BACTE RETAKE Flashcards by SHEEN CLARK S. CABA�EROS

This gives the surface of gram-negative bacteria a negative charge.

Mycolic acid
Outer membrane
Periplasm
Lipopolysaccharide

Lipopolysaccharide

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The following statement are true except:

Gram + bacteria ….peptidoglycan layer
The periplasmic space is found in gram – and gram + bacteria
The capsule of gram + bacteria is immediate to murein layer
The sex pilus is a conduit for passage of DNA

The periplasmic space is found in gram – and gram + bacteria

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This method of sterilization is applied to substances that are heat-sensitive

Filtration
Radiation
Cold sterilization
Oxidation

Filtration

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It is used as prophylaxis in newborns to prevent ocular n. gonorrhea infection

Erythromycin
Silver nitrate
Povidone Iodine
Vancomycin

Erythromycin

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Ratio of sodium hypochlorite recommended by CDC for cleaning tabletops after blood spills

1:5
1:10
1:20
NOTA

1:10

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The following statement are true regarding specimen collection except:

Specimen should be collected during acute phase of an illness
Serum for serologic studies can be frozen at –70C for up to 1 week
N. meningitidis is sensitive to temp changes
Processing should be done upon receipt at the lab

Serum for serologic studies can be frozen at –70C for up to 1 week

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This anticoagulant is commonly used for viral cultures

EDTA
Citrate
SPS
Heparin

Heparin

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This is added to transport media to absorb fatty acids

Buffer
Antibiotic
Charcoal
Indicator

Charcoal

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The following statement are true except

Direct microscopy examination is done to all specimens
All processing should begin with a gross examination of the specimen
Sterile fluid should be given priority for processing
Mislabeled specimens should be rejected

Direct microscopy examination is done to all specimens

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Inhibits the growth of gram + organism in your MacConkey

Phenol Red
Crystal violet
Ferric Ammonium Citrate
Lactose

Crystal violet

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The presence of this enzyme allows the release of water and oxygen from hydrogen peroxide. What process is being described?

Oxidase
Catalase
Oxidation reaction
Coagulase

Catalase

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What is the positive result of the Catalase Test?

Bubble formation
Purple color
Clot formation
Reddening

Bubble Formation

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Case JJ 5 yo male polio vax seen due to appearance of bright red rash on his cheeks associated with low grade fever and nasal discharge What is the causative agent?

Enveloped virus with icosahedral nucleocapsid and double stranded DNA
Naked nucleocapsid with single-stranded positive polarity RNA
Enveloped virus with icosahedral nucleocapsid and one piece of single stranded positive polarity RNA
Nonenveloped icosahedral single stranded DNA Virus

Nonenveloped icosahedral single stranded DNA Virus

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Mode of transmission of the causative agent

Transplacental
Respiratory secretion
AOTA
NOTA

AOTA

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Major site of viral replication

Capillaries of the skin
Bone marrow
Placenta
Neurons

Bone marrow

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Major virulence factor for S. aureus

Capsule
Protein
Coagulase
Lime layer

Coagulase

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This test will differentiate your proteus mirabilis from proteus vulgaris

Indole

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What is the principle of the Indole test

Detects the end products of glucose formation of by your peptidoglycan pathway
Detects end products of glucose from the mixed acid pathway
Determines the organism has the ability to reduce nitrate to nitrite
Test the ability of the organism to produce the enzyme tryptophanase

Detects end products of glucose from the mixed acid pathway

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What is the positive reaction of the Indole Test

Red color
Growth in the medium with color change
Turbidity
Bright pink color

Red color

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TRUE OR FALSE: Case KK 38 yo male single sexually active came in for consult due to maculopapular rash on his arms and soles associated with progressive weight loss on and off undocumented fever and occasional malaise. Susceptibility testing can be performed for the causative agent.

False (causative agent is syphilis)

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Case KK 38 yo male single sexually active came in for consult due to maculopapular rash on his arms and soles associated with progressive weight loss on and off undocumented fever and occasional malaise. Susceptibility testing can be performed for the causative agent.

When you start treatment what test can you request to follow the patient’s response to therapy

RPR
FTA-ABS
EIA
Microscopy

RPR

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What is the specimen of choice if you are suspecting congenital transmission of the causative agent?

Plasma
Serum
Placenta
Umbilical cord

Umbilical Cord

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The following statement are true except:

Chlamydia contains lipopolysaccharide in their cell wall
Endocervix the preferred site to collect screening specimens in female patient with chlamydia
One of the differences seen in chlamydia is the shape of the reticulate body
Humans are the only host of chlamydia pneumoniae

One of the differences seen in chlamydia is the shape of the reticulate body

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35 yo female complains of nonhealing ulcer in her left index finger that now progress to a postular lesion. WHat is hte mycelial formation of the fungus

Daisy-head or floweret microconidia
Thick-walled yeasts with multiple buds resembling a mariner’s wheel

Daisy-head or floweret microconidia

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The following statement are true except: If infection with Malassezia furfur is suspected, Olive oil should be added to the medium If processing is delayed dermatologic specimen should be refrigerated Respiratory tract secretions are the most common specimen collected for fungal culture CSF specimens should be processed immediately

If processing is delayed dermatologic specimen should be refrigerated

The macroconidia of this organism are rarely formed vary in ssize and shaped and referred to a string-bean appearance Trichophyton robrum Tonsurans Mentagrophytes Verrucosum

Verrucosum

Most sensitive test to diagnose streptococcosis India ink Culture Gram stain Latex agglutination

Latex agglutination

The following statement are true regarding viruses except All DNA viruses are icosahedral except poxvirus All RNA viruses reticate in the cytoplasm Herpesviridae has the ability to establish latency Poxvirus is the largest and the most complex of all viruses

All RNA viruses reticate in the cytoplasm

This test differentiate Listeria monocytogenes from other listeria species CAMP Test Wet mount Carbohydrate fermentation

CAMP Test

What test is the most helpful in the definitive diagnosis of the causative agent Culture Gram stain Demonstration of toxins Demonstration of metachromatic granules

Demonstration of toxins

What is being detected by string test for vibrio Capsule Flagella DNA Villi

DNA

Which of hte following vibrios are responsible for pandemic Vibrio cholerae Vulnificus Parahaemolyticus Cholerae O1 biotype El Tor

Cholerae O1 biotype El Tor

Presumptive test of the identification of your group a beta hemolytic streptococcus Hemolysis on blood agar Bacitracin test Novobiocin test Optochin test

Bacitracin test

This is known as a microscopic precipitin test in which your cap surrounding the organism will swell India ink Quellung Test Crystal violet String test

The folloiwng statement are true except MacConkey Agar is a nutritive and differential media Blood agar is a nutritive and differential media TCBS agar is a selective and differential media Modified Thayer martin is an enrichment and selective media

MacConkey Agar is a nutritive and differential media

The following statement are true about gram staining except It is considered a differential stain All bacteria can be detected using this staining method It gives clue about the quality of the specimen

All bacteria can be detected using this staining method

The following statement are true except Gram + positive bacteria with have a thick peptidoglycan layer Gram – bacteria have an outer lipid bilayer Gram + bacteria will have an outer lipid layer Gram – bacteria will have a thin peptidoglycan layer

Gram + bacteria will have an outer lipid layer

THis bacteria structure is most often target of antibiotics Outer membrane Cell wall Capsule Lipopolysaccharide

Cell Wall

This test will differentiate streptococcus pneumoniae from alpha hemolytic streptococci PYR test LAP test Bile solubility Bacitracin

Bile solubility

What population is at risk for necrotizing enteritis Newborn Toddlers Unvaccinated children Preterm infants

Preterm infants

Specimen of choice for pediatric patient suspected of Tb Sputum Induced Sputum Bronchial alveolar lavage Gastric lavage

Gastric lavage

The following statement are true regarding chlamydia except The elementary body is metabolically inert The reticulate body is the infective form The elementary is the extracellular form

The reticulate body is the infective form

Which Sero variant of chlamydia can cause ocular trachoma Ba L1 L1A K

Which of the following is transmitted by Chiggers Rickettsiae Orientia tsutsumagushi

Orientia tsutsumagushi

What attenuated strain of mycobacteria is present in the BCG vaccine M bovis M africanum M leprae

M bovis

What type of motility is seen on dark field microscopy of vibrios Tumbling Corkscrew Darting Shooting star

Shooting Star

This is added to the medium Modified Thayer Martin agar to inhibit the growth of proteus

Trimethoprim

Selective media for isolation of your s. aureus Sheep blood agar Mannitol salt agar Chocolate agar Nutrient broth

Mannitol salt agar

Causative agent of your cat’s scratch disease

Bartonella

What is used to seen gastrci biopsy for detection of h. pylori Wright Giemsa Warthin-starry Gram stain H&E

Warthin-starry

Cultivation of Ricketssia Footpads of mice Footpads of armadillos Embryonated egg

Embryonated Egg

This associated with dental or surgical procedure often leading to tooth abscess

Viridans

Recommended sterilization technique to kill your prions Incineration Autoclave Dry heat Radiation

Incineration

Biosafety cabinet offers the most protection

Class III

Mycobacterium tuberculosis is considered what type of biosafety level?

Level III

Preservative used for stool specimen

Poly vinyl alcohol

Exhibits satellite phenomenon

Haemophilus

Double zone of

C. Perfringes

Causative agent of Yaws T. pallidum subspecies pallidum T. pallidum subspecies pertenue

T. pallidum subspecies pertenue

Mode of transmission of Flu (?) fever Endogenous Fomites Inhalation

Inhalation

TRUE OR FALSE: Direct microscopy examination is performed on all specimens.

False

TRUE OR FALSE: Malachite green used for acid fast staining.

False

TRUE or FALSE: Slide coagulase test detects clumping factor

True

TRUE or FALSE: A positive Hippurate hydrolysis test will show yellow color.

FALSE

TRUE or FALSE: Enterococci is resistant to high salt concentration.

TRUE

TRUE or FALSE: Cutaneous diphtheriae is caused by non-toxigenic strains only.

FALSE

TRUE or FALSE: Blood Culture for typhoid fever is positive during hte 1st week of illness.

TRUE

TRUE or FALSE: Haemophilus is very sensitive to drying and extreme temperatures.

TRUE

Complications of mumps. Parotitis Meningitis Swelling Orchitis

Meningitis & Orchitis

Toxin-mediated diseases of s.areus. Food poisoning Ritter syndrome Toxic shock syndrome Folliculitis

Food poisoning Ritter syndrome Toxic shock syndrome

Specimen suitable for anaerobic culture. Pleural fluid Blood CSF Expectorated sputum

Pleural fluid Blood CSF

A positive gram stain with a negative culture may indicate. Poor transport methods Old culture media Excess exposure to air during processing Poor medtech skills

Poor transport methods Old culture media Excess exposure to air during processing

Specimens used for the diagnosis of mucormycosis. Tissue Sputum Nasal discharge Blood

Tissue Sputum Nasal discharge

Causes bloody diarrhea. S. aureus Enteroinvasise E. coli Shigella

Enteroinvasise E. coli Shigella

Produces odor in culture. Proteus Eikenella Pseudomonas C. difficile

Proteus Eikenella Pseudomonas C. difficile

Normal microbiota in humans. S. aureus H. influenzae S. agalactiae diptheria

S. aureus H. influenzae S. agalactiae

Types of Fire Extinguisher. A B C D

A B C

Anticoagulant used in the microbio lab. SPS EDTA Heparin Citrate

SPS Heparin

Rejection of unacceptable specimens. Vaginal swab for anaerobic culture Foley-catheter tips for culture Nasopharyngeal for anaerobic culture Specimen was received in fixative

Vaginal swab for anaerobic culture Foley-catheter tips for culture Nasopharyngeal for anaerobic culture Specimen was received in fixative

Viruses with cytoplasmic inclusion bodies. Rabies CMV Poxvirus Herpes simplex virus

Rabies Poxvirus

This can cause subacute endocarditis. S. aureus Eikenella Kingella S. epidermidis

S. aureus Eikenella Kingella

Characteristics of nocardia. Gram + Saprophyte Aerobic Partially acid fast

Gram + Saprophyte Aerobic Partially acid fast

Can cause UTI. P. aeruginosa E. coli P. mirabilis S. saprophyticus

P. aeruginosa E. coli P. mirabilis S. saprophyticus

Vertical Transmission. Syphilis Hep b L. monocytogenes S. aureus

Syphilis Hep b L. monocytogenes

Colors of the fire diamond. Red Yellow Blue Green

Red Yellow Blue

Specimens that do not require decontamination for the recovery of mycobateria. Sputum Joint fluid Urine CSF

Joint Fluid CSF

Symptoms of rickettsia. Fever Lympadenopathy Rash Headache

Fever Lympadenopathy Rash

Sexually transmitted. N. gonorrhaea K. granumolatis C. trachomatis H. ducreyi

N. gonorrhaea K. granumolatis C. trachomatis H. ducreyi

This are these agar media found towards Bordetella pertussis Bordet-Gengou Regan-Lowe

Regan-Lowe

Mycobacteria that occur in humans that is capable of causing tuberculosis. M. bovis M. tuberculosis M. africanum M. kansasii

M. bovis M. tuberculosis M. africanum

Symptoms of congenital syphilis. Saber shin Deafness Maxilla Blindness

Deafness Blindness

Swarming colonies. P. mirabilis C. tetani P. vulgari S. pneumoniae

P. mirabilis C. tetani P. vulgari

Necessary for the growth of heamophilus. NAD V Factor Hemin X Factor

NAD V Factor Hemin X Factor

Causes of bacterial meningitis. N. meningitidis S. pneumoniae H. influenzae K. pneumoniae

N. meningitidis S. pneumoniae H. influenzae

Symptoms of scarlet fever. Rash Lymphadenopathy Strawberry tongue Honey-crust lesions

Rash Strawberry tongue

Naturally inhabitant of the human vagina. Candida G. vaginalis Neisseria Lactobacillus

G. Vaginalis Lactobacillus

This gives the surface of gram – negative bacteria a negativecharge: a. Mycolic acid (gives TB its acid – fastness property) b. Outer membrane c. Periplasm d. Lipopolysaccharide

d. Lipopolysaccharide

This method of sterilization is applied to substances that areheat – sensitive: a. Filtration b. Radiation c. Cold sterilization d. Oxidation

a. Filtration

This serves as prophylaxis for newborn to prevent ocularNeisseria gonorrhoeae infections: a. Erythromycin b. Silver nitrate c. Povidone – iodine d. Kanamycin

a. Erythromycin

The following statements are true, except: a. Haemophilus, Streptococcus, and Neisseria are examplesof organisms that can undergo transformation. b. Transduction is mediated by viruses capable of infectingbacteria. c. All plasmids are capable of conjugative transfer. d. Transposition is when genetic elements excise from onegenomic location to another

c. All plasmids are capable of conjugative transfer.

Ratio of sodium hypochlorite recommended by CBC forcleaning table tops after blood spills: a. 1:5 b. 1:10 c. 1:20 d. None of the above

b. 1:10

The following statements are true regarding specimencollection, except: a. Specimen should be collected during acute phase of anillness. b. Serum for serologic studies can be frozen at -70C for up to1 week. c. Neisseria meningitidis is sensitive to temperature changes. d. Processing should be done upon receipt in the laboratory

b. Serum for serologic studies can be frozen at -70C for up to1 week.

This anticoagulant is commonly used for viral cultures: a. EDTA b. Citrate c. SPS d. Heparin

d. Heparin

This is added to transport media to absorb fatty acids. a. Buffer b. Antibiotics c. Charcoal d. Indicator

c. Charcoal

The following statements are true, except: a. Direct microscopic examination is done to all specimens. b. All processing should begin with a gross examination ofthe specimen. c. Sterile fluid should be given priority for processing. d. Mislabeled specimen should be rejected

a. Direct microscopic examination is done to all specimens.

Inhibits the growth of gram – positive organisms inMacConkey. a. Phenol red b. Crystal violet c. Ferric ammonium citrate d. Lactose

b. Crystal violet

The presence of this enzyme allows the release of water andoxygen from hydrogen peroxide.What test is being described? a. Oxidase b. Catalase c. Oxidation reaction d. Coagulase

b. Catalase

what is the positive result of catalase test? a. Bubble formation b. Purple color c. Clot formation d. Red ring

a. Bubble formation

5 years old male, fully - vaccinated, seen due to appearance ofbright red rash on his cheeksassociated with low grade fever and nasal discharge. What is thecausative agent? a. Envelope virus with icosahedral nucleocapsid and lineardouble – stranded DNA. b. Naked nucleocapsid with single stranded positive polarityRNA. c. Envelope virus with icosahedral nucleocapsid and onepiece of single stranded positive polarity RNA. d. Non-enveloped, icosahedral, single stranded DNA.

d. Non-enveloped, icosahedral, single stranded DNA.

Mode of transmission of the causative agent: a. Transplacental b. Respiratory secretions c. All of the above d. None of the above

c. All of the above

Major site of viral replication. a. Capillaries of the skin b. Bone marrow c. Placenta d. Neurons

b. Bone marrow

What is the diagnosis? a. Measles b. Varicella c. Shingles d. Erythema infectiosum

d. Erythema infectiosum

This is considered the safest method of sterilization: a. Incineration b. Autoclave c. Boiling d. Pasteurization

a. Incineration

Major virulence factor for Staphylococcus aureus? a. Capsule b. Coagulase c. M protein d. Slime layer

b. Coagulase

This is considered the simplest method of sterilization: a. Incineration b. Autoclave c. Boiling d. Pasteurization

b. Autoclave

Universal precaution: a. Treat all blood and other body fluids as potentially infectious except sweat b. Reduce the risk of HBV transmission in clinical laboratories and blood banks c. Treat all blood and other body fluids as potentially infectious d. Treat all body fluids as potentially infectious

a. Treat all blood and other body fluids as potentially infectious except sweat

Maintains the integrity of trophozoites and ova: a. Boric acid b. Buffered formalin c. Stuart’s medium d. Polyvinyl alcohol

d. Polyvinyl alcohol

This absorbs the fatty acids in the transport medium: a. Dyes b. Antibiotics c. Charcoal d. Glycerol

c. Charcoal

Concentration of SPS: a. 0.023% b. 0.024% c. 0.025% d. 0.026%

c. 0.025%

Refrigerator temperature: a. 3 deg. C b. 4 deg. C c. 5 deg. C d. 6 deg. C

b. 4 deg. C

Anticoagulant used for viral cultures: a. No anticoagulant b. EDTA c. SPS d. Heparin

d. Heparin

Nutritive media for fungi: a. Trypic soy agar b. Sabouraud’s dextrose agar c. Nutrient agar d. Chocolate agar

b. Sabouraud’s dextrose agar

Culture media that supports a wide range of most organisms: a. Differential media b. Nonselective media c. Enrichment media d. Selective media

b. Nonselective media

MacConkey agar is a differential and selective media: a. True b. False

a. True (it will differentiate the lactose and nonlactose fermenters)

Dye present in MacConkey agar: a. Phenol red b. Crystal violet c. Gentian blue d. Neutral red

b. Crystal violet

Indicator in MacConkey agar: a. Phenol red b. Crystal violet c. Gentian blue d. Neutral red

d. Neutral red

These organisms can grow in only low levels of oxygen: a. Strictly aerobic b. Microaerophilic c. Anaerobic d. Facultative anaerobe

b. Microaerophilic

These organisms require increased concentrations of carbon dioxide: a. Microaerophiles b. Anaerobe c. Capnophiles d. Facultative anaerobe

c. Capnophiles

They exist as double stranded, closed, circular, autonomously replicating extrachromosomal genetic elements: a. Jumping genes b. Episomes c. Plasmids d. Nucleoid

c. Plasmids

This type of genetic exchange is seen when an organism develops antibiotic resistance: a. Conjugation b. Transformation c. Transduction d. Plasmid transfer

b. Transformation

Recipient cell uptakes free DNA and integrates into the recipient cell’s DNA: a. Conjugation b. Transformation c. Transduction d. Plasmid transfer

b. Transformation

This structure is present in numerous amounts in gram-positive bacteria: a. Techoic acids b. Thick peptidoglycan layer c. Thin peptidoglycan layer d. Myolic acids

a. Techoic acids

Microscopically, if an organism is acid fast positive: a. Red organism with a dark green background b. Red organism with a blue green background c. Blue organism in a red background d. Blue organism in a green background

b. Red organism with a blue green background

This structure is present in numerous amounts in gram-positive bacteria: a. Techoic acids b. Thick peptidoglycan layer c. Thin peptidoglycan layer d. Myolic acids

a. Techoic acids

b. Red organism with a blue green background

Determines the mechanism of replication of the viral genome: a. Nucleic acid genome b. Viral capsid c. Viral genome structure d. Nucleic acid core

c. Viral genome structure

Has tissue tropism to mucosal or cutaneous tissue: a. Parvovirus B19 b. HSV1 c. VZV d. Human papillomavirus

d. Human papillomavirus

Most specific marker for diagnosis of acute Hepatitis B infection: a. HbsAg b. HbcAg c. Anti-HbcAg IgM d. Anti-HbsAg IgM

c. Anti-HbcAg IgM

If there is a delay in examination for dermatophytes specimen, they should be refrigerated: a. True b. False

b. False

Birds on a fence: a. Tricophyton spp. b. Mucorales c. Epidermophyton sp. d. Fusarium spp.

a. Tricophyton spp.

Presumptive identification of Group A Betahemolytic streptococci from other Betahemolytic streptococci: a. PYR test b. CAMP test c. Growth on blood agar d. Bacitracin susceptibility test

d. Bacitracin susceptibility test

Test used to differentiate Group B streptococci from other streptococci: a. PYR test b. CAMP test c. Growth on blood agar d. Bacitracin susceptibility test

b. CAMP test

What is the principle of the correct test above: a. Certain organisms produce diffusible extracellular hemolytic test that acts synergistically with the beta-lysin of S. aureus to cause enhanced lysis of RBCs b. Detection of beta-napthylamine producing a bright red precipitate c. Disk impregnated with bacitracin allowing the antibiotic to diffuse into the plates, after inoculation, the plates are examined for zone of inhibition. Any ZOI greater than 10 mm is susceptible d. Hemolysis is enhanced in anaerobic conditions, stabbing of the agar should be done

a. Certain organisms produce diffusible extracellular hemolytic test that acts synergistically with the beta-lysin of S. aureus to cause enhanced lysis of RBCs

Which of the following is FALSE of streptococci pneumoniae? a. Gram negative lancet-shaped bacilli b. Gram positive lancet-shaped cocci c. Positive quelling test d. Alpha hemolytic

a. Gram negative lancet-shaped bacilli

Used for the presumptive identification of catalase-negative gram-positive cocci: a. LAP test b. PYR test c. Quelling test d. Bile solubility test

a. LAP test

Associated with dental or surgical procedures often leading to tooth abscess: a. Viridans b. Eikenella corrodens c. Staphylococcus epidermidis d. Kingella kingae

a. Viridans (S. mutans – dental care)

CS, 35 years old, female, known smoker, alcoholic beverage drinker, and IV drug user has been diagnosed with acute endocarditis since 201540. What is the risk factor present in the history that predisposes the patient to develop the disease? a. Alcoholic beverage drinker’ b. Smoker c. IV drug user d. Female

c. IV drug user

The organism that is responsible for the disease has the ff. characteristics: a. Gram-positive cocci in clusters, betahemolytic on sheep blood agar, ferments mannitol, coagulase positive, catalase positive b. Gram-positive cocci in clusters, nonhemolytic on sheep blood agar, catalase positive, coagulase negative, novobiocin sensitive (epidermidis) c. Gram-positive cocci in chains, betahemolytic on sheep blood agar, catalase negative, bacitracin sensitive (pyogenes) d. Gram-positive cocci in chains, betahemolytic on sheep blood agar, catalase negative, bacitracin sensitive (agalactiae)

a. Gram-positive cocci in clusters, betahemolytic on sheep blood agar, ferments mannitol, coagulase positive, catalase positive

What is the most common heart valve involved? a. Mitral valve b. Tricuspid valve c. All of the above d. None of the above

b. Tricuspid valve

This organism is non-motile, gram-negative rod that is seen in infections resulting from human bites: a. Viridans b. Eikenella corrodens c. Staphylococcus epidermidis d. Kingella kingae

b. Eikenella corrodens

ML, 38 years old, male, sexually active, came in due to a painful ulcer found on his genitals, he also noted several lesions surrounding his genital area, and inguinal lymphadenopathy What do you expect on gram staining the ulcer? a. Pleomorphic coccibacilli b. Small coccibacilli with occasional cells appearing as tangled fragments c. Slender, coccibacillary described as school of fish d. Small pleomorphic form or sometimes long filamentous forms

c. Slender, coccibacillary described as school of fish (ducreyi)

ML, 38 years old, male, sexually active, came in due to a painful ulcer found on his genitals, he also noted several lesions surrounding his genital area, and inguinal lymphadenopathy What is the most likely organism isolated? a. Treponema pallidum b. Heamophilus ducreyi c. Neisseria gonorrohea d. None of the above

b. Heamophilus ducreyi

B. False

Organisms that CAN be detected using gram’s stain: a. Ureaplasma b. Chlamydia c. Mycobacteria d. Spirochetes

c. Mycobacteria Reason: a. Ureaplasma (intracellular, cell wall deficient) b. Chlamydia (intracellular) d. Spirochetes (needs dark-field microscopy to be seen)

Selective medium for isolation of S. aureus a. Sheep blood agar b. Mannitol salt agar c. Chocolate agar d. Nutrient broth

b. Mannitol salt agar

This organism is the causative agent for the major cause of preventable blindness worldwide: a. Chlamydia trachomatis b. Neisseira gonorrheae c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae d. Chlamydia psittaci

a. Chlamydia trachomatis

Gram-negative rods exhibiting bipolar staining that resembles a closed safety pin: a. Yersinia pestis b. Enterobacter aerogenes c. Escherichia coli d. Klebsiella pneumoniae

a. Yersinia pestis

Described to cause community-acquired atypical pneumonia that can occur singly or cause outbreaks in families and military recruit camps: a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae b. Klebsiella pneumoniae c. Haemophilus influenzae d. Ureaplasma urylyticum

a. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

What is used to stain gastric biopsies for detection of helicobacter pylori? a. Wrights giemsa stain b. Warthin-starry stain c. Gram stain d. H and E stain

b. Warthin-starry stain

Causative agent for Cat Scratch disease: a. Bartonella henselae b. Bartonella quintana c. Bartonella alsatica d. Bartonella bacilliformis

a. Bartonella henselae

This step in viral replication is also termed as adsorption: a. Attachment b. Penetration c. Viral entry d. Uncoating

a. Attachment

What compound is present of there is a red color on the Voges Proskauer test? a. Acetoin b. Glucose c. Amino acids d. Lactose

a. Acetoin

Identify the organism MAC: non-lactose fermenter, swarming colonies with characteristic smell IMViC: -, +, -, - ONPG: + Urea: + a. Proteus vulgaris b. Proteus mirabilis c. Escherichia coli d. Klebsiella pneumoniae

b. Proteus mirabilis (negative indole)

This virulence factor of Pseudomonas is a polysaccharide polymer that inhibits phagocytosis: a. Capsule b. Pili c. Alginate d. Catalases

c. Alginate

This virulence factor of Pseudomonas protects the organism from reactive oxygen species: a. Capsule b. Pili c. Alginate d. Catalases

d. Catalases

This test differentiates Vibrios from Aeromonas: a. String test b. Quellung test c. CAMP test d. Growth on CIN agar

a. String test (Vibrio +)

Most common typeable strain of Haemophilus: a. Type 1 b. Type A c. Type B d. Type 2

c. Type B

Which of the following organisms exhibitsatellite phenomenon? a. Staphylococcus aureus b. Haemophilus influenzae c. Haemophilus ducreyi d. Streptococcus pneumoniae

b. Haemophilus influenzae

Small coccobacilli that resemble fine grains of sand: a. Brucella b. Moraxella c. Bordatella d. Francisella

a. Brucella

Young colonies are small and shiny and resemble drops of mercury: a. Brucella b. Moraxella c. Bordatella d. Francisella

c. Bordatella

Diagnosis of botulism a. Elek test b. Culture c. Demonstration of toxin d. Gram staining

c. Demonstration of toxin

What toxin is produced by Clostridium tetani? a. Enterotoxin b. Tetanospasmin c. Exotoxin A d. Clostridium toxin

b. Tetanospasmin

Causative agent of a gastrointestinal disease that causes bowel necrosis and inflammation in low-birth-weight infants: a. Clostridium tetani b. Clostridium perfringes c. Clostridium botulinum d. Clostridium difficile

b. Clostridium perfringes (NEC; necrotizing entercolitis)

Causative agent of donovanosis: a. Klebsiella granulomatosis b. Chlamydia trachomatis c. Treponema pallidum d. Yersinia pestis

a. Klebsiella granulomatosis

This organism has a predilection to the gallbladder: a. Salmonella typhi b. Salmonella choleraesuis c. Salmonella enteritidis d. Salmonella typhimurium

a. Salmonella typhi

This organism multiplies in the Peyer’s patches: a. Salmonella typhi b. Salmonella choleraesuis c. Salmonella enteritidis d. Salmonella typhimurium

a. Salmonella typhi

What organism is associated with complicated UTI? a. Proteus mirabilis b. Proteus vulgaris c. Escherichia coli (most common UTI) d. Staphylococcus saprophyticus (sexually active females)

a. Proteus mirabilis

This pigment is the key to the identification of Serratia marcesens: a. Prodiglosin b. Staphyloxanthin (S. aureus) c. Pyocyanin (Pseudomonas) d. Violacein (Chromobacterium violaceum)

a. Prodiglosin

AL, 25 years old, male, came in due to complaints of abdominal cramps and fever for the past 4 days. He said that he developed watery stools that eventually became bloody stools since yesterday What is the most likely organism that will be isolated? a. Shigella dysenteriae b. Escherichia coli c. Klebsiella pneumoniae d. Salmonella typhi

a. Shigella dysenteriae

What is being released during cell lysis in your string test? a. DNA b. RNA c. Capsule d. Lipopolysaccharide

a. DNA

These are pieces of DNA that move from one genetic element to another and in unable to replicate independently: a. Transposable elements / jumping genes b. Plasmids c. Episomes d. Nucleosomes

a. Transposable elements / jumping genes

This is the causative agent of Hansen disease: a. Mycobacterium africanum b. Mycobacterium leprae c. Mycobacterium microti d. Mycobacterium bovis

b. Mycobacterium leprae

Specimen/s stored at refrigerator temperature if there is delay: 1. Urine 2. Viral specimens 3. Sputum 4. Serum for serology

1. Urine 2. Viral specimens 3. Sputum

Specimen label 1. Patient’s name 2. Date of collection 3. Source 4. Doctor

1. Patient’s name 2. Date of collection 3. Source

Specimen requisition 1. Patient’s name 2. Date of collection 3. Source 4. Doctor

1. Patient’s name 2. Date of collection 3. Source 4. Doctor

Rejection of unacceptable specimens: 1. Improperly stored specimen 2. Transport time less than 2 hours 3. Improperly labelled specimen 4. Fixation with formalin

1. Improperly stored specimen 3. Improperly labelled specimen

Common direct fungal stain/s: 1. KOH 2. Gram stain 3. Calcofluor white 4. Auramine rhodamine

1. KOH 3. Calcofluor white

Present in gram-positive bacteria 1. Outer membrane 2. Inner membrane 3. Periplasmic space 4. Techoic acids

2. Inner membrane 4. Techoic acids

DNA virus/es with linear DNA: 1. Parovovirus 2. Hepadnavirus 3. HPV 4. Papillomavirus

1. Parovovirus 3. HPV

Can establish latency: 1. EBV 2. HSV-1 3. VZV 4. HSV-6

1. EBV 2. HSV-1 3. VZV 4. HSV-6

RNA viruses that replicate in the cytoplasm: 1. Influenza virus 2. Reovirus 3. Retrovirus 4. Rotavirus

1. Influenza virus 3. Retrovirus

Staining methods for Pneumocystis jirovecii: 1. Lactophenol cotton blue 2. Giemsa 3. H and E 4. Calcofluor white

2. Giemsa 4. Calcofluor white

Complication/s of streptococcal infection: 1. Strep throat 2. Glomerulonephritis 3. Impetigo 4. Rheumatic fever

2. Glomerulonephritis 4. Rheumatic fever

Causes of bacterial meningitis: 1. Neisseria meningitidis 2. Streptococcus pneumoniae 3. Hemophilus influenzae 4. Klebsiella pneumoniae

1. Neisseria meningitidis 2. Streptococcus pneumoniae 3. Hemophilus influenzae

Factor/s that limit sterilization, disinfection, or decontamination: 1. Exposure time 2. Organic load 3. Presence of biofilm 4. Presence of cell wall

1. Exposure time 2. Organic load 3. Presence of biofilm

Approach to identification of Clostridium tetani: 1. Rods with terminal spores 2. Gram-negative, spore-forming bacilli 3. Swarming colonies 4. Gram-positive, nonspore-forming bacilli

1. Rods with terminal spores 3. Swarming colonies

This/these finding/s is/are seen in tertiary syphilis: 1. Neurosyphilis 2. Rashes on the palms and soles of the feet 3. Gummas 4. Saber shin

1. Neurosyphilis 3. Gummas

This/these agar media is/are found to work best for recovery of Bordatella pertussis: 1. Stainer-scholte 2. Bordet-gengou 3. Modified jones-kendrick charcoal 4. Regan-lowe

4. Regan-lowe

Risk factors associated with coagulasenegative staphylococci: 1. Prosthetic device implants 2. Catheterization 3. Immunosuppressive therapy 4. Needle stick injury

1. Prosthetic device implants 2. Catheterization 3. Immunosuppressive therapy

This virulence factors is not present in any other streptococci lancefield groups: 1. Streptolysin O 2. Streptolysin S 3. Hyaluronidase 4. M protein

4. M protein

Organism/s that produce a positive CAMP test: 1. Streptococcus pyogenes 2. Listeria monocytogenes 3. Staphylococcus aureus 4. Streptococcus agalactiae

2. Listeria monocytogenes 4. Streptococcus agalactiae

Approach to identification of Listeria monocytogenes: 1. Tumbling motility on nutrient broth 2. Umbrella pattern on semisolid media at room temperature 3. Cold enrichment 4. CAMP negative

1. Tumbling motility on nutrient broth 2. Umbrella pattern on semisolid media at room temperature 3. Cold enrichment

Factor/s needed for growth of Haemophilus spp. on culture media: 1. Hemin 2. X factor 3. NAD 4. Blood

1. Hemin 2. X factor 3. NAD

Bacillus anthracis will present/s with: 1. Cutaneous anthrax 2. Gastrointestinal anthrax 3. Injectional anthrax 4. Subcutaneous anthrax

1. Cutaneous anthrax 2. Gastrointestinal anthrax 3. Injectional anthrax

Causative agent/s of Bacterial vaginosis: 1. Gardnerella vaginalis 2. Mobiluncus 3. Lactobacillus 4. Neisseria gonorrhea

1. Gardnerella vaginalis 2. Mobiluncus 3. Lactobacillus

This type of genetic exchange is mediated by viruses capable of infecting bacteria: a. Conjugation b. Transformation c. Transduction d. Plasmid transfer

c. Transduction