Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Internship 2025 > Elsevier_AUBF > Flashcards

Elsevier_AUBF Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The specific gravity of the glomerular ultrafiltrate is____________.
    a. 1.000
    b. 1.010
    c. 1.025
    d. 1.040
A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q
  1. In an unpreserved urine specimen left at room temperature overnight, which of the following will haveincreased?

a. Bacteria and nitrite
b. Specific gravity and bilirubin
c. Glucose and ketones
d. Urobilinogen and protein

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
  1. A first morning specimen would be requested to confirm which of the following?

a. Diabetes insipidus
b. Fanconi’s syndrome
c. Urinary tract infection
d. Orthostatic proteinuria

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
  1. Failure to collect the last specimen of a timed urinecollection will:

a. Cause falsely increased results
b. Affect the preservation of glucose
c. Cause falsely decreased results
d. Adversely affect reagent strip results

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q
  1. Which of the following is the principle of the reagentstrip test for pH?

a. A double indicator reaction
b. The protein error of indicators
c. The diazo reaction
d. A dye-binding reaction

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q
  1. Which of the following best describes the chemicalprinciple of the protein reagent strip?

a. Protein reacts with an immunocomplex on the pad
b. Protein causes a pH change on the reagent strip pad
c. Protein accepts hydrogen ions from an indicatordye
d. Protein causes protons to be released from apolyelectrolyte

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q
  1. Which of the following is the principle of the reagentstrip test for glucose?

a. A double sequential enzyme reaction
b. Copper reduction
c. The peroxidase activity of glucose
d. Buffered reactions of mixed enzyme indicators

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
  1. Glucosuria not accompanied by hyperglycemia can be seen with which of the following?

a. Hormonal disorders
b. Gestational diabetes
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Renal disease

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q
  1. Which of the following will cause ketonuria?

a. Ability to use carbohydrates
b. Adequate intake of carbohydrates
c. Decreased metabolism of carbohydrates
d. Excessive loss of carbohydrates

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
  1. Reagent strip reactions for blood are based on whichof the following?

a. Pseudoperoxidase activity of hemoglobin
b. Oxidation of hemoglobin peroxidase
c. Reaction of hemoglobin with bromothymol blue
d. Reduction of a chromogen by hemoglobin

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q
  1. Myoglobinuria may be caused by which of thefollowing?

a. Decreased glomerular filtration
b. Incompatible blood transfusions
c. Strenuous exercise
d. Biliary obstruction

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q
  1. A patient with severe back pain comes to the emergency department. A urine specimen has a 1 + reagentstrip reading for blood and a specific gravity of1.030. This can aid in confirming a diagnosis of_________________.

a. Pyelonephritis
b. Appendicitis
c. Renal calculi
d. Multiple myeloma

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q
  1. When a reagent strip is positive for bilirubin, it can beassumed that the bilirubin:

a. Is conjugated
b. Has passed through the small intestine
c. Is attached to protein
d. Is unconjugated

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q
  1. Which of the following results would be seen in urinefrom a patient with autoimmune hemolytic anemia?

a. Bilirubin=negative, urobilinogen=negative
b. Bilirubin=positive, urobilinogen=positive
c. Bilirubin=positive, urobilinogen=negative
d. Bilirubin=negative, urobilinogen=positive

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q
  1. Which of the following is the principle of the reagentstrip test for specific gravity?

a. Disassociation of the indicator bromothymolblue, producing a pH change
b. Ionization of a polyelectrolyte, producing a pHchange detected by bromothymol blue
c. Disassociation of polyelectrolyte, producing a pHchange detected by bromothymol blue
d. Change in the pK of bromothymol blue to produce a pH change

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q
  1. The presence of dysmorphic red blood cells in theurine sediment is indicative of which of the following?

a. A coagulation disorder
b. Menstrual contamination
c. Urinary tract infection
d. Glomerular bleeding

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q
  1. The location of epithelial cells in the urinary tract indescending order is:

a. Squamous, transitional, renal tubular
b. Transitional, renal tubular, squamous
c. Renal tubular, transitional, squamous
d. Squamous, renal tubular, urothelial

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q
  1. Urinary casts are formed in which of thefollowing?

a. Distal tubules and collecting ducts
b. Distal tubules and loops of Henle
c. Proximal and distal tubules
d. Proximal tubules and loops of Henle

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q
  1. The test for which of the following results should berepeated?

a. Positive blood and protein
b. pH 7.0 with ammonium biurate crystals
c. Positive nitrite and leukocyte esterase
d. pH 5.0, WBCs, and triple phosphate crystals

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q
  1. Anti–glomerular basement antibody is seen with:

a. Wegener’s granulomatosis
b. IgA nephropathy
c. Goodpasture’s syndrome
d. Diabetic nephropathy

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q
  1. The most common composition of renal calculi is:

a. Calcium oxalate
b. Magnesium ammonium phosphate
c. Cystine
d. Uric acid

22
Q
  1. Pyelonephritis can be differentiated from cystitis bythe presence of _________________.

a. Eosinophils
b. Hyaline casts
c. White blood cell casts
d. Bacteriuria

23
Q
  1. Children develop a form of nephrotic syndrome called:

a. IgA nephropathy
b. Henoch-Scho¨nlein purpura
c. Minimal change disease
d. Acute glomerulonephritis

24
Q
  1. Focal segmental glomerular nephritis is associatedwith which of the following?

a. Untreated streptococcal infections
b. Heroin abuse
c. Diabetes mellitus
d. Autoimmune disorders

25
27. Which of the following would be most characteristicof chronic glomerulonephritis versus acute glomerular nephritis? a. Red blood cells and red blood cell casts b. Hyaline casts and mucus c. Waxy and broad casts d. Proteinuria
C
26
28. Which of the following results is not consistent with cystitis? Color: Yellow Protein: 1 + Blood: Trace Clarity: Hazy Glucose: Negative Urobilinogen:1.0 EU Specific gravity: 1.015 Ketones: Negative Nitrite: Positive pH: 7.0 Bilirubin: Negative Leukocyteesterase: ++ 80-100 WBC/hpf 10-15 renal tubular epithelial cells/hpf 5-10 red bloodcells/hpf Many bacteria a. pH b. Protein c. 5 to 10 RBC/hpf d. 10 to 15 renal tubular epithelial cells/hpf
D
27
29. Cerebrospinal fluid is produced primarily by whichof the following? a. Secretion by the choroid plexus cells b. Diffusion from the plasma into the central nervous system c. Ultrafiltration of plasma in the choroid plexuses d. Excretions from the ependymal cells lining thecentral nervous system
C
28
30. Three tubes of cerebrospinal fluid are submitted to thelaboratory. They are numbered l, 2, and 3 and showblood in all tubes but decreasing in amount in tubesl through 3. This observation should be interpreted as: a. The tubes were numbered in wrong sequence,because an increasing amount of blood wouldbe expected b. A traumatic or bloody tap and in all likelihood ofno pathogenic significance c. The pathologic presence of RBCs and reported toyour supervisor immediately d. A pathologic presence of RBCs, but because theRBC morphology is normal, the importance isminimal
B
29
31. An IgG index greater than 0.80 is indicative of whichof the following? a. Synthesis of IgG within the CNS b. Alterations in the blood-brain barrier c. Active demyelination of neural tissue d. Increased reabsorption of IgG from theperipheral blood
A
30
32. Which of the following can decrease CSF protein? a. Fluid leakage b. Meningitis c. Multiple sclerosis d. Hemorrhage
A
31
33. CSF lactate is used to verify cases of which of thefollowing? a. Multiple sclerosis b. Bacterial meningitis c. Reye’s syndrome d. Tertiary syphilis
B
32
34. Which of the following can be used to identify a fluidas CSF? a. Oligoclonal bands b. Xanthochromia c. Transferrin t protein d. Absence of glucose
c
33
35. Oligoclonal bands are significant in the diagnosis ofmultiple sclerosis when: a. They are seen in both the serum and CSF b. At least five bands are seen in the CSF c. They are seen in the CSF and not in the serum d. They appear in both the albumin and globulinfractions of serum and the CSF
c
34
36. Calculate the sperm count on a 3-mL semen specimen with a concentration of 12,000/mL. a. 4000/mL b. 12,000/mL c. 20,000/mL d. 36,000/mL
d
35
37. The most important sugar found in semen is______________. a. Sucrose b. Maltose c. Fructose d. Lactose
C
36
38. The mucin clot test determines the presence of synovial fluid ______________. a. Protein b. Glucose c. Fibrinogen d. Hyaluronic acid
D
37
39. What is added to synovial fluid to determine theviscosity? a. Sodium hydroxide b. Acetic acid c. Hydrochloric acid d. Hyaluronic acid
B
38
40. Crystals that appear needle-shaped under polarizedlight and are yellow when aligned with the slowvibration of compensated polarized light are______________. a. Monosodium urate b. Calcium pyrophosphate c. Hydroxyapatite d. Corticosteroid
A
39
41. The fluid that builds up between the serous membranes is ____________. a. A transudate b. An abscess c. An exudate d. An effusion
D
40
42. Which of the following sets of results most closelyindicates a transudate? a. Clear, fluid-to–serum LD ratio: 0.8, fluid-to–serum protein ratio: 0.7, WBC count: 1000/mL b. Cloudy, fluid-to–serum LD ratio: 0.5, fluidto–serum protein ratio: 0.6, WBC count:1200/mL c. Cloudy, fluid-to–serum LD ratio: 0.8, fluidto–serum protein ratio: 0.7, WBC count: 2500/mL d. Clear, fluid-to–serum LD ratio: 0.45, fluid-to–serum protein ratio: 0.40, WBC count: 800/mL
D
41
43. The most likely cause of increased neutrophils is apericardial fluid exudate is ______________. a. Tuberculosis b. Bacterial endocarditis c. Cardiac puncture d. Pneumonia
B
42
44. Pleural fluid is obtained by which of the following? a. Paracentesis b. Pneumocentesis c. Thoracentesis d. Pulmonary puncture
C
43
45. Which of the following tests is used to differentiatebetween an effusion caused by cirrhosis and onecaused by peritonitis? a. Absolute neutrophil count b. Fluid-to–serum bilirubin ratio c. Serum-ascites gradient d. Serum to LD ratio
A
44
46. Amniotic fluid for fetal lung maturity testing shouldbe preserved ______________________. a. In the refrigerator b. At room temperature c. In a dark container d. At 37 C
A
45
47. Which of the following results of a test on the motherwould suggest a possible neural tube defectin the fetus? a. A positive antibody screen b. A glucose value of 140 mg/dL c. An a-fetoprotein result of 0.1 MOM d. An a-fetoprotein result of 3.0 MOM
D
46
48. A pale, frothy stool is indicative of which of thefollowing? a. Barium testing b. Osmotic diarrhea c. Steatorrhea d. Excess carbohydrates
C
47
49. The acid steatocrit test is performed to analyze whichof the following? a. Grossly bloody stools b. Qualitative fecal fats c. Carbohydrate reabsorption d. Quantitative fecal fats
d
48
50. The most sensitive fecal enzyme test for the diagnosis of pancreatic insufficiency measures_____________. a. Lipase b. Trypsin c. Elastase I d. Chymotrypsin
C
49
74. Which of the following sets of results most closelyindicates an exudate? a. Clear, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.8, ratio offluid to serum protein of 0.7, WBC count of1000/mL b. Cloudy, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.4, ratioof fluid to serum protein of 0.5, WBC count of800/mL c. Cloudy, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.8, ratioof fluid to serum protein of 0.7, WBC count of2500/mL d. Clear, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.45, ratioof fluid to serum protein of 0.40, WBC count of800/mL
c. Cloudy, ratio of fluid to serum LD of 0.8, ratioof fluid to serum protein of 0.7, WBC count of2500/mL
50
98. Which of the following pairings of crystals andcauses is not correct? a. Calcium oxalate crystals and antifreeze ingestion b. Uric acid crystals and patients receivingchemotherapy c. Cystine crystals and not clinically significant d. Amorphous phosphate crystals and not clinically significant
c. Cystine crystals and not clinically significant
51
65. All of the following characteristics are consistentwith the appearance of normal cerebrospinal fluidexcept: a. Crystal clear b. CSF protein of 20 mg/dL c. IgG index of 0.70 or less d. WBC count greater than 100/mL
d. WBC count greater than 100/mL
52
4. The presence of waxy casts in a microscopic examination of urine is consistent with a diagnosis of: a. Strenuous exercise b. Pyelonephritis c. Glomerulonephritis d. Chronic renal failure
d. Chronic renal failure7

Internship 2025 (12 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions