arrt review: patient care Flashcards
(161 cards)
1
Q
if a life-threatening reaction to contrast media is to occur, it will occur within ___ minutes of contrast administration
A
20 minutes
2
Q
what does “res ispa loquitur” mean?
A
The thing speaks for itself
3
Q
PT range
A
11-13.5 seconds
4
Q
PTT range
A
25-35 seconds
5
Q
INR range
A
0.8-1.2
6
Q
Platelet range
A
150,000-400,000
7
Q
BUN range
A
7-21
8
Q
Creatinine range
A
0.7-1.5
9
Q
GFR range
A
90-120
10
Q
As BUN/creatinine go up, GFR goes ____
A
Down
11
Q
what does “respondeat superior” mean?
A
let the master speak
12
Q
Ideally, contrast is (ionic/nonionic) with (high/low) osmolality similar to blood which is ____
A
Nonionic, low osmolarity, 300 mOsm/L
13
Q
Mild IV contrast reaction
A
Scattered hives, pruritus (itching), rhinorrhea (runny nose), coughing
14
Q
Types of tortuous conduct in healthcare
A
Negligence, defamation, non consentual contact
15
Q
4 elements necessary for malpractice
A
- Duty
- Breach
- Cause (breach caused the harm)
- Damage
16
Q
Mild IV contrast reaction
A
nausea, mild vomiting, localized hives, itching
17
Q
Moderate IV contrast reaction
A
Diffuse hives, persistent vomiting, swelling of throat, tachycardia
18
Q
Severe IV contrast reaction
A
Altered mental status, pulmonary edema, swelling of throat, tachycardia/bradycardia, BP changes, seizures
19
Q
What consent is required for invasive procedures?
A
Written and signed
20
Q
What consent is used for non-invasive procedures?
A
oral consent
21
Q
Patient Bill of Rights is replaced with ____________
A
Patient Care Partnership
22
Q
Who is responsible for ordering the correct exam?
A
provider
23
Q
required requisition order information
A
- patient to be examined
- exact region or part to be radiographed
- suspected or existing patient diagnosis
- ordering physician
- date of requisition
24
Q
How many identifiers need to be checked on an order?
A
correct body part
correct side
25
assault refers to _______; battery refers to __________
threat (words/tone); touching
"A before B"
26
False Imprisonment refers to __________-
not allowing a patient to leave, putting on a restraint
27
immobilization refers to ____________
things to reduce motion, temporarily used
28
restraint requires an _________ and do what?
MD order, restrict patient freedom
29
what is negligence?
failing to provide a reasonable care and caution
30
what is libel? what is slander?
libel = written
slander - verbal (spoken)
31
what is tort?
act causing injury (intentional or unintentional)
32
Beneficence refers to what?
acting in the best interest of the patient
33
Non-maleficence refers to what?
34
four types of restraint
physical, environmental, mechanical, pharmacologic
35
7 Cs of Malpractice
Competence
Compliance
Charting
Communication
Confidentiality
Courtesy
Carefulness
36
How many ARRT Codes of Ethics are there?
11
37
What are the 5 stages of grief?
DABDA
Denial
Anger
Bargaining
Depression
Acceptance
38
ARRT Standards of Ethics is broken down into 2 parts: _________________ and _______________
Code of Ethics, Rules of Ethics
39
_____________________ is broken down into 2 parts: Code of Ethics and Rules of Ethics
ARRT Standard of Ethics
40
Codes of Ethics are _________________ and Rules of Ethics are _______________
aspirational (11) , enforceable (22)
41
How many Codes of Ethics are there?
11
42
How many Rules of Ethics are there?
22
43
Violations to the Rules of Ethics should be reported within how many days?
30 days
44
radiographic images are _________________ and belong to the ______________
legal documents, institution (not the patient)
45
verbal communication includes
word choice
voice volume
attitudes
effective listening
46
nonverbal communication includes
eye contact
touching
facial expressions
physical appearance
body language
gestures
47
it is better to (push/pull) a heavy object
push
48
how many people are required for a log roll? who is in charge?
3-5 people, person at the head
49
what is the difference between a slider board and a transfer board?
slider board = used to transfer someone between 2 surfaces (typical)
transfer board = used to bridge to 2 surfaces
50
where should the Swan Ganz catheter be seen on an xray?
pulmonary artery
51
what is the difference between tracheotomy vs. tracheostomy
Tracheotomy = act of cutting into trachea
Tracheostomy = established opening
52
where should chest tubes be placed during transport? urinary catheter?
below level of chest, below level of urinary bladder
53
IV should be kept _____ above the vein
18-24 inches (45-60cm)
54
if prosecuted, what is the penalty for knowingly disclosing PHI?
$50,000 fine and 1 year imprisonment
55
where does the nasal catheter reach?
oral pharynx
56
normal pulse rate for adults, children, infants
adults = 60-100
children = 90-100
infants = 80-120
57
heart rate for tachycardia, bradycardia
above 100 = tachycardia
below 60 = bradycardia
58
respiration rate for adults, children
adults = 12-20
children = 30-60
59
oral, rectal, and axillary temperatures
oral = 98.6 (37 deg C)
rectal = 99.6
axillary = 97.6
(+1/-1)
60
pulse location conscious adult
radial (wrist)
61
pulse location unconscious adult
carotid
62
pulse location infant
brachial
63
blood flow through the heart (until lungs)
SVC/IVC
right atrium
Tricuspid valve
right ventricle
pulmonary semilunar valve
pulmonary artery
lungs
"tri before you buy"
64
blood flow through the heart (after lungs)
pulmonary vein
left atrium
bicuspid valve
left ventricle
aortic semilunar valve
aorta
65
what does FAST stand for in stroke?
face, arm, speech, time
66
how do you support a long bone fracture?
above and below the limb
67
what is quadriplegia/paraplegia/hemiplegia?
quad = 4 limbs
paraplegia = legs paralyzed
hemiplegia = 1 side
68
hypertensive systolic BP measurements
120-140 is prehypertensive, above 140 is hypertensive
69
hypertensive diastolic BP measurements
80-90 is prehypertensive, above 90 is hypertensive
70
What should a technologist be able to provide for patients regarding exam information?
What to expect, how patient can assist, prep/post procedure information, time frame
71
type of fracture in which broken bones break through the skin
open (compound)
72
type of fracture in which the skin is not broken
closed
73
type of fracture in which bones are not anatomically aligned
displaced
74
type of fracture in which bone is fracture but there is still normal alignment
non-displaced
75
type of fracture in which the bones bend (children)
greenstick
76
torsion type fracture
spiral
77
type of fracture in which a break or splinter of the bone into pieces
communited
78
type of fracture in which there is a partial dislocation
subluxation
79
fracture of the base of the 5th metatarsal
Jones fracture
80
Colles is fracture on _______ with ___________ displacement
outstretched hand, dorsal displacement of distal end
81
Smith is a fracture on _________ with __________ displacement
inward hand, ventral displacement of distal end
82
what is valgus angulation? what is varus?
Distal part is more lateral, it is called valgus.
Distal part is more medial, it is called varus.
83
what is Paget's disease?
osteitis deformans
Disruption of bone recycling process
skull has cotton wool appearance
84
Would BE or UGI go first?
BE would happen before upper GI
85
Would CT exams or barium exams go first?
CT exams before barium
86
what types of exams should be scheduled first?
NPO exams, geriatric/pediatric patients, diabetic patients
87
order of scheduling exams
KUB, urinary, biliary, CT, BE before UGI
88
what is urticaria?
hives
89
what is epistaxis?
bloody nose
90
what does RACE stand for?
rescue, alarm, confine, extinguish
91
what does PASS stand for?
pull, aim at base of fire, squeeze, sweep
92
most common nosocomial infection
UTI
93
chain of infection order
Infectious agent
Reservoir
Portal of exit
Mode of transmission
Portal of entry
Susceptible host
"IRPMPS"
"I Remember Pretty Much Positive Stuff"
94
negative pressure rooms are used for these types of infections
TB, SARS, COVID-19
95
handwashing for general and sterile procedure
general = 20 seconds
sterile = 1 minute
96
kVp for...
iodinated contrast
double contrast
single contrast
iodinated = 80
double = 90
single = 110
97
what does creatinine measure? BUN?
creat = how well kidneys are filtering waster
BUN = how much urea in the blood
98
what type of reaction (mild/moderate/severe) will probably need antihistamine?
moderate, severe
99
indication for xylocaine
arrhythmias
100
indication for Decadron
allergic reactions
101
indications for benadryl/diphenhydramine
allergic reaction
102
what is the generic name of bendryl?
diphenhydramine
103
indication for Dilantin
seizures
104
indication for Lasix
edema
105
indication for epinephrine
cardiac arrest, anaphylaxis
106
indication for Glucagon
spastic colon
107
indication for cucophage/metformin
control high blood sugar
108
indication for nitroglycerin
angina
109
indication for heparin/warfarin/coumadin
anticoagulant
110
indication for sodium bicarbonate
metabolic acidosis
111
five rights of drug administration
right...
patient
drug
time
dose
route
112
intramuscular injection angle
90
113
subcutaneous injection angle
45
114
intradermal injection angle
10-15
115
intravenous injection angle
25
116
steps of venipuncture
*
117
the Patient's Bill of Rights has what type of legal status?
advisory document without legal binding
118
implied consent is _______________________
not explicit, inferred through circumstances or actions
119
express consent is ______________________
explicit, but less formal than informed consent
verbal or nonverbal response
120
ergonomic stability is achieved when ____________ is over the _____________
body's center of gravity (center of pelvis, base of support
121
Is Oxygen flammable? combustible?
flammable = NO
combustible = no
122
nasal cannula L/min rate, FiO2 delivered
1-6 L/min, 24-40%
123
oxygen face mask L/min rate, FiO2 delivered
5-10 L/min, 30-60%
124
Ventury mask L/min rate, FiO2 delivered
4-10 L/min, fixed FiO2 is fixed (up to 60%)
125
Non-rebreathing mask L/min rate, FiO2 delivered
10-15 L/min, 60-100%
126
cleaning is the ___________________, and (does/does not) kill microorganisms
physical removal of dirt and organic material, does not
127
disinfection is a _________ that kills (all/most) harmful pathogens
chemical process, most
128
sterilization kills (all/most) forms of pathogens
all
129
autoclaving is _________
steam under pressure
130
medical asepsis ___________ of pathogens; surgical asepsis aims to ___________
reduce number, kill all
131
when a sterile surface comes into contact with a wet, contaminated surface, the sterile object or field (does/does not) become contaminated
does
132
with surgical hand scrubbing, keep hands (above/below) elbows
above
133
with surgical hand scrubbing, dry your (forearms/hands and fingers) first
fingers
134
what must be worn in contact precautions?
gowns, gloves
135
what must be worn in airborne precautions?
N95 respirators
136
what must be worn in droplet precautions?
surgical masks, eye protection
137
contact transmission is the (least/most) common form of transmission and includes __________
most, direct and indirect
138
contact precaution disease examples
MRSA, VRE, C. diff
139
droplet precaution disease examples
influenza, pertussis, bacterial meningitis
IPB
140
airborne precaution disease examples
TB, measles, chicken pox
TMC
141
shared room distance with contact precautions
3 feet
142
what does MRSA stand for?
methicillin-resistant staph. aureus
143
what does VRE stand for?
vancomycin-resistant enterococci
144
shared room distance with droplet precautions
3 feet with curtain in between
145
do patients need a mask if transported with droplet precautions? airborne?
droplet = yes
airborne = probably yes
146
droplet precaution illnesses do not typically travel greater than _____ in distance
6 feet
147
airborne precaution illnesses can travel ______________ and _______
greater than 6 feet, remain in air for extended period of time
148
influenza has what type of transmission based precaution?
droplet precautions
149
bacterial meningitis has what type of transmission based precaution?
droplet precautions
150
pertussis has what type of transmission based precaution?
droplet precautions
151
TB has what type of transmission based precaution?
airborne precautions
152
chicken pox has what type of transmission based precaution?
airborne precautions
153
measles has what type of transmission based precaution?
airborne precautions
154
petit mal vs. grand mal seizure
petit mal = eye or muscle fluttering
grand mal = loss of consciousness and falling, generalized muscle spasms
155
CPR compression rate
100-120/min
156
hypoglycemia symptoms
sweating, pallor
irritability, hunger
lack of coordination, sleepiness
157
hyperglycemia symptoms
dry mouth, increased thirst
weakness, headache
blurred vision, increased urination
158
where does an ET tube be placed?
5-7 cm from carina (T5-6 and T6-7 disk spaces)
159
contrast media dose calculation
0.5mL per pound, not to exceed 100 mL
160
how wide is the non-sterile border of a sterile field?
1 inch
161
What does Atropine do?
Increase heart rate
