC

A
50
Q
  1. What kind of muscle fiber does deltoid have?

a Fusiform
b. Spiral
c. Pennate
d. Quadrate

A
51
Q
  1. Not included in the posterior compartment of the thigh/hamstrings:

a. Popliteus
b. Semitendinosus
Semimembranosus
d. Biceps femoris

A
52
Q
  1. Pectineus is located in what compartment of the thigh:

a Posterior
b. Medial
c. Anterior
d. Lateral

A
53
Q
  1. Isometric contraction when going downstairs:

a Quadriceps
b. Hamstrings
c. Gluteal muscles ata
d. Di ko maalala

A
54
Q
  1. Closes to protect the lower respiratory airway during swallowing:

a. Vocal folds
b. Larynx
c. Glottis
d. Epiglottis

A
55
Q
  1. Joint the thumb that equates to the PIP joint of the 2nd-5th fingers:

a. CMC
b. IP
C. MCP
d. Radiocarpal

A
56
Q
  1. A weight lifter exhibits marked hypertrophy after embarking on a strength training regime. Hypertrophy can be expected to occur following:

a 1 month
b. 3 months
c. 2 months
d. 4 months

A
57
Q
  1. If the patient has lateral epicondylitis, where is the pain usually felt?

a. Proximal to lateral epicondyle
b. Distal to lateral epicondyle
c. Referred pain to distal to the forearms
d. Extensor tendon

A
58
Q
  1. The treatment protocol for golfer’s elbow/medial epicondylitis except:

a. Encourage to use larger and looser grip
b. Encourage to strike the ground less forcefully
c. Encourage to improve trunk rotation
d. NOTA

A
59
Q
  1. Measurements of central tendency except:

a. mean
b. median
c. mode
d. variable

A
60
Q
  1. If yergasons test is negative in 99% of the population without torn THL, then yergasons test is highly:

a Sensitive
b. Specific

A
61
Q
  1. Which of the following is a negative feature of an upper motor neuron syndrome:

a Paresis
b. Paralysis
c. Fatigue
d. AOTA

A
62
Q
  1. An individual suspected of having a work-related de Quervain’s condition is referred for an evaluation. The MOST appropriate provocative test for the OT to perform during the initial evaluation is:

a Phalen’s
b. Grind
c. Cozens
d. Finklestein’s

A
63
Q
  1. Connection of the Broca’s area to Wernicke’s area:

a Arcuate fasciculus
b. internal longitudinal fasciculus
c. association fibers

A
64
Q
  1. Not included in COG:

a. Arm
b. Trunk
c. Head
d. Legs

A
65
Q
  1. What are the cords of your median nerve?

a. Lateral and posterior
b. Lateral and medial
c. Posterior only
d. Posterior and medial

A
66
Q
  1. In patients with adhesive capsulitis, what is the expected greatest limitation of motion when performing shoulder ROM?

a Flexion
b. Abduction
c. Medial rotation
d. Lateral rotation

A
67
Q
  1. Site of impingement of costoclavicular syndrome:

a. Between the clavicle and 1” rib
b. Between the coracoid process and the pecs minor c. Between the scalenes
d. None of the answers are correct

A
68
Q
  1. This blood vessel does not originate from the aortic arch:

a. Right common carotid artery
b. Left subclavian artery
c. Innominate artery
d. Left common carotid artery

A
69
Q
  1. Bradycardia is heart beats less than:

a. 60 per minute
b. 65 per minute
c. 80 per minute
d. 72 per minute

A
70
Q
  1. Efferent fibers of the muscle spindle come from the:

a. All of these
b alpha motor neuron
c. Gamma motor neuron
d. extrafusal muscle

A
71
Q
  1. The attachment of the deltoid ligaments are the following, EXCEPT:

a. Tuberosity of navicular
b. Lateral malleolus
c. Medial tuberosity of talus
d. Sustentaculum tall

A
72
Q
  1. Type of nerve fiber that has the fastest conduction:

a. Large myelinated axons
b. small myelinated axons
e. Small unmyelinated axon
d. Large unmyelinated axon

A
73
Q
  1. Not a part of the muscle spindle:

a. Annulo-spiral ending
b. Extrafusal fibers
c. Intrafusal fibers
d. flower spray ending

A
74
Q
  1. The lung volume that is involved in gas exchange with the capillary blood at the end of a normal expiration is:

a. Functional residual capacity
b. vital capacity
c. Tidal volume
d expiratory reserve volume

A
75
Q
  1. The automatic respiratory center is located in the

a. Medulla
b. Cerebrum
c. Cerebellum
d. Pons

A
76
Q
  1. The swaying of the arms when walking occurs around this axis:

a. Anteroposterior/ horizontal
b. Sagittal
c. Vertical
d. frontal

A
77
Q
  1. Synergist of finger flexors:

a. Ulnar deviators
b. wrist flexor
c. Wrist extensors
d. radial deviators

A
78
Q
  1. The femur is approximately what portion of a person’s height?

a. 1/4
b. 1/6
c. 1/5
d. 1/3

A
79
Q
  1. In lowering yourself to a chair from standing to sitting, the quadriceps are doing:

a Isometric contraction
b. positive work
c. Eccentric contraction
d. concentric contraction

A
80
Q
  1. These vesicular organelles allow the cells to digest and thereby remove unwanted substances and structures, le bacteria:

a. None of these
b. Ribosomes
c. Peroxisomes
d. Lysosomes

A
81
Q
  1. Inspiratory reserve volume plus tidal volume plus expiratory reserve volume:

a. Vital capacity
b. Inspiratory capacity
c. Total lung capacity
d. Functional residual capacity

A
82
Q
  1. A terminal branch of the internal carotid artery:

a. None of these
b. Opthalmic artery
e. Middle cerebral artery
d. Lenticulostrate arteries

A
83
Q
  1. The following statements are true of the right atrium, EXCEPT:

a. It receives the venous blood returning from all parts of the body except the lungs
b. The superior vena cava enters it vertically from above
c. The inferior vena cava enters it vertically from below
d. It receives blood from the lungs via the pulmonary veins

A
84
Q
  1. The biggest volume that can be expired by a person is called:

a. Total lung capacity
b. vital capacity
c. Tidal volume
d. inspiratory capacity

A
85
Q
  1. The axis for subtalar abduction and adduction is:

a. Transverse
b. oblique
c. Longitudinal
d. vertical

A
86
Q
  1. Pronation-supination movement of the forearm brings about gliding motion in the following, EXCEPT:

a. Ulnar-humeral articulation
b. proximal radio-ulnar joint
c.Distal radio-ulnar joint
d. radio-humeral articulation

A
87
Q
  1. The radial head is kept in place by the:

a. Biceps insertion
b. Radial collateral ligament
c. Ulnar collateral ligament
d. annular ligament

A
88
Q
  1. The Chopart joint, a surgical level of amputation is formed by these articulating surfaces:

a. Tarsometatarsal and transverse tarsal joint
b. Talonavicular and calcaneocubed joints
c. None of these
d. Talocrural and Tarometatarsal

A
89
Q
  1. This is the 10th cranial never, its postganglionic fibers innervate cardiac and smooth muscles:

a. Accessory nerve
b. Glossopharyngeal nerve
c. Vestibulocochlear nerve
d. Vagus nerve

A
90
Q
  1. Following statements apply to venous pump, EXCEPT:

a. Tightening of the muscles result to vein compression, squeezing the blood out of the veins
b. Efficient enough to maintain less than 25 mmHg venous pressure in the feet of a walking adult
c. If the subject stands motionless, venous pump does not work, and could increase lower extremity venous pressure to 90 mm Hg in about 30 seconds.
d. Valves in veins allow bi-directional flow to and from the heart

A
91
Q
  1. When applied, first class levers can be:

a. Levers that work at a mechanical advantage
b. Levers that operate at a mechanical disadvantage but one of speed
c. All of these
d. Levers of stability and speed

A
92
Q
  1. The following statements are true of the terminal rotation of the knee, EXCEPT:

a. Allows humans with an energy-efficient mechanism a mechanical stability to stand erect without quadriceps muscle contraction
b. Terminal rotation is seen as internal rotation of the femur on the fixed tibia in a closed-chain motion
c. In the last 20 degrees of knee extension, the tibia externally rotates about 20 degrees on the fixed femur
d. It is mechanical event that occurs only in active knee extension and can voluntarily be prevented.

A
93
Q
  1. If two forces are pulling from the same point:

a. The resultant force reaches a maximum when the forces are on the same line and acting in opposite direction
b. The resultant force is the sum of the two forces
c. The resultant force is the diagonal of the parallelogram
d. The resultant force increase as the angle between the two forces decreases

A
94
Q
  1. The following statements apply to saltatory conduction, EXCEPT:

a. Conserves energy for the axon
b. Action potential occur only at the nodes of Ranvier and conduction from node to node
c. While there is an increase in nerve conduction, energy is wasted on the axon
d. The mechanism increases nerve transmission velocity in myelinated fibers as much as 5 to 50 times

A
95
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT true of the shoulder joint?

a. Its extreme mobility is achieved at the expense of stability and security
b. The movement occurs between the scapula and the humerus
c. The movement primarily involves the clavicle and scapula
d. It is a multi-axial ball-end-socket joint with a remarkable of freedom of movement

A
96
Q
  1. Receives the weight of the body when one sits up straight:

a. Inferior ramus
b. Ischial tuberosity
c. Lesser sciatic notch
d. Spine of ischium

A
97
Q
  1. Men climbing high mountains will have enormous water losses from:

a. decreased drinking
b. increased urination
c. increased ventilation
d. increased sweating

A
98
Q
  1. During standing, the mean blood pressure in the arteries and veins is:

a. equal in the feet and hands
b. lesser in the feet than in the hands
c. unchanged despite incompetent valves
d. higher in the feet than in the hands

A
99
Q
  1. This type of contraction occurs when muscular tension equals the opposing force:

a. Relaxed
b. concentric
c. Isometric
d. eccentric
e. Isotonic

A
100
Q
  1. Which is not a part of the limbic system?

a. Parahippocampal area
b. Pituitary Gland
c. Cingulate Gyrus
d. Hippocampus

A

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