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Block A - Molecules to Global Health COPY > Basic science > Flashcards

Basic science Flashcards

basic science, introduction to blood, ANS

1
Q

what’s particular with the dilantin and opioids in regards to therapy

A

They’re effective therapies that have been used for decades or millennia without an understanding of their underlying molecular mechanism of action

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2
Q

when did the idea that ongoing study of the structure and function of the human body could improve medical practice emerged ?

A

Renaissance

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3
Q

what was Popper’s view of the scientific method ?

A

no experiment can prove a hypothesis true or even increase our confidence in it. Experiments can only prove hypothesis false.

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4
Q

does science in practice conform to Poppers formula ?

A

No. Science doesn’t always involve explicit testing of hypotheses. Furthermore, hypothesis testing doesn’t merely exclude false hypotheses. It can also increase our confidence in hypotheses we believe are correct.

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5
Q

where are Nav1.7 channels selectively expressed ? what are they ?

A

in nociceptors (voltage-gated sodium channel)

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6
Q

Inherited erythromyelalgia (IE)

A

disorder characterized by episodes of redness and pain in the feet and hands. It can often be triggered by warmth or mild exercise.

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7
Q

Is IE hereditary ?

A

Yes (inherited erythromyelalgia, you dumb)

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8
Q

What cause IE ?

A

mutations in the Nav1.7 sodium channel (shift the voltage-dependance of the channel to activate to more negative potential; the channel is easier to open)

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9
Q

what causes congenital insensitivity to pain ?

A

mutation in Nav1.7 that cause non-functional channels

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10
Q

how these data about Nav1.7 are relevant to clinical practice ?

A

drugs that selectively inhibited Nav1.7 might be especially effective for treating pain.

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11
Q

the 2 numbers you need to remember for cell size (e.coli and red blood cells)

A
  • e.coli is 1 micrometers

- a red blood cell is 7 micrometers

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12
Q

4 primary tissues that are constituting organs and organ systems

A
  1. epithelia
  2. connective tissue (fills space between epithelia)
  3. muscle (within connective tissue)
  4. nervous tissue (within connective tissue)
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13
Q

what’s a glycocalyx

A

cell coat of carbohydrates

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14
Q

ribosome role

A

translate mRNA into protein (situated on the rER)

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15
Q

sER role

A

detox and lipid metabolism and synthesis and calcium storage

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16
Q

difference between sER and rER

A

the sER is way more tubular, less linear

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17
Q

golgi apparatus role

A

transformation post-transcription pour pouvoir envoyer les protéines nouvellement construite dans la matrice extracellulaire (transport of proteins through cell, and secretion)
- cells goes from CIS TO TRANS

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18
Q

heterochromatin

A

when the DNA is condensed

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19
Q

euchromatin

A

when the DNA is dispersed, for transcription

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20
Q

3 main types of cytoskeleton and their role

A
  1. microtubules : primary organisation
  2. intermediate filaments : structural support
  3. microfilaments : cell movement (like actin)
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21
Q

microtubule is pat of what structure important for mitosis ?

A

centrosome (important for formation of mitotic spindle)

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22
Q

what is always at the base of the epithelia ?

A

basement membrane (basal lamina)

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23
Q

how to you name the different kind of epithelium ?

A

always name them from the shape of the cells that are on the lumen side

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24
Q

what’s the epithelium of the skin ?

A

stratified squamous (keratinized) : a coat of dead cells on top of alive ones

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25
Q

different cell shape for epithelium

A
  1. squamous (mou, rond)
  2. cuboidal (cube)
  3. columnar (colonnes)
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26
Q

different cell number for epithelium

A
  1. simple (une couche)
  2. stratified (+ une couche)
  3. pseudostratified (tous touche à la BM, mais pas organisé pcq plein de petites cellules qui poussent)
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27
Q

different stratum epithelium of the skin

A

from the top of the skin

  1. stratum CORNEUM
  2. stratum GRANUSOLUM
  3. stratum SPINOSUM
  4. stratum GERMINATIVUM
  5. basement membrane
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28
Q

most commun type of connective tissue ?

A

collagen fibrils

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29
Q

what are the 2 types of connective tissue ? Qu’est-ce qui les différencient ?

A
  1. CT proper : loose, intermediate, etc.

2. CT specialized : + minerals - bone, cartillage, teeth.

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30
Q

what’s amorphous ground substance ?

A

everything else in the EM (between fibres, resists compressive forces)

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31
Q

what are elastic fibre useful for ? what’s it 2 units of construction ?

A
  • what makes the blood vessel retrack (and other organs)

- made of microfibrils and elastin

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32
Q

mast cells

A

cells waiting for allergens and release histamine/heparin/leukocyte chemotactic factors

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33
Q

lysosome role

A

membranous vesicules of hydrolitic enzymes used for the controlled degradation of macromolecules

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34
Q

mesenchymal cells

A

stem cells that lie in the EM, adult stem cell (can make anything tissue)

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35
Q

endosome

A

deliver their contents to lysosomes via the endocytic pathway

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36
Q

peroxisomes

A

produce hydrogen peroxide and then use it to oxidaze a variety of other substrate such as alcohol and other toxic molecules that enter the bloodstream

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37
Q

what do fibroblast make ?

A

collagen and elastic fibers

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38
Q

roles of binding and connective tissue

A
  1. connects tissues and provide a flexible support
  2. nutritive and excretory role
  3. role in the defense of the body against infection
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39
Q

cells of connective tissue

A
  1. mesenchyme
  2. fibroblast/fibrocyte
  3. macrophage
  4. mast cell
  5. plasma cell
  6. adipocyte
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40
Q

plasma cells

A

specialized in synthesis of proteins as antibodies

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41
Q

where do the nerves of parasympathetic systems are ?

A

cranio-sacral

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42
Q

where do the nerves of sympathetic systems are ?

A

thoraco-lumbar

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43
Q

are the parasympathetic ganglia closer of further from target that sympathetic ?

A

closer

44
Q

what is the main post-ganglionic neurotransmitter for the PNS

A

acetylcholine (Ach)

45
Q

what is the main pré-ganglionic neurotransmitter for the PNS

A

Ach

46
Q

what is the main pré-ganglionic neurotransmitter for the SNS

A

Ach

47
Q

what is the main post-ganglionic neurotransmitter for the SNS

A

norepinephrine ou epinephrine ou noradrenaline ou adrenaline

48
Q

what are the 3 main structures that control the ANS ?

A
  1. insular cortex
  2. hypothalamus
  3. nucleus of the tractus solitarius
49
Q

how do you call all the ganglions of the sympathetoc system ?

A

sympathetic chain

50
Q

A first-order sympathetic neuron in the hypothalamus synapses on a second order neuron in the intermediolateral cell column of the spinal cord. The second order neuron does 1 of 3 things

A
  1. the first synapse on a «third order» neuron in the sympathetic chain (para-vertebral ganglia) that will then innervate a target organ
  2. synapsing on a third-order neuron in one of 4 pre-vertebral ganglia
  3. directly innervate the neuro-endocrine cells of the adrenal medulla
51
Q

when the adrenal medulla is stimulated, what does it secretes ?

A

epinephrine and norepinephrine directly into the bloodstream (as hormones)

52
Q

what arepostural vital signs ? how can it help you diagnose ?

A

Check BP and HR while lying down
• Have the patient stand and check them again
• Normally there is a small postural drop in blood pressure compensated by tachycardia, before both return to normal
• An excessive* or prolonged drop in BP, or an absence of a compensatory tachycardia, are abnormal

53
Q

what senses the change in BP ?

A

baroreceptors in the carotids sinus

54
Q

how does the brainstem responds to increases in BP ?

A

by increasing parasympathetic outputs (diminuer le HR et le contractibility

55
Q

how does the brainstem responds to a decrease in BP ?

A

by increasing sympathetic outputs (augmenter le HR, la contractibility et la PVR (peripheral vascular resistance))

56
Q

what structures aren’t innerved by the parasympathetic . system ?

A

blood vessels and sweat glands

57
Q

adrenergic receptors

A

receptors for catecholamines (adrenaline + epinephrine) in the sympathetic

58
Q

muscarinique et nicotinic receptors

A

Ach (para)

59
Q

is there innervation of the bronchial smooth muscle by the sympathetic nervous system ?

A

No, done by release of epinephrine by adrenal glands

60
Q

in the case of asthma, what kind of medication can be used ?

A
  • first line of treatment is inhaled beta-agonist (to dilate the bronches)
  • anticholinergic medications are also used (to block the parasympathetic nervous system which constrict the airways
61
Q

what can happen if the beta-blockers and alpha-blocker used to treat chronic hypertension are too strong ?

A

they can prevent the compensation for postural hypotension

62
Q

what happens with blood when you after you give it ?

A
  1. filtered to removes lymphocytes
  2. tested for multiple infectious diseases (HIV, HEPA and B, syphillys, etc.)
  3. centrifuged to separate into packed RBCs, platelets and plasma
63
Q

what is the utility of frozen plasma ?

A

coagulation factors and usually used for people with significant bleeding problems

64
Q

what are factor concentrates ?

A

manifactured by fractionnation from large pools of human plasma and used for replacement of specific factors in a patient.

65
Q

what’s cryoprecipitate ?

A

manifactured by freezing plasma and collecting the precipitate, used a lot in patient having massive traumas

66
Q

what are the neutrophils useful for ?

A

bacterial and fungal immunity

67
Q

what are the eosinophils useful for ?

A

parasites and allergies

68
Q

what are the lymphocytes useful for ?

A

viral infections

69
Q

where do platelets arise from ?

A

megakaryocytes in bone marrow

70
Q

what are platelets useful for ?

A

they interact with proteins from coagulation cascade and lead to blood clotting

71
Q

when fully oxygenated, hemoglobin form _______. Once deoxygenated, they form ______

A

a) relax state

b) tense state

72
Q

at higher pressure of O2, is more of less Hgb oxygenatted ? where is this kinda pressure then ?

A

more. In the lungs (versus less in the capillaries to relâche oxygen)

73
Q

what’s a CBC?

A

complete blood count (includes white blood cells, red blood cells and platelets count)

74
Q

why is the hemoglobin higher in men ?

A

because of testosterone levels

75
Q

normal CBC for white cells ?

A

4 - 11 x 10^9

76
Q

normal CBC for hemoglobin

A

120-160

77
Q

normal CBC for platelets

A

150-400 x 10^9

78
Q

define anemia

A

red blood cell number, hemoglobin or hematocrit below the normal range

79
Q

de quoi est constituée l’hemoglobin

A

oxygen carrying protein in red blood cells (2 alpha and 2 beta chains with 4 heme groups)

80
Q

what’s the etiology of sickle cell anemia ?

A

mutation in beta chain (hemoglobin)

81
Q

what’s the etiology of thalassemia ?

A

defect in production of alpha of beta chains (hemoglobin)

82
Q

hematocrit

A

% of red blood cells in known blood volume

83
Q

reticuocytes

A

immature red blood cells which still contain ribosomal RNA. These normally circulate in the peripheral blood.

84
Q

MCV

A

mean blood cell volume; average SIZE of red blood cells (should be between 80-95 fl)

85
Q

microcytosis

A

MCV<80 = small blood cells

86
Q

macrocytosis

A

MCV >95 red blood cells larges

87
Q

erythropoiesis

A

formation of new red blood cells

88
Q

under what is the control of erythropoiesis ?

A

the level of erythropoiesis is under the control of erythropoietin, a hormone produced by the renal tubule cells which sense the O2 levels in blood. The kidney will then make more erythropoietin to tell the bone marrow to make more blood cells (more reticulocytes in blood then)

89
Q

possible cause of anemia

A
  1. Deficiency of “building blocks” for red blood cells
  2. Congenital abnormality of the content of red blood cells
  3. Abnormality in the production site of red blood cells
  4. Loss of red blood cells: Bleeding
  5. Decreased lifespan of red blood cells in the circulation (<120 days): Hemolysis
  6. Chronic illness: Suppressed erythropoiesis
90
Q

what are the different building block that you can lacks in anemia ?

A
  1. iron, stored in the form of ferritin
  2. vitamin B12
  3. folate
91
Q

name 2 congenital abnormality of Hgb in red blood cells

A
  1. thalassemia

2. sickle cells

92
Q

what are the different abnormality that can happen in the production site of red blood cells leading to anemia ?

A
  1. empty bone marrow

2. bone marrow filled with other elements (leukemia, lymphooma, cancer)

93
Q

what hemolysis

A

decreased lifespan of red blood cells in corps (usually leads to anemia). Increased breakdown of red blood cells. An elevated reticulocyte count is often first clue.

94
Q

signs of anemia (physical exam)

A
  1. pallor, nails changes (koilonichia), smooth tongue
  2. bleeding
  3. infection/bruising (indicate bone marrow failure)
  4. jaundice
95
Q

how is jaundince and red blood cells linked ?

A

When red blood cells are broken down in the circulation, hemoglobin is released. The heme portion is then broken down into bilirubin. If the rate of RBC destruction is rapid, bilirubin may build up in the blood leading to jaundice.

96
Q

what are the best laboratory investigation for anemia ?

A
  1. CBC
  2. reticulocyte count
  3. MCV
97
Q

what does anemia and high reticulocyte count mean ?

A

bone marrow working fine (souvent bleeding of hemolysis or nutritional deficiency on replacement)

98
Q

what does anemia and normal or low retic number mean ?

A

abnormal erythropoiesis or bone marrow disfunction

99
Q

anemia + microcytosis mean ?

A
  • iron deficiency (heme)
  • thalassemia
  • chronic disease
100
Q

anemia + macrocytosis SUPER high (megalocytosis) mean ?

A
  • abnormality in SNA synthesis
  • vitamin B12 deficiency
  • folate deficiency
  • drugs (chemotherapy
101
Q

anemia + macrocytosis high (macrocytosis) mean ?

A
  • reticulocytosis
  • liver disease
  • thyroid disease
102
Q

cause of hemolysis ?

A
  1. extracorpular
  2. red blood cell membrane
  3. hemoglobin
  4. enzyme defects
103
Q

what are the extracorpular cause of hemolysis ?

A

either

  • AUTOIMMUNE : AIHA (the body makes anti-body against own red blood cells
  • NON-IMMUNE : mechanical (heart valves that break red blood cells when it sends them to circulation)
104
Q

what are the red cell membrane cause of hemolysis ?

A
  1. hereditary elliptocytosis

2. hereditary spherocytosis

105
Q

what are the hemoglobin cause of hemolysis ?

A
  1. sickle cell anemia

2. thalassemia major

106
Q

Coomb’s test

A

mesures IgG on surface of red blood cells = autoimmune

107
Q

haptoglobin

A

carries hemoglobin in the circulation. When you mesure it in somebody with hemolysis, it’s low because it’s bound to your hemoglobin

Block A - Molecules to Global Health COPY (8 decks)

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