HEMA MRXUH Exam Flashcards

(59 cards)

1
Q

Which test is most useful for monitoring the therapeutic effect of warfarin?

A. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
B. Prothrombin Time (PT) with INR
C. Thrombin Time (TT)
D. Platelet count

A

B. Prothrombin Time (PT) with INR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What is the characteristic finding in a peripheral blood smear of a patient with aplastic anemia?

A. Hypersegmented neutrophils
C. Macrocytic red blood cells
B. Normocytic, normochromic red blood cells
D. Decreased number of all blood cell types

A

D. Decreased number of all blood cell types

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of a prolonged Prothrombin Time (PT) in a patient on anticoagulant therapy?

A.Vitamin K deficiency
C. Factor V Leiden mutation
B. Hemophilia A
D. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)

A

A.Vitamin K deficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is a key feature of Hodgkin lymphoma when viewed under a microscope?

A. Reed-Sternberg cells
C. Monoclonal plasma cells
B. Atypical lymphoblasts
D. Smudge cells

A

A. Reed-Sternberg cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following laboratory tests is most appropriate for monitoring patients on heparin therapy?

A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
C. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
D. Platelet count

A

B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following is a classic clinical feature of a patient with aplastic anemia?

A. Elevated white blood cell count
C. Hypercellular bone marrow
B. Pancytopenia
D. Hyperuricemia

A

B. Pancytopenia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which laboratory finding is typically elevated in patients with chronic kidney disease and anemia?

A. Serum iron
C. Erythropoietin
B. Total iron-binding capacity (TIBC)
D. Serum ferritin

A

D. Serum ferritin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Which of these following hematological tests serves as a liver function test?

A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
C. Complete Blood Count
B. ABO Rh Typing
D. Reticulocyte Count

A

A. Prothrombin Time (PT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which test is used to assess the function of the intrinsic pathway of coagulation?

A. Prothrombin Time (PT)-venn
B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
C. Thrombin Time (TT)
D. Platelet aggregation test

A

B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with an increased risk of bleeding due to decreased platelet function rather than decreased platelet number?

A. Thrombocytopenic purpura
B. Liver Cirrhosis
C. Von Willebrand disease
D. Iron-deficiency anemia

A

C. Von Willebrand disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which laboratory finding is characteristic of disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)? diner

A. Decreased prothrombin time (PT)
C. Increased fibrin degradation products (D-dimer)
B. Elevated platelet count
D. Increased mean corpuscular volume (MCV)

A

C. Increased fibrin degradation products (D-dimer)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Which of the following is the primary defect in hemophilia A?

A. Deficiency of factor IX
C. Deficiency of factor XI
B. Deficiency of factor VIII
D. Deficiency of factor V

A

B. Deficiency of factor VIII

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Which type of anemia is characterized by the presence of basophilic stippling of red blood cells?

A. Dead poisoning
C. Iron Deficiency Anemia
B. Sickle cell anemia
D. Folate deficiency

A

A. Dead poisoning

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of a low platelet count (thrombocytopenia)?

A. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)
C. Vitamin K deficiency
B. Polycythemia vera
D. Hemolytic uremic syndrome (HUS)

A

A. Immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

In a patient with a high reticulocyte count, what is the most likely underlying issue?

A. Chronic kidney disease
B. Hemolytic anemia
C. Vitamin B12 deficiency
D. Chronic inflammation

A

B. Hemolytic anemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which of the following conditions is associated with an increased risk of thrombosis?

A. Hemophilia
C. Polycythemia vera
B. Thalassemia
D. Aplastic anemia

A

C. Polycythemia vera

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Hemoglobin forms that are incapable of oxygen transport include

A. Deoxyhemoglobin and oxyhemoglobin
B. Oxyhemoglobin and carboxyhemoglobin
C.Carboxyhemoglobin and methemoglobin
D. Methemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin

A

C.Carboxyhemoglobin and methemoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

An excessive accumulation of iron in body tissues is called?

A. Hemochromatosis
B. Erythroblastosis
C. Megaloblastosis
D. Acrocyanosis

A

A. Hemochromatosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The coagulation factors referred to as “vitamin K-dependent” are

A. I, V, VIII, XIII
B. II, V, IX, XII
C. II, VII, IX, X
D. XI, XII, Fletcher, Fitzgerald

A

C. II, VII, IX, X

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

For patients with polycythemia, the ESR result would be?

A. Increased
B. Decreased

A

B. Decreased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

For patients with anemia, the ESR result would be?

A. Increased
B. Decreased

A

A. Increased

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Which of the following is NOT synthesized in the liver?

A. Factor VIII
B. Plasminogen
C. Protein C
D. von Willebrand factor

A

D. von Willebrand factor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

The red cells observed on a peripheral blood smear show extreme anisocytosis with equal number of macrocytes and microcytes. Which of the following values correlate with this finding?

A. MCV 108.OfL, RDW 14.0%
C. MCV 75.0fL, RDW 16%
B. MCV 90.0fL, RDW 25.0%
D. MCV 88.0fL, RDW 12%

A

B. MCV 90.0fL, RDW 25.0%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

If the angle of the smear is TOO HIGH, the smear is

A. Thinner
B. Thicker

25
Which of the following is the primary function of red blood cells (RBCs)? A. Oxygen transport C. Blood clotting B. Immune response D. Nutrient transport
A. Oxygen transport
26
ENUMERATE THE REAGENTS/STAINS USED FOR PERIPHERAL BLOOD STAINING.
10% Buffered Formalin Methylene Blue Eosin Ethanol/Alcohol
27
Which of the following conditions is associated with an increased risk of bleeding due to decreased platelet function rather than decreased platelet number? A Thrombocytopenic purpura C. Von Willebrand disease B. Liver Cirrhosis D. Iron-deficiency anemia
C. Von Willebrand disease
28
Which of the following laboratory tests is most appropriate for monitoring patients on heparin therapy? A. Prothrombin Time (PT) C. International Normalized Ratio (INR) B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) D. Platelet count
B. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
29
What is a key feature of Hodgkin lymphoma when viewed under a microscope? A. Reed-Sternberg cells C. Monoclonal plasma cells B. Atypical lymphoblasts D. Smudge cells
A. Reed-Sternberg cells
30
The coagulation factors referred to as "vitamin K-dependent" are A. X. I, V, VIII, XIII B. II, V, IX, XII C. II, VII, IX, X D. XI, XII, Fletcher, Fitzgerald
C. II, VII, IX, X
31
Hemoglobin forms that are incapable of oxygen transport include A. Deoxyhemoglobin and oxyhemoglobin B. Oxyhemoglobin and carboxyhemoglobin C. Carboxyhemoglobin and methemoglobin D. Methemoglobin and deoxyhemoglobin
C. Carboxyhemoglobin and methemoglobin
32
Which of the following is NOT synthesized in the liver? A. Factor VIII B. Plasminogen C. Protein C D. von Willebrand factor
D. von Willebrand factor
33
Which type of anemia is characterized by the presence of basophilic stippling of red blood cells? A Lead poisoning C. Iron Deficiency Anemia B. Sickle cell anemia D. Folate deficiency
A Lead poisoning
34
The red cells observed on a peripheral blood smear show extreme anisocytosis with equal number of macrocytes and microcytes. Which of the following values correlate with this finding? A. MCV 108.0fL, RDW 14.0% B. MCV 90.0fL, RDW 25.0% C. MCV 75.0fL, RDW 16% D. MCV 88.0fL, RDW 12%
B. MCV 90.0fL, RDW 25.0%
35
What is a congenital qualitative platelet disorder? A. Senile purpura B. Ehlers-Danos syndrome C. Henoch-Schonlein purpura D. Waldenstrom macroglobulinemia
B. Ehlers-Danos syndrome
36
Aspirin ingestion blocks the synthesis of: A. Thromboxane A2 B. lonized calcium C. Collagen D. ADP
A. Thromboxane A2
37
The clinical presentation of platelet related bleeding may include all of the ff except: A. Bruising B. Nosebleeds C. Gastrointestinal bleeding D. Bleeding into the joints (hemarthroses)
D. Bleeding into the joints (hemarthroses)
38
What test may be used to confirm the presence of Lupus Anticoagulant? A. Bestheda titer B. PT C. Antinuclear antibody D. PTT using high-phospholipid reagent
D. PTT using high-phospholipid reagent
39
What is the most important application of the quantitative D-dimer test? A. Diagnose primary fibrinolysis B. Diagnose liver and renal disease C. Rule out deep venous thrombosis D. Diagnose AMI
C. Rule out deep venous thrombosis
40
Which of the following lysosomal storage diseases is characterized by macrophages with striated cytoplasm and storage of glucocerebroside? A. Sanfilippo syndrome B. Gaucher disease C. Fabry disease D. Niemann-Pick disease
B. Gaucher disease
41
Megaloblastic episodes in SCD can be prevented by prophylactic administration of: A. Iron B. Folic acid C. Steroids D. Erythropoietin
B. Folic acid
42
Patient's with SCD usually do not exhibit symptoms until 6 months of age because: A. The mother's blood has a protective effect B. Hemoglobin levels are higher in infants at birth C. Higher levels of Hb F are present D. The immune system is not fully developed
C. Higher levels of Hb F are present
43
Which of the following tests provides a good indication of accelerated erythropoiesis? A. Urine Urobilinogen B. Hemosiderin level C. Reticulocyte count D. Glycated hemoglobin level
C. Reticulocyte count
44
Which of the following is consistent with a diagnosis of Megaloblastic anemia? A. Hyposegmentation of neutrophils B. Decreased serum LDH level C. Absolute increase in reticulocytes D. Increased MCV
A. Hyposegmentation of neutrophils
45
An increased MCV, along with a high RDW suggests: A. Iron Deficiency Anemia B. Vit. B12 or Folate Deficiency C. Sickle Cell Anemia D. Normal blood picture
B. Vit. B12 or Folate Deficiency
46
What is the largest hematopoietic cell found in a normal bone aspirate? A. Osteoblast B. Myeloblast C. Pronormoblast D. Megakaryocyte
A. Osteoblast
47
Which of the following blood film findings indicates EDTA-induced pseudothrombocytopenia? A. The platelets are pushed to the feathered edge B.The platelets are adhering to WBCS C. No platelets at all are seen on the film D. The slide has a bluish discoloration
B.The platelets are adhering to WBCS
48
Factor: 1 Name: Pathway:
Factor: 1 Name: Fibrinogen Pathway: Common
49
Factor: 2 Name: Pathway:
Factor: 2 Name: Prothrombin Pathway: Common
50
Factor: 3 Name: Pathway:
Factor: 3 Name: Tissue Thromboplastin Pathway: Extrinsic
51
Factor: 4 Name: Pathway:
Factor: 4 Name: Calcium Pathway: Common
52
Factor: V Name: Pathway:
Factor: 5 Name: Labile Pathway: Common
53
Factor: 7 Name: Pathway:
Factor: 7 Name: Serum-Prothrombin Conversion Factor Pathway: Extrinsic
54
Factor: 8 Name: Pathway:
Factor: 8 Name: Anti-hemophilic Factor A Pathway: Intrinsic
55
Factor: 9 Name: Pathway:
Factor: 9 Name: Plasma Thromboplastin Component Pathway: Intrinsic
56
Factor: 10 Name: Pathway:
Factor: 10 Name: Stuart-Prower Pathway: Common
57
Factor: 11 Name: Pathway:
Factor: 11 Name: Anti-hemophilic Factor C Pathway: Intrinsic
58
Factor: 12 Name: Pathway:
Factor: 12 Name: Glass Factor Pathway: Intrinsic
59
Factor: 13 Name: Pathway:
Factor: 13 Name: Laki-Lorand Pathway: Common