AUBF_OTHER Flashcards by SHEEN CLARK S. CABA�EROS

The highest WBC count can be expected to be seen with:

a. Noninflammatory arthritis
b. Inflammatory arthritis
c. Septic Arthritis
d. Hemorrhagic arthritis

c. Septic Arthritis

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If the first portion of a semen specimen is not collected, the semen analysis will have abnormal:

a. ph
b. viscosity
c. Sperm concentration
d. Sperm motility

c. Sperm concentration

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Which of these systemic diseases contribute to kidney damage and disease?

a. Diabetes mellitus
b. Systemic lupus erythematosus
c. Hypertension
d. Amyloidosis

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The primary inorganic substance found in urine is:

a. Sodium
b. Phosphate
c. Chloride
d. Calcium

c. Chloride

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Following the addition of acid, white precipitate in a cloudy urine sample dissolve. This likely indicates the presence of:

a. amorphous urates
b. WBC
c. amorphous phosphate
d. bacteria

c. amorphous phosphate

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The principle of “protein error of indicators’’ is based on:

a. protein changing the pH of the specimen
b. protein changing the pKa of the specimen
c. protein accepting hydrogen from the indicator
d. protein giving up hydrogen to the indicator

c. protein accepting hydrogen from the indicator

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An alkaline urine turns black upon standing, develops a cloudy white precipitate, and has a specific gravity of 1.012. The major concern about this specimen would be:

a. Color
b. Turbidity
c. Specific Gravity
d. All of the above

a. Color

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Water-soluble substances that rapidly diffuse across the bloodbrain barrier include (select all that apply):

a. alcohol
b. chloride
c. glucose
d. protein

b. chloride
c. glucose

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Prime conditions for cast formation include (select all that apply):

a. marked decrease in urine flow
b. acidic pH
c. alkaline pH
d. high solute concentration
e. presence of abnormal ions

a. marked decrease in urine flow
b. acidic pH
d. high solute concentration
e. presence of abnormal ions

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The confirmatory test for a positive protein test result by the reagent strip method uses:

a. Ehrlich’s reagentb.
b. diazo reaction
c. sulfosalicylic acid
d. a copper reduction tablet

c. sulfosalicylic acid

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A urine specimen come to the laboratory 7 hours after it is obtained. It is acceptable for culture only if the specimen has been stored:

a. at room temperature
b. at 4-7°C
c. frozen
d. with a preservative additive

b. at 4-7°C

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While performing an analysis of a baby’s urine, the technologist notices the specimen to have mousy odor. Of the following substances that may be excreted in urine, the one that MOST characteristically produces this odor is:

a. phenylpyruvic acid
b. acetone
c. coliform bacili
d. porphyrin

a. phenylpyruvic acid

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Synovial fluid crystals that occur as a result of purine metabolism or chemotherapy for leukemia are:

a. Monosodium urate
b. Cholesterol
c. Calcium pyrophosphate
d. Apatite

a. Monosodium urate

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The reagent strip test for nitrite used the:

a. Greiss reaction
b. Hoesch reaction
c. Peroxidase reaction
d. Pseudoperoxidase reaction

a. Greiss reaction

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The presence of siderophages in CSF indicates:

a. a normal finding
b. meningitis
c. old hemorrhage
d. traumatic tap

c. old hemorrhage

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Parasites seen in the urine are usually:

a. confirmed by reagent strip
b. confused with RBC
c. unstainable with supravital stain
d. fecal or vaginal contamination

c. unstainable with supravital stain

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Which of the following would affected by allowing a urine specimen to remain at room temperature for 3 hours before analysis?

a. occult blood
b. specific gravity
c. pH
d. protein

c. pH

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An abdominal fluid is submitted from surgery. The physician wants to determine of this fluid could be urine. The technologist should:

a. perform a culture
b. smell the fluid
c. test for urea, sodium and chloride
d. test for protein,glucose and pH

c. test for urea, sodium and chloride

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The clarity of a urine sample should be determined:

a. using glass tubes only
b. following thorough mixing of the specimen
c. after addition of sulfosalicylic acid
d. after the specimen cools to room temperature

b. following thorough mixing of the specimen

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The principle of the reagent strip test for blood is based on the:

a. Binding of heme and a chromogenic dye
b. Peroxidase activity of heme
c. Reaction of peroxide and chromohen
d. Diazo activity of heme

b. Peroxidase activity of heme

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Fluid-to-serum protein and lactic dehydrogenase ratios are performed on serous fluids:

a. When malignancy is suspected
b. To classify transudates and exudates
c. To determine the type of serous fluid
d. When a traumatic tap has occurred

b. To classify transudates and exudates

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Specimens that contain intact RBCs can be visually distinguished from those that contain hemoglobin because:

a. Hemoglobin produces a much brighter red color
b. Hemoglobin produces a cloudy, pink specimen
c. RBCs produces a cloudy specimen
d. RBCs are quickly converted to hemoglobin

c. RBCs produces a cloudy specimen

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Blood flows through the nephron in the following order:

a. Efferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta, afferent arteriole
b. Peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole, vasa recta, effent arteriole
c. Afferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta, efferent arteriole
d. Efferent arteriole, vasa recta, peritubular capillaries, afferent arteriole

c. Afferent arteriole, peritubular capillaries, vasa recta, efferent arteriole

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Excess urine on the reagent strip can turn a normal pH result into a falsely acidic pH when which of the following reagent runs into the pH pad?

a. tetrabromphenol blue
b. citrate buffer
c. glucose oxidase
d. alkaline copper sulfate

b. citrate buffer

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27. Central nervous system epithelial cells include (select all that apply): a. choroidal cells b. endothelial cells c. ependymal cells d. pia-arachnoid mesothelial cells

a. choroidal cells b. endothelial cells c. ependymal cells d. pia-arachnoid mesothelial cells

28. Bicarbonate ions filtered by the glomerulus are retured to the blood: Statement 1: In the PCT combined with hydrogen ions Statement 2: By tubular secretion a. Only statement 1 is correct b. Only statement 2 is correct c. Both statements are correct d. Both statements are incorrect

c. Both statements are correct

29. Secretion of renin is stimulated by: a. Juxtaglomerular cellsb. Angiotensin | and || c. Macula densa cells d. Circulating ACE

c. Macula densa cells

30. The principle of the reagent strip test for urine protein depends on: a. an enzyme reaction b. protein error of indicators c. copper reduction d. the toluidine reaction

b. protein error of indicators

31. Red colored urine may be due to: a. bilirubin b. excess urobilin c. myoglobin d. homogentisic acid

c. myoglobin

32. The part of the kidney in which there is selective retention and excretion of various substances and in which the concentration of urine occurs is the: a. glomerulus b. papilla c. tubule d. ureter

c. tubule

33. Which of the following urinary parameters are measured during the course of concentration and dilutions tests to assess renal tubular function? a. urea, nitrogen and creatinine b. osmolality and specific gravity c. sodium and chloride d. sodium and osmolality

b. osmolality and specific gravity

In bacterial vaginosis, in trichomoniasis, and in postmenopausal women the viganal pH is: a. above 4.5 b. between 3.8 and 4.5 c. below 3.8 d. it is above 4.5 in some these and below 3.8 in others

a. above 4.5

35. Renal failure would most likely not be associated with which of these: a. Systemic shock with drop in blood pressure b. Transfusion reaction c. Urine with a high specific gravity d. Decreased GFR

c. Urine with a high specific gravity

36. Blue diaper syndrome is associated with: a. Lesch-Nyhan syndrome b. Cystinuria c. Phenylketonuria d. Hartnup disease

d. Hartnup disease

37. Urine that turns black after standing may contain: Statement 1: Homogentisic acid Statement 2: Methemoglobin a. Only statement 1 is correct b. Only statement 2 is correct c. Both statements are correct d. Both statements are incorrect

c. Both statements are correct

38. Broad and waxy casrs are frequently seen with: a. Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis b. Membranous glomerulonephritis c. Chronic glomerulonephritis d. Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis

c. Chronic glomerulonephritis

39. An antidiuretic hormone deficiency is associated with a: a. specific gravity 1.031 b. low specific gravity c. high specific gravity d. variable specific gravity

b. low specific gravity

40. The pH of a urine specimen measures the: a. free sodium ions b. free hydrogen ions c. total acid excretion d. volatile acids

b. free hydrogen ions

41. Serologic test on patients’ serum may be performed to detect antibodies causing arthritis for all of the following disorders except a. Pseudogout b. Rheumatoid arthritis c. Lupus erythematosus d. Lyme arthritis

a. Pseudogout

42. Some regional and public health laboratories carry out mass screening tests on newborns for a genetic disorder involving metabolism of: a. fructose b. galactose c. glucose d. lactose

b. galactose

43. On a bright-light microscopic examination of a urinary sediment, round refractile globules are noted in cells encapsulated within a hyaline matrix. A polarized-light microscopic examination of the urinary structure showed the globules to be birefringent in the shape of the Maltese crosses. These urinary structures can be identified as: a. waxy casts associated with advanced tubular atrophy b. granular casts containing plasma protein aggregates c. crystal casts associated with obstruction due to tubular damagae d. fatty casts containing lipid-laden renal tubular cells

d. fatty casts containing lipid-laden renal tubular cells

44. While performing a urinalysis, a technologist notices that the urine specimen has a fruity odor. This patient’s urine most likely contains: a. ketone b. bilirubin c. coliform bacilli d. porphyrin

a. ketone

45. Urine samples should be examined within 1 hour of voiding because: a. RBC, WBC and casts agglutinate after standing for several hours b. urobilinogen increases and bilirubin decreases after prolonged exposure to light c. bacterial contamination will cause alkalinizarion of the urine d. ketones with increase due to bacterial and cellular metabolism

c. bacterial contamination will cause alkalinizarion of the urine

A semen specimen delivered to the laboratory in a condom has a normal sperm count and markedly decreased sperm motility. This is indicative of: a. Decrease fructose b. Antispermicide in the condom c. Increased semen viscosity d. Increased semen alkalinity

b. Antispermicide in the condom

47. An ammonia like odor is characteristically associated with urine from patients who: a. are diabetic b. have hepatitis c. have an infection with Proteus sp d. have a yeast infection

c. have an infection with Proteus sp

48. Normal semen color(s) includes (select all that apply): a. clear b. gray c. white d. yellow

b. gray c. white

49. Cylindroiduria refers to: Statement 1: Mucus resembling casts Statement 2: All types of casts a. Only statement 1 is correct b. Only statement 2 is correct c. Both statemetns are correct d. Both statements are incorrect

b. Only statement 2 is correct

50. What changes in urine sediment can take place over time if the urine is not examined as soon as after collection as possible? (Select all that apply.) a. Bacteria lyse b. Casts dissolve c. Crystal dissolve d. Crystals form e. Erythrocytes crenate f. Microorganisms multiply

b. Casts dissolve d. Crystals form e. Erythrocytes crenate f. Microorganisms multiply

51. A test area of a urine reagent strip is impregnated with only sodium nitroprusside. This will react with: a. acetoacetic (diacetic) acid b. leukocyte esterase c. beta-hydroxybutyric acid d. ferric chloride

a. acetoacetic (diacetic) acid

52. Use of a refractometer over a urinometer is preferred due to the fact that the refractometer uses a: a. large volume of urine and compensates for temperature b. small volume of urine and compensates for glucose c. small volume of urine and compensates for temperature d. small volume of urine and compensated for protein

c. small volume of urine and compensates for temperature

53. A urine’s specific gravity is directly proportional to its: a. turbidity b. dissolved solids c. salt content d. sugar content

c. salt content

54. A 62-year-old patient with hyperlipoproteinemia has large amount of protein in his urine. Microscopic analysis yields moderate to many fatty, waxy, granular and cellular casts. Many oval fat bodies are also noted. This is most consistent with: a. nephrotic syndrome b. viral infection c. acute pyelonephritis d. acute glomerulonephritis

a. nephrotic syndrome

55. When performing a routine urinalysis, the technologist notes a 2+ protein result. He should: a. request another specimen b. confirm with the acid precipitation test c. test for Bence Jones protein d. report the result obtained without futher testing

b. confirm with the acid precipitation test

56. Bright red blood and mucus in feces are most seen with: a. malabsorption b. dysentery c. creatorrhea d. upper GI tract bleeding

b. dysentery

57. Meningitis results in: a. decreased CSF glucose and decreased CSF protein b. decreased CSF glucose and increased CSF protein c. increased CSF glucose and decreased CSF protein d. increased CSF glucose and increased CSF protein

b. decreased CSF glucose and increased CSF protein

58. A urine specimen collected from an apparently healthy 25-year old man shortly after he finished eating lunch was cloudy but showed normal results on a multiple reagent strip analysis. The most likely cause of the turbidity is: a. fat b. white blood cells c. urates d. phosphates

d. phosphates

59. Which procedure is rarely performed because of the risk involved? a. paracardiocentesis b. paracentesis c. peritioneal lavage d. thoracentesis

a. paracardiocentesis

60. The method of choice for performing a specific gravity measurement of urine following administration of x-ray contrast dye is: a. reagent strip b. refractometer c. urinometer d. densitometer

a. reagent strip

61.The presence of leukocytes in urine is known as: a. chyluria b. hematuria c. leukocytosis d. pyuria

d. pyuria

62. A lumbar puncture should NOT be performed if the patient has: a. dementia or acute state of acute confusion b. infection such as encephalitis or meningitis c. inflammation over or near the puncture site d. unexplained seizures or multiple sclerosis

c. inflammation over or near the puncture site

63. Testing speciments that contain high levels of ascorbate may affect the reading of all of these EXCEPT: a. bilirubin b. glucose c. nitrite d. urobilinogen

d. urobilinogen

64. WBC casts are primarily associated with: a. pyelonephritis b. cystitis c. glomerulonephritis d. viral infections

a. pyelonephritis

65. Polyuria is usually correlated with: a. acute glomerulonephritis b. diabetes mellitus c. hepatitis d. tubular damage

b. diabetes mellitus

66. False results in urobilinogen testing may occur if the urine specimen is: a. exposed to light b. adjusted to a neutral pH c. cooled to room temperature d. collected in a nonsterile container

a. exposed to light

67. Fine colorless to yellow needles that form clumps of rosettes, such as those depicted below, were seen in a urine specimen. This patient is most likely to have which of the following clinical conditions? a. liver disease b. bilirubinuria c. cystinuria d. nephrotic syndrome

a. liver disease

68. Ammonium sulfate was added to red urine. The urine had a positive reaction for blood, but no RBS’s were seen in microscopic examination. After centrifugation the supernatant fluid is red. Theabnormal color is caused by; a. Pyridium b. Hemoglobin c. Porphyrins d. Myoglobins

d. Myoglobins

69. Colorless crystals such as those depicted below, were seem in a urine specimen. This patient is most likely to have which of the following clinical conditions a. bilirubinuria b. renal damage c. cystinuria d. gout

c. cystinuria

The following clinical conditions produce positive result in hCG test expect: a. Germ cell tumor b. Testicular cancer c. hyaditiform mole d. Nephrotic syndrome

d. Nephrotic syndrome

71. hCG levels during pregnancy peaks at _____ weeks: a. 8-11 b. 15-20 c. 24-27 d. 30-36

a. 8-11

72. The amber yellow color of urine is primarily due to: a. urochrome pigment b. methemoglobin c. bilirubin d. homogenttisic acid

a. urochrome pigment

73. The integrity of the blood-brain barrier is measured using the: a. CSF/serum albumin index b. CSF/serum globulin ration c. CSF albumin index d. CSF IgG index

a. CSF/serum albumin index

74. A microscopic examination of a urine sediment reveals ghost cells. These red blood cells were most likely lysed due to: a. greater than 2% glucose concentrations b. specific gravity less than 1.007 c. large amounts of ketone bodies d. neutral pH

b. specific gravity less than 1.007

75. A urine specimen is analyzed for glucose oxidase reagent strip and a copper reduction test. If both results are positive, which of the following interpretation is correct? a. galactose is present b. glucose is present c. lactose is not present d. sucrose is not present

b. glucose is present

76. The primary purpose of serous fluid is: a. Removal of waste products b. Lowering of capillary pressure c. Lubrication of serous membrane d. Nourishing serous membrane

c. Lubrication of serous membrane

77. Urine reagent strips should be stored in a(n): a. refrigerator b. incubator c. cool dry area d. open jar exposed to air

c. cool dry area

78. All casts typically contain: a. Albumin b. Globulin c. Ig G and Ig M d. Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein

d. Tamm-Horsfall glycoprotein

79. The glomerular filtration barrier is composed of: a. capillary endothelium, basement membrane, and juxtaglomerular apparatus b. capillary endothelium, podocytes, and basement membrane c. podocytes, hilum, and basement membrane d. capillary endothelium, podocytes, and juxtaglomerular apparatus

b. capillary endothelium, podocytes, and basement membrane

79. Which of the following irorganic sunstances are excreted in the uring in the largest amount? a. urea and NaCl b. creatine and NaCl c. creatine and ammonia d. urea and ammonia

d. urea and ammonia

The order of cast degration is: a. cellular – granular – waxy b. cellular – hyaline – waxy c. hyaline – cellular – waxy d. hyaline – granular – waxy

a. cellular – granular – waxy

81. Patient with diabetes mellitus have urine with: a. decreased volume and decreased specific gravity b. decreased volume and increased specific gravity c. increased volume and decreased specific gravity d. increased volume and increased specific gravity

d. increased volume and increased specific gravity

83. Normal urine primary consists of: a. water, protein and sodium b. water, urea and sodium chloride c. water, urea and protein d. water, urea and bilirubin

b. water, urea and sodium chloride

84. A reagent strip test for hemoglobin has been reported positive. Microscopic examination fails to yield red blood cells. This patient’s condition can be called: a. hematuria b. hemoglobinuria c. oliguria d. hemosiderinuria

b. hemoglobinuria

85. Cells that are normally seen in CSF include (select all that apply): a. erythrocytes b. lymphocyte c. monocytes d. neutrophils

b. lymphocyte c. monocytes

AUBF_OTHER Flashcards

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