Bio: Ch 3, 10 Flashcards
(205 cards)
1
Q
fertilization
A
joining of a sperm and an ovum
2
Q
ampulla
A
widest part of the fallopian tube
3
Q
where does fertilization usually occur
A
occurs in the ampulla of hte fallopian tube
4
Q
how does fertilization happen?
A
- sperm uses acrosomal enzymes to penetrate the corona radiata and zona pellucida
- once it contacts the oocyte’s plasma membrane, the sperm establishes the acrosomal apparatus and injects is pronucleus
5
Q
cortical reaction
A
occurs after penetration of sperm through cell membrane
- sperm causes release of calcium ions –> prevents additional sperm from fertilizing the egg
- increases the metabolic rate of the resulting diploid zygote
6
Q
fertilization membrane
A
depolarized and impenetrable membrane after cortical reaction
7
Q
fraternal (dizygotic) twins result from
A
fertilization of two eggs by two different sperm
8
Q
identical (monozygotic) twins result from
A
splitting of a zygote in two
9
Q
monozygotic twins vs dizygotic twins
placenta
A
monozygotic: one placenta
dizygotic: two separate
10
Q
cleavage
A
early divisions of cells in the mebryo
result in a larger number of smaller cells, as the overall volume does not change
11
Q
zygote becomes an embryo after…
A
first cleavage because it is no longer unicellular
12
Q
indeterminate cleavage
A
results in cells that are capable of becoming any cell in the organism
13
Q
determinate cleavage
A
results in cells that are committed to differentiating into a specific cell type
14
Q
morula
A
solid mass of cells seen in early development
15
Q
blastulation
A
morula is formed into a blastula
16
Q
blastula (blastocyst)
A
hollow ball of cells
blastocoel - fluid filled center
two different structures: trophoblast and inner cell mass
17
Q
blastocoel
A
fluid filled center of blastula
18
Q
trophoblast
A
part of blastula that surround the blastocoel
give rise to the chorion and later the placenta
19
Q
inner cell mass
A
part of blastula
becomes the developing organism
20
Q
what does the blastula do?
A
implants in the endometrial lining and forms the placenta
21
Q
chorion
A
extraembryonic membrane that develops into the placenta
contains chorionic villi
22
Q
chorionic villi
A
part of chorion
penetrate the endometrium and create the interface between maternal and fetal blood
23
Q
before the placenta is established, the embryo is supported by…
A
the yolk sac
24
Q
allantois
A
involved in early fluid exchange between embryo and yolk sac
25
amnion
lies just inside the chorion
produces amniotic fluid
26
umbilical cord
connects the developing organism to the placenta
27
gastrulation
generation of 3 distinct cell layers: ectoderm, mesoderm, endoderm
* archenteron is formed with a blastopore at the end
* as the archenteron grows through the blastocoel, it contacts the opposite side, establishing three primary germ layers
28
ectoderm becomes
skin, hair, nails, epithelia of nose, mouth, anal canal
nervous system
lens of the eye
29
mesoderm becomes
musculoskeletal, circulatory, and excretory system
gonads, adrenal cortex
30
endoderm becomes
epithelial linings of respiratory and digestive tracts
parts of pancreas, thyroid, bladder, and distal urinary tracts
31
neurulation
development of nervous system
notochord, neural tube, neural crest cells
32
what happens after gastrulation
neurlation
33
neurulation
notochord
induces group of overlying ectodermal cells to form neural folds surrounding a neural groove
34
neurulation
neural folds
fuse to form the neural tube
35
neural tube
becomes central nervous system
36
neural crest cells
becomes PNS and specific cell types in other tissues
37
teratogens
substances that interfere with development, causing defects or even death of the developing embryo
include: alc, certain drugs, viruses, bacteria, environmental chemicals
38
maternal conditions that can affect development
diabetes (inc fetal size and hypoglycemia after birth)
folic acid deficiency (neutral tube defects)
39
from zygote to gastrula, what are the various stages of development?
1. zygote
2. 2, 4, 8, 16 cell embryo
3. morula
4. blastula (blastocyst)
5. gastrula
40
during which stage of development does implantation occur?
blastula stage
41
specification
inital stage of cell specialization
cell is reversibly designated as a specific cell type
42
cell specialization stages
1. specification
2. determination
3. differentiation
43
determination
commitment to a specific cell lineage
44
pathways in which determination may occur
* uneven segregation of cellular material during mitosis
* morphogens
45
morphogens
cause neighboring cells to follow a particular developmental pathway
46
differentiation
the changes a cell undergoes due to selective transcription to take on characteristics appropriate to its cell type
cell assumes the structure, function, and biochem of that cell type
47
stem cells
cells that have not yet differentiated or that give rise to other cells that will differentiate
include: totipotent, pluripotent, multipotent
48
stem cells can be classified by...
potency
49
totipotent cells
able to differentiate into all cell types
including the 3 germ layers and placental structures
50
pluripotent cells
able to differentiate into all 3 of the germ layers and their derivatives
EXCEPT for those found in placental structures
51
multipotent cells
able to differentiate only into a specific subset of cell types
52
as cells become more differentiated, the potency of the cell \_\_\_\_
decreases
(from totipotent to pluripotent to multipotent)
53
inducer
releases factors to promote the differentiation of a component responder
54
responder
cell that is induced
55
to be induced, a responder must be...
competent
56
competent
able to respond to the inducing signal
57
autocrine signaling
acts on the same cell that released the signal
58
paracrine signalling
acts on local cells
59
juztacrine signalling
acts through direct stimulation of adjacent cells
60
endocrine signaling
acts on distant tissues after traveling through the blood stream
61
growth factors
peptides that promote differentiation and mitosis in certain tissues
includes most inducers
62
reciprocal induction
when two tissues both induce further differentiation in each other
63
most signalling occurs via...
gradients
| (includes morphogens)
64
apoptosis
programmed cell death via the formation of apoptotic blebs that can subsequently be absorbed and digested by other cells
65
apoptosis can be used for...
sculpting certain anatomical structures - such as removing the webbing between digits
66
apoptotic blebs can be broken apart into ____ and...
apoptotic bodies and digested by other cells
67
necrosis
process of cell death in which a cell dies as a result of injury
68
regenerative capacity
ability of an organism to regrow certain parts of the body
69
regenerative capacity of liver
high
70
regenerative capacity of heart
low
71
complete regeneration
lost or damaged tissues are replaced with identical tissues
72
incomplete regernation
the newly formed tissue is not identical in structure or function to the tissue that has been injured or lost
73
senescence
biological aging
result of multiple molecular and metabolic process
includes shortening of telomeres during cell division
74
what occurs at the placenta
nutrient, gas, and waste exchange occurs
75
how are oxygen and carbon dioxide exchanged in fetus?
passively exchanged due to conc gradients
76
fetal hemoglobin (HbF)
has higher affinity for oxygen than adult hemoglobin
affinity assists in the transfer and retention of oxygen into the fetal circulatory system
77
placenta and immunity
placental barrier serves as immune protection against many pathogens
antibodies are transferred from mother to child
78
placenta and endocrine system
placenta serves endocrine functions
secretes estorgen, progesterone, and human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG)
79
umbilical arteries
carry deoxygenated blood from the fetus to the placenta
(unlike most arteries)
80
umbilical vein
carries oxygenated blood from the placenta back to the fetus
(unlike most veins)
81
differences between fetal and adult circulation
fetus:
* three shunts (to direct blood away from organs as they develop)
* lungs and liver do not serve significant functions before birth
* gas exchange occurs at placenta
82
foramen ovale
fetal circulatory system
connects right atrium to left atrium, bypassing the lungs
83
ductus arteriosus
fetal circulatory system
connects pulmonary artery to aorta, bypassing the lungs
84
ductus venosus
fetal circulatory system
connects umbilical vein to inferior vena cava, bypassing the liver
85
what occurs during first trimester?
organogenesis: development of heart, eyes, gonads, limbs, liver, brain
86
what occurs during second trimester?
* tremendous growth
* movement beings
* face becomes distinctly human
* digits elongate
87
what occurs during third trimester?
* rapid growth and brain development contue
* transfer of antibodies to fetus
88
parturition
vaginal childbirth
89
afterbirth
placenta and umbilical cord are expelled
90
what occurs during birth?
1. cervix thins out
2. amniotic sac ruptures
3. uterine contractions, coordinated by prostaglandins and oxytocin
4. afterbirth
91
Are each of the following developing cell types Totipotent, Pluripotent, Multipotent, or Unipotent?
(1) Zygote cells
(2) Trophoblast cells
(3) Inner Cell Mass (ICM)
(1) Zygote cells are Totipotent.
(2) Trophoblast cells are Multipotent, only being able to form the cells found in the placenta.
(3) Inner Cell Mass (ICM) are Pluripotent, being able to form all cell types but those found in the placenta.
92
Pre-synaptic neurons communicating with Post-synaptic Neurons across the Synapse is an example of which type of cell-cell communication?
(A) Paracrine Signaling
(B) Autocrine Signaling
(C) Juxtacrine Signaling
(D) Endocrine Signaling
(A) Paracrine Signaling
Pre-synaptic neurons communicating with Post-synaptic Neurons across the Synapse is an example of Paracrine Signaling in which a cell sends out a signal to nearby cells.
93
Post-Mitotic Cells, as compared to Mitotic Cells, are likely in which stage of the cell cycle?
Post-Mitotic Cells are cells which can no longer undergo mitosis and divide into new cells. For this reason, these cells would be in G₀ of Interphase.
94
What does it mean to say that a cell is Senescent?
It is basically a mitotic cell that no longer divides. It is a mitotic cell that has entered G₀ of Interphase.
95
In what way is cells becoming senescent a good thing? Bad thing?
Cells becoming senescent is a good thing because it means that these cells will not become cancerous.
It is a bad thing because it leaves the tissue with a decreased ability to repair itself. Senescent cells are closely related to age-related diseases.
96
When in the womb, a baby girl's Oogonia divide and divide until their are between 2 to 4 million Oogonia. These Oogonia then begin to undergo Meiosis. At which point do they undergo "Meiotic Arrest"? What does that mean?
They will undergo Meiotic Arrest during Meiosis I. This basically means that the primary Oocytes are stuck in Meiosis I.
97
At which point is a Primary Oocyte stimulated to finish Meiosis I? Meiosis II?
A Primary Oocyte stimulated to finish Meiosis I during ovulation and Meiosis II during Fertilization.
98
Is the egg cell a primary or secondary oocyte when it is able to be fertilized? When does the transition to secondary oocyte occur?
The egg cell is a secondary oocyte when it is able to be fused with sperm.
In the ovary, the primary oocyte that escape meiotic arrest will divide into a secondary oocyte and another polar body
99
True or false? Chorionic Villi are almost like villi in the small intestine for the fetus in the basal plate, since they protrude into the basal plate, increase the surface area and facilitate the exchange of gases and nutrients.
True. Chorionic Villi are almost like villi in the small intestine for the fetus in the basal plate, since the protrude into the basal plate, increase the surface area and facilitate the exchange of gases and nutrients.
100
Which Uterine Phase is the longest, lasting 14 days out of 28 days?
(A) Menses
(B) Proliferative Phase
(C) Secretory Phase
(D) None of the above
(C) Secretory Phase
The Secretory Phase is the longest of the Uterine Phases, lasting 14 of the 28 days.
101
Which hormone directly triggers ovulation?
(A) Estrogen
(B) LH
(C) FSH
(D) Progesterone
(B) LH
LH pushes the development of the follicle to trigger ovulation.
102
If a blastocyst undergoes implantation, it creates human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) to keep the corpus luteum alive. hCG mimics which hormone?
(A) Estrogen
(B) Luteinizing hormone
(C) Progesterone
(D) Inhibin
(B) Luteinizing hormone
hCG mimics LH to keep the corpus luteum alive to be able to allow estrogen/progesterone to keep the endometrial lining for pregnancy.
103
Explain why you need to keep the endometrial lining intact for pregnancy.
The Endometrial Lining is where the blastocyst implants!
104
Which of the following occur in response to the increased amount of estrogen during pregnancy?
I. Suppress of FSH & LH
II. Growth of fetal organs
III. Maternal tissue growth
(A) I only
(B) II and III only
(C) I and II only
(D) I, II, and III only
(D) I, II, and III only
Estrogen during pregnancy allows for:
- suppression of FSH and LH
- growth of fetal organs
- maternal tissue growth
105
Match each of the following effects to either FSH, LH or neither.
I. Stimulate Sertoli Cells
II. Stimulate Leydig Cells
III. Trigger Sperm Maturation
IV. Stimulates Inhibin Production
V. Increases Seminiferous Tubule Development
I. Stimulate Sertoli Cells - FSH
II. Stimulate Leydig Cells - LH
III. Trigger Sperm Maturation - FSH
IV. Stimulates Inhibin Production - FSH
V. Increases Seminiferous Tubule Development - FSH
106
Put the following processes in order from first to last:
I. Implantation
II. Fertilization
III. Gestation
IV. Parturition
(A) I \> II \> III \> IV
(B) II \> I \> III \> IV
(C) IV \> III \> II \> I
(D) IV \> III \> I \> II
(B) II \> I \> III \> IV
In order from first to last:
Fertilization \> Implantation \> Gestation \> Parturition
107
What is the difference between Fertilization and Implantation?
Fertilization is the process by which the ovum and sperm join together, forming a Zygote.
Implantation describes the joining of the Zygote with the wall of the uterus.
108
When it is warm outside, how does the body regulate the position of the scrotum? What about when it is cold outside?
When it is warm outside, the body will cause the scrotum to hang down lower away from the body in order to decrease the temperature in the testes.
When it is cold outside, the body will cause the scrotum to retract up into the body in order to increase the temperature in the testes.
109
Briefly explain the functionality of the following accessory glands in terms of reproduction:
(1) Prostate Gland
(2) Bulbourethral Gland
(3) Seminal Vesicles
All of them contribute more fluid to the semen. In addition:
(1) Prostate Gland - Produces prostatic fluid which increases the motility of sperm.
(2) Bulbourethral Gland - Adds a thick lubricant for the urethra and vagina.
(3) Seminal Vesicles - creates a basic environment to neutralize the acidic environment of the urethra and vagina.
110
In creating sperm, there are two processes -- mitosis and meiosis. Using the following terms, describe the start and end of mitosis and meiosis.
I. Spermatogonia
II. Spermatids
III. Spermatocytes
IV. Sperm
Mitosis starts with spermatogonia and ends with primary spermatocytes.
Meiosis starts with primary spermatocytes and ends with spermatids.
Spermatids will then develop and grow into sperm.
111
Adult human cells have 46 chromosomes. How many chromosomes should you find in each of the following cell types?
(1) Spermatogonia
(2) Primary Spermatocytes
(3) Secondary Spermatocytes
(4) Spermatids
(5) Sperm
(1) Spermatogonia - 46
(2) Primary Spermatocytes - 46
(3) Secondary Spermatocytes - 23
(4) Spermatids - 23
(5) Sperm - 23
112
What are the main functions of testosterone in the male reproductive tract?
I. Makes reproductive organs male
II. Promotes sperm production
III. Inhibits female reproductive organ development
(A) I Only
(B) II Only
(C) I and II Only
(D) II and III Only
(C) I and II Only
Testosterone acts to make the reproductive organs male in a developing fetus. Testosterone also aids in promoting sperm production.
113
True or False? Almost all of your mitochondria originates from your mom.
True. Almost all of your mitochondria originates from your mom. The sperm has very few mitochondria compared to the egg.
114
When a single egg cell is fertilized by a sperm, the result is a:
(A) Morula
(B) Blastocyst
(C) Trophoblast
(D) Zygote
(D) Zygote
A zygote is formed when a single egg cell is fertilized by a sperm.
115
Put the following steps in order from first to last:
I. Blastulation
II. Cleavage
III. Neurulation
IV. Gastrulation
V. Fertilization
VI. Implantation
(A) V \> IV \> I \> II \> III \> VI
(B) V \> III \> IV \> I \> II \> VI
(C) V \> II \> I \> VI \> IV \> III
(D) V \> IV \> I \> VI \> II \> III
(C) V \> II \> I \> VI \> IV \> III
The following steps of embryogenesis are in order from first to last:
V. Fertilization
II. Cleavage
I. Blastulation
VI. Implantation
IV. Gastrulation
III. Neurulation
116
During cleavage, the zygote doesn't grow but rather splits into multiple cells in a process known as cleavage. At what point does the zygote become known as morula? At what point does the morula become known as a blastula?
When the zygote has divided into 16 different cells, it is known as a morula.
The morula becomes known as a blastula once a hollow cavity develops.
117
## Footnote
CRB True or false? Conjoined Twins result from failures in the Cleavage Stage.
False.
Conjoined Twins result from a failed, partial-division in the zygote stage before cleavage.
If this division had been successful, monozygotic twins would have been born.
118
CRB Compare Indeterminate and Determinate Cleavage. Which can form monozygotic twins?
Indeterminate Cleavage will produce cells that could still develop into complete organisms, and could form monozygotic twins.
Determinate Cleavage produces cells that are committed to a certain cell lineage.
119
As the amniotic cavity begins to develop within the Inner Cell Mass, the blastocoel becomes a primitive version of the:
(A) Amion
(B) Chorion
(C) Yolk Sac
(D) Placenta
(C) Yolk Sac
As the amniotic cavity begins to develop within the Inner Cell Mass, the blastocoel becomes a primitive version of the yolk sac.
120
The notochord develops within the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_. The neural plate develops within the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_.
(A) Ectoderm, Mesoderm
(B) Mesoderm, Ectoderm
(C) Endoderm, Mesoderm
(D) Mesoderm, Endoderm
(B) Mesoderm, Ectoderm
The notochord develops within the mesoderm. The neural plate develops within the ectoderm.
121
excretory system functions
1. regulation of
1. blood pressure
2. blood osmolarity
3. acid base balance
2. removal of nitrogenous wastes
122
cortex and medulla
hilium - contains renal artery, renal vein, ureter
123
kidney
produces urine
124
urine journey
kidney \> ureter \> bladder \> urethra
125
renal hilium
part of kidney
deep slit in center of ikidney's medial surface
126
penal pelvis
widest part of ureter
127
kidney structure
cortex and medulla
hilium - contains renal artery, renal vein, ureter
128
portal system
two capillary beds in series through which blood must travel before returning to the heart
129
portal system
blood flow
blood from renal artery \> afferent arterioles \> glomeruli in bowman's capsule (1st capillary bed) \> efferent arteriole \> vasa recta (second capillary) \> renal vein
130
glomeruli
highly convoluted capillary tufts derived from afferent arterioles
131
vasa recta
capillaries that surround the loop of henle
132
detrusor muscle
+nervous system control?
muscular lining of the bladder
under parasympathetic control
133
internal urethral sphincter
smooth muscle
under parasympathetic (involuntary) control
134
external urethral sphincter
skeletal muscle
under voluntary control
135
urination process
1. bladder full --\> stretch receptors tell nervous system
2. detrusor muscle contracts
3. internal sphincter relaxes (micturiton reflex)
4. person chooses next:
1. relax external sphincter to urinate
2. can maintain external sphincter to prevent urination
5. abdominal muscles contract --\> bladder compressed --\> urination
136
processes that allow the kidneys to participate in solute movement
* filtration
* secretion
* reabsorption
137
filtration
movement of solutes from blood to filtrate at bowman's capsule
direction and rate of filtration determined by starling forces
138
starling forces
governs movement of fluid into bowman's space
accounts for pressure differential in both hydrostatic and oncotic pressures between the blood and bowman's space
139
hydrostatic pressure in glomerulus is ___ than that in Bowman's space, which causes fluid to move into...
higher
nephron
140
osmolarity of blood in glomerulus is ___ than that of bowman's space, resulting in pressure...
higher
opposing the movement of fluid into the nephron
141
hydrostatic pressure in glomerulus is ____ than oncotic pressure, so net flow of blood is...
larger
into th enephron
142
secretion
movement of solutes from blood to filtrate anywhere other than bowman's capsule
143
readsorption
movement of solutes from filtrate to blood
taken back up for use
144
what kinds of substances would be readsorbed?
glucose, amino acids, vitamins, hormones
145
two main goals of kidney
1. keep what body needs and lost what it doesn't
2. concentrate urine to conserve water
146
major waste products excreted in urine
dump the HUNK
H+, urea, NH3, N+
147
solutes that enter the interstitium...
picked up by vasa recta to be turned to blood for reuse in body
148
interstitium
connective tissue surrounding the nephron
149
proximal convoluted tube (PCT)
site of bulk readsorption of glucose, amino acids, soluble vitamins, salt, water
site of secretion for hydrogen ions, potassium ions, ammonia, and urea
150
descending limb of loop of henle
permeable to water but not salt --\> as filtrate moves into more osmotically concentrated renal medulla, water is reabsorbed from filtrate
151
countercurrent mutiplier system
vasa recta and nephron flow in opposite directions --\> allows for maximal readsorption of water
152
ascending limb of loop of henle
permeable to salt but not water --\> salt is readsorbed both passively and actively
diluting segment
153
diluting segment
in outer medulla
filtrate becomes hypotonic compared to blood
154
collecting duct
responsive to both aldosterone and ADH
has variable permeability --\> allows for reabsorption of the right amount of water depending on the body's need
155
distal convoluted tubule (DCT)
responsive to aldosertone
site of salt reabsorption and wast product excretion, like the PCT
156
hormone systems that are activated when blood pressure and volume are low
aldosterone
ADH/vasopressin
157
aldosterone
type of hormone
steroid hormone
158
ADH
type of hormone
peptide hormone
159
how does kidney regulate pH?
selective readsorption or secretion of bicarbonate or hydrogen ions
160
aldosterone
regulated by
regulated by renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
161
aldosterone
kidney functions
increases sodium reabsorption in distal convoluted tubule and collecting duct --\> increases water readsorption --\> increase blood volume, with no change in blood osmolarity
162
ADH
synthesized by
synthesized by hypothalamus and released by posterior pituitary
163
ADH
release is stimulated by...
release is stimulated by low blood volume and high blood osmolarity
164
ADH
kidney function
increases permeability of collecting duct to water --\> increasing water readsorption --\> increases blood volume and decreases blood osmolarity
165
layers of skin
hypodermis (subcutaneous layer)
dermis
epidermis
166
epidermis layers
Come, Let's Get Sun Burned
1. stratum corneum
2. stratum lucidum
3. stratum granulosum
4. stratum spinosum
5. stratum basale
167
stratum basale
contains stem cells that proliferate to form keratinocytes
168
keratinocytes
produce keratin
169
stratum spinosum
site of langerhans cells
170
stratum granulosum
where keratinocytes die and lose their nuclei
171
stratum lucidum
only present in thick, hairless skin
172
stratum corneum
contains several dozen layers of flattened keratinocytes
173
melanocytes
produce melanin
174
melanin
protects the skin from DNA damage caused by UV radiation
175
Langerhans cells
special macrophages that serve as antigen presenting cells in the skin
176
dermis layers
1. papillary layer
2. reticular layer
177
hypodermis
contains fat and connective tissue and connects the skin the the rest of the body
178
sensory cells in dermis
merkel cells, free nerve endings, meissner's corpuscles, ruffini endings, pacinian corpuscles
179
sweating
draws heat form the body through evaporation of water from weat
180
sweat glands are innervated by...
postganglionic cholinergic sympathetic neurons
181
cooling mechanism of skin
* sweating
* vasodilation
182
warming mechanisms of skin
* piloerection
* casoconstriction
* shivering
* fat insulation
183
piloerection
arrector pili muscles contract --\> hairs stand on end --\> trap layer of warmed air around skin
184
skin prevents...
dehydration and salt loss from body
185
fingernails and hair are formed from
keratin
186
merkel cells
sensory receptors - deep pressure and texture sentation
187
meissner's corpuscles
respond to light touch
188
free nerve endings
respond to pain
189
ruffini endings
respond to stretch
190
pacinian corpuscles
responds to deep pressure and vibration
191
Which of the following can be thought of as a precursor to aldosterone?
(A) Cholesterol
(B) ADH
(C) Cortisol
(D) Testosterone
(A) Cholesterol
Upon receiving appropriate triggers, cholesterol is converted into aldosterone
192
Which of the following is the main site of filtration in the kidney?
(A) Distal convoluted tubule
(B) Loop of Henle
(C) Proximal convoluted tubule
(D) Glomerulus
(D) Glomerulus
The glomerulus is the main site of filtration.
193
What is the order of the parts of the nephron from first to last in terms of the direction of fluid flow?
I. Distal convoluted tubule
II. Proximal convoluted tubule
III. Collecting duct
IV. Bowman's Capsule
V. Loop of Henle
(A) IV \> V \> II \> I \> III
(B) IV \> I \> II \> V \> III
(C) IV \> II \> V \> I \> III
(D) IV \> V \> I \> II \> III
(C) IV \> II \> V \> I \> III
The order of the parts of the nephron from first to last in terms of the direction of fluid flow is as follows:
Bowman's Capsule \> Proximal convoluted tubule \> Loop of Henle \> Distal convoluted tubule \> Collecting duct
194
The fluid that is filtered in the glomerulus empties into which of the following structures?
(A) Bowman's Capsule
(B) Loop of Henle
(C) Proximal convoluted tubule
(D) Glomerulus
(A) Bowman's Capsule
The glomerulus is the main site of filtration and the filtrate empties into bowman's capsule.
195
The countercurrent multiplication system is based on the idea that _______________ is/are reabsorbed in the descending limb and _______________ is/are reabsorbed in the ascending limb. Explain why this allows for the absorption of a great deal of water.
The countercurrent multiplication system is based on the idea that water is reabsorbed in the descending limb and salts are reabsorbed in the ascending limb. By actively transporting salts into the interstitium, a high osmotic pressure is created. This high osmotic pressure will suck water out of the descending limb as the filtrate travels through it.
196
In which part of the Nephron would you find the Diluting Segment, which has thicker lining of the tubules and can actually produce urine more dilute than the blood?
(A) Proximal Convoluted Tubule
(B) Ascending Loop of Henle
(C) Descending Loop of Henle
(D) Distal Convoluted Tubule
(B) Ascending Loop of Henle
The Ascending Loop of Henle has the Diluting Segment, which has thicker lining of the tubules and can actually produce urine more dilute than the blood.
197
In the bloodstream, bicarbonate will cause the formation of which of the following products?
I. CO2
II. H2O
III. H+
(A) III only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(C) I and II only
HCO3- will combine with a proton to form CO2 and water.
198
To reinforce the Bicarbonate Buffer System, draw out the Bicarbonate Buffer System Equilibrium.
199
Which of the following can the kidney selectively increase or decrease, depending on the pH of the blood?
(A) H+
(B) HCO3-
(C) Both A and B
(D) Neither A nor B
(C) Both A and B
Both H+ and HCO3- can be selectively increased or decreased by the kidney to return to homeostasis.
200
Which of the following trigger the release of ADH from the pituitary gland?
I. Increased Blood Osmolarity
II. Increased Blood Volume
III. Increased Blood Pressure
(A) I Only
(B) II Only
(C) I and II Only
(D) I and III Only
(A) I Only
The triggers of ADH release are as follows:
- Increased blood osmolarity (increased number of dissolved particles in the blood).
- DECREASED blood volume.
- DECREASED blood pressure.
- Also remember that angiotensin II will trigger the release of ADH.
201
Which of the following does the Integumentary System include?
I. Glands
II. Skin
III. Hair
(A) II Only
(B) I and II Only
(C) II and III Only
(D) I, II, and III
(D) I, II, and III
The Integumentary System includes the following:
(1) Skin
(2) Appendages such as nails, hair, and glands
202
True or False? Your skin is impermeable to things such as water and viruses.
True. Your skin is impermeable to things such as water and viruses.
203
In an effort to protect your body from foreign invaders, your skin secretes which of the following?
I. Langerhans Cells
II. Antibodies
III. Lysozyme
(A) I Only
(B) II Only
(C) I and II Only
(D) II and III Only
(D) II and III Only
Your skin secretes Lysozyme and Antibodies.
Langerhans cells are located within your skin. They are not secreted.
204
In which layer of the epidermis do the keratinocytes begin to shrivel and become interconnected?
(A) Stratum Lucidum
(B) Stratum Granulosum
(C) Stratum Spinosum
(D) Stratum Basale
(C) Stratum Spinosum
Remember, this layer of skin is known as the "spinosum" because the shriveled, connected keratinocytes look like a spiny star.
205
The dermis has two layers: the papillary dermis and the reticular dermis. Which of these two layers is the most superficial?
The papillary dermis is the most superficial layer of the reticular dermis and is just below the stratum basale layer of the epidermis.
