Biology Final Flashcards by Skye S

Which of the following linkages would you expect to find at a branch point in glycogen or amylopectin?
A. Alpha 1,6 glycosidic linkage
B. Alpha 1,4 glycosidic linkage
C. Beta 1,4 glycosidic linkage
D. Beta 1,6 glycosidic linkage

A. Alpha 1,6 glycosidic linkage

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If you denature a protein such that all H-bonds are broken, what level of structure did you disrupt?
A. Secondary structure
B. Primary structure
C. Tertiary structure
D. Secondary and tertiary

D. Secondary and tertiary

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What is the pH of HC solution with a H+ concentration that is 5.9 * 10^-5 M?
A. 4.2 M
B. 4.23 M
C. 1.7 M
D. 5.9 M
E. 3.54 M

A. 4.2 M

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The partial positive charge in a molecule of water occurs because _____.
A. One of the hydrogen atoms donates an electron to the oxygen atom.
B. The oxygen atom forms hybrid orbitals that distribute electrons unequally around the oxygen nucleus.
C. The oxygen atom donates an electron to each of the hydrogen atoms.
D. The electrons shared between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms spend more time around the oxygen atom nucleus than around the hydrogen atom nucleus

D. The electrons shared between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms spend more time around the oxygen atom nucleus than around the hydrogen atom nucleus

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The molecule shown in the accompanying figure is _____.
A. A hexose
B. A phosphate
C. A maltose
D. A fructose
E. A pentose

A. A hexose

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The p53 protein is responsible for all of the following except one. Which of the following is not a function of the p53 protein.
A. In the event of DNA damage, p53 triggers the production of protein inhibitors that cause the cell to pause in G2.
B. In the event of DNA damage, p53 slows down the rate of DNA replication by interfering with the binding of DNA polymerase.
C. In the event of DNA damage, p53 activates DNA repair enzymes
D. P53 initiates apoptosis for cells that are damaged beyond repair

B. In the event of DNA damage, p53 slows down the rate of DNA replication by interfering with the binding of DNA polymerase.

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What are prions?
A. Viruses that invade bacteria.
B. Viral DNA that attaches itself to the host genome and causes disease.
C. Mobile segments of DNA
D. Tiny circular molecules of RNA that can infect plants.
E. Misfolded versions of normal protein that can cause disease.

E. Misfolded versions of normal protein that can cause disease.

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In the figure above, which is/are disaccharides? Choose all that apply.
A. 7
B. 5
C. 6
D. 13
E. 15

E. 15

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Using the figure above, which of the following molecules is a type of phospholipid commonly found in cell membranes?
A. 14
B. 1
C. 9
D. 5
E. 15

D. 5

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Using the figure above, which of the following molecules are amino acids. Choose all that apply.
A. 13
B. 8
C. 2
D. 7

B. 8
C. 2
D. 7

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The chemical reaction illustrated in the accompanying figure is a type of ______ reaction that results in a _______.
A. condensation; glycosidic bond
B. condensation; fatty acid polymer
C. condensation; peptide bond
D. hydrolysis; joins two phospholipids in a bilayer
E. hydrolysis; links two monomers to form a polymer

C. condensation; peptide bond

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Lipids that contain a high number of double bonds in their fatty acid chains will ______.
A. Have a higher melting temperature than lipids that contain few double bonds in their fatty acid chains.
B. Likely be liquid at room temperature
C. Contain more hydrogens than lipids that contain few double bonds in their fatty acid chains.
D. Have more carbons that rotaty freely than lipids that contain a few double bonds in their fatty acid chains.
E. Pack very tightly together at room temperature.

B. Likely be liquid at room temperature

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BRCA1 is a tumor suppressor gene involved in DNA repair. A mutation in the BRCA1 gene increases the risk of developing certain cancers, particularly breast and ovarian cancer. How does a BRCA1 mutation contribute to cancer development?
A. It causes cells to divide more rapidly than normal by increasing oncogene activity.
B. It increases apoptosis, preventing damaged cells from surviving.
C. It enhances immune system function, making cells more likely to be attacked.
D. It prevents the cell from repairing damaged DNA, leading to an accumulation of mutations.

D. It prevents the cell from repairing damaged DNA, leading to an accumulation of mutations.

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What type of linkage is found in this polysaccharide?
A. Beta 1,4 glycosidic linkage
B. Alpha 1,4 glycosidic linkage
C. Alpha 1,6 glycosidic linkage
D. Beta 1,6 glycosidic linkage

B. Alpha 1,4 glycosidic linkage

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What is the major structural difference between amylose and cellulose?
A. One uses glucose as the monosaccharide subunit while the other uses NAG
B. The amount of branching that occurs in the molecule.
C. One uses 1,4 glycosidic linkages while the other uses 1,6
D. Whether glucose is in the alpha or beta form

D. Whether glucose is in the alpha or beta form

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Some cancers are caused by viruses.
A. True
B. False

A. True

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What is the difference between an aldose sugar and a ketose sugar?
A. One is a ring form; the other is a linear chain.
B. The position of the carbonyl group.
C. The position of the hydroxyl groups
D. The number of carbons

B. The position of the carbonyl group.

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If you were going to develop a new anti-fungal drug against pathogenic fungi, you would probably need to become an expert on which of these carbohydrates?
A. Glycogen
B. Chitin
C. Peptidoglycan
D. Starch
E. Cellulose

B. Chitin

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Lettuce leaves that ar eimmersed in freshwater for serveral hours become crisp and stiff. Similar leaves left in a 0.15M salt solution wilt and become soft. From this, we can deduce that the freshwater ____.
A. Is hypertonic and the salt solution is hypotonic to the cells of the lettuce
B. And the salt solution are both hypertonic to the cells of the lettuce.
C. Is hypotonic and the salt solution is hypertonic to the cells of the lettuce.
D. Is iostonic and the salt solution is hypertonic to the cells of the lettuce.
E. And the salt solution and both hypotonic to the cells of the lettuce

C. Is hypotonic and the salt solution is hypertonic to the cells of the lettuce.

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Which of these is/are an unsaturated fat?
A. Oleic acid
B. Steric and Oleic acids
C. Linoleic acid
D. Stearic acid
E. Linoleic and Oleic acid

E. Linoleic and Oleic acid

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You have just discovered an organism that lives in extremely cold environments, Which of the following would you predict to be true about the phospholipids in its membranes, compared to phospholipids in the membranes of organims that live in warmer environments?
A .The membrane of phospholipids of cold adapted organisms will have more saturated hydrocarbon tails.
B .The membrane of phospholipids of cold adapted organisms will have longer hydrocarbon tails.
C .The membrane of phospholipids of cold adapted organisms will have more unsaturated hydrocarbon tails.

C .The membrane of phospholipids of cold adapted organisms will have more unsaturated hydrocarbon tails.

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Which two functional groups are always found in amino acids?
A. Ketone and methyl groups
B. Caronyl and imino groups
C. Hydroxyl and carboxyl groups
D. Carboxyl and amino groups
E. Amino and sulfhydryl groups

D. Carboxyl and amino groups

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Following the cell above through the cell cycle, which of the following would be observed at metaphase of mitosis?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
E. E

C. C

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Suppose you discovered a new amino acids. Its R-group contains only hydrogen, carbon and oxygen atmos. Predict the behavior of this amino acid.
A. It will be hydrophilic.
B. It will interact with other hydrophobic residues during folding.
C. It will not be soluble in water.
D. It will be positively charged

A. It will be hydrophilic.

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In the figure, G1 is represented by which numbered part(s) of the cycle? A. I or V B. II or IV C III only D. IV only E. V only

A. I or V

Asbestos is a material that was once used extensively in construction. One risk from working in a building that contains asbestos is the development of asbestosis caused by the inhalation of asbestos fibers. Cells will phagocytize asbestos but are not able to degrade it in their recycling centers. As a result, asbestos fibers accumulate in ______. A. ribosomes B. Peroxisomes C. Mitochondria D. Lysosomes

D. Lysosomes

A patient was involved in a serious accident and lost a large quantity of blood, an inexperienced observer suggest replenishing body fluids by adding distilled water the blood directly via one of their veins. What would be the most probable result of this transfusion? A. The patient's red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood has become hypotonic compared to the cells. B. The patient's red blood cells will shrivel up because the blood has become hypertonic compared to the cells. C. It will have no unfavorable effect as long as the water is free of viruses and bacteria. D. The patient's red blood cells will burst because the blood has become hypertonic compared to the cells.

D. The patient's red blood cells will burst because the blood has become hypertonic compared to the cells.

The R-group, or side chain, of the amino acid threonine is -CH2-CH3-OH. The R-group, or side chain, of the amino acid valine is -CH-(CH3)2. If these amino acids were found in a globular protein in an aqueous environment, where would you expect to find these amino acids? A. Threonine would be in the interior facing away from water, and valine would be on the exterior of the globular protein interacting with water. B. Valine would be in the interior facing away from water, and threonine would be on the exterior of the globular protein interacting with water. C. Valine and threonine would both be on the exterior of the globular protein. D. Threonine and valine would both be in the interior of the globular protein facing away from water.

B. Valine would be in the interior facing away from water, and threonine would be on the exterior of the globular protein interacting with water.

Which of the following crosses amphipathic lipid bilayers the fastest? A. A small polar molecule like water B. A large polar molecule like glucose C. A sodium ion D. A small nonpolar molecule like oxygen

D. A small nonpolar molecule like oxygen

Which of the following does not occur during mitosis? A. Replication of the DNA B. Separation of sister chromatids C. Spindle formation D. Separation of the spindle poles E. Condensation of the chromosomes

A. Replication of the DNA

In the figure, which number represents the S phase? A. I B. II C. III D. IV E. V

B. II

In an animal cell, DNA may be found ______. A. In the nucleus, mitochondria, and chloroplasts. B. Only in the nucleus and chloroplasts. C. Only in the nucleus and mitochondria D. Only in the nucleus E. In the nucleus, mitochondria, chloroplasts, and peroxisomes

C. Only in the nucleus and mitochondria

Some cancers are contagious. A. True B. False

A. True

Which macromolecules below has greater potential stored per gram? A. 2 (bottom molecule) B. They have the same potential energy stored per gram C. Impossible to determine by chemical structures D. 1 (top molecule)

D. 1 (top molecule)

Which of the following best describes a fundamental difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells? A. Prokaryotic cells lack ribosomes, while eukaryotic cells contain them B. Prokaryotic cells use RNA as their genetic material, while eukaryotic cells use DNA. C. Prokaryotic cells use peptidoglycan in their cell walls whereas eukaryotic cells do not. D. Eukaryotic cells have compartmentalized organelles that allow for specialized cellular functions, whereas prokaryotic cells do not.

C. Prokaryotic cells use peptidoglycan in their cell walls whereas eukaryotic cells do not.

Triglycerides are a major form of energy storage in animals and plants. Their physical state at room temperature depends largely on their fatty acid composition. Which of the following best explains why some triglycerides are solid while others are liquid at room temperature? A. Unsaturated triglycerides are solid because their double bonds allow for stronger intermolecular interactions. B. Triglycerides containing mostly saturated fatty acids have tightly packed molecules, leading to a higher melting point and solid state. C. Triglycerides with shorter fatty acid chains with double bonds always remain solid due to their compact molecular structure. D. Triglycerides containing saturated fatty acids have a lower melting point due to their linear structure, making them liquid at room temperature.

B. Triglycerides containing mostly saturated fatty acids have tightly packed molecules, leading to a higher melting point and solid state.

The evolution of eukaryotic cells most likely involved ________. A. An endosymbiotic functional cell evolving into the nucleus. B. Endosymbiosis of an aerobic bacterium in a larger host cell the endosymbiont evolved into mitochondria. C. Anaerobic archaea taking up residence inside a larger bacterial host cell to escape toxic oxygen- the anaerobic bacterium evolved into chloroplasts D. Acquisition of an endomembrane system and subsequent evolution of mitochondria from a portion of the Golgi apparatus

B. Endosymbiosis of an aerobic bacterium in a larger host cell the endosymbiont evolved into mitochondria.

Stanley Miller's 1953 experiments supported the hypothesis that _____. A. Organic molecules can be synthesized abiotically under conditions that may have existed on early Earth. B. The conditions on early Earth were conducive to the abiotic synthesis of organic molecules. C. The conditions on early Earth were conducive to the origin of life. D. Life on Earth arose from simple organic molecules, with energy from lightning and volcanoes E. Life on Earth arose from simple inorganic molecules.

A. Organic molecules can be synthesized abiotically under conditions that may have existed on early Earth.

A cell begins G1 phase with 12 unreplicated chromosomes. This cell undergoes S, G2, and M phases. How many chromosomes will the daughter cells contain? A. 24 B. 3 C. 6 D. 12

D. 12

Prokaryotic cells typically range in size from 1-10 micrometers. Express this in millimeters. A. 0.001-0.1 mm B. 0.001-0.01 mm C. 1*10^-6 -1*10^-3 mm D. 0.01-0.1 mm

A. 0.001-0.1 mm

Which of the following is characteristic of benign tumors? A. The formation of a mass of cells undergoing uncontrolled cell division B. A capsulated mass of cells. C. The ability to invade other tissues and spread to other parts of the body. D. Normal cell morphology

B. A capsulated mass of cells.

The cell cycle is a highly regulated process that ensures proper cell division. Which of the following correctly describes a key checkpoint in the cell cycle? A. The G1 checkpoint ensures that DNA has been fully replicated before the cell enters mitosis. B. The G2 checkpoint verifies that DNA replication was completed correctly before proceeding to mitosis. C. The M checkpoint occurs at the end of G1 and ensures the cells is large enough to divide. D. The S phase checkpoint determines if the mitotic spindle is correctly attached to the chromosomes before DNA replication begins.

B. The G2 checkpoint verifies that DNA replication was completed correctly before proceeding to mitosis.

A--(enzyme A)--->B--(enzyme B)--->C Refer to the metabolic pathway. If A, B, and C are all required for growth, a strain mutant for the gene encoding enzyme A would be able to grow on medium supplemented with _____. A. Nutrient A only B. Nutrient B or C C. Nutrient C only D. Nutrients A or C

B. Nutrient B or C

A man has extra digits (six fingers on each hand and each foot). His wife and their daughter have a normal number of digits. Having extra digits is a dominant trait. The couple's second child has extra digits. What is the probability that their next (third) child will have extra digits? A. 9/16 B. 1/16 C. 1/2 D. 1/8 E. 3/4

C. 1/2

A researcher is conducting an experiment to test the effectiveness of a new drug, XyloCure, on inhibiting bacterial growth. The experiment includes three Petri dishes: Dish A contains bacteria and a standard antibiotic known to inhibit bacterial growth, Dish B contains bacteria and XyloCure and Dish C contains bacteria with no treatment applied. After 24, bacterial growth is observed in Dishes B and C, but no growth was found in Dish A. What do the results suggest? A. The lack of bacterial growth in Dish A and Dish B suggests that both the standard antibiotic and XyloCure are effective in inhibiting bacterial growth. B. Because bacteria grew on the XyloCure plate, but not on the known positive control, it suggests XyloCure is not effective against this strain of bacteria. C. The lack of bacterial growth in Dishes A and B suggests Xylocure is less effective than a standard antibiotic. D. The bacterial growth in Dish C indicates that the experiment was contaminated and the results are thus invalid.

B. Because bacteria grew on the XyloCure plate, but not on the known positive control, it suggests XyloCure is not effective against this strain of bacteria.

A diploid organism has 10 total chromosomes (2n=10). At a given point in time, a cell from this organism has 10 total chromosomes and 20 sister chromatids. This cell could be at which of the following stages of cell division? A. Prophase I B. Directly before S phase C. Metaphase II D. Directly after meiosis II E. Prophase II

A. Prophase I

If a species is diploid and a certain gene found in the species has 18 known alleles. Any given individual of that species can/must have which of the following? A. Up to 18 chromosomes with that gene B. Up to 9 alleles for that gene C. Up to two different alleles for that gene D. Up to 36 different alleles for that gene E. A haploid number of 9 chromosomes

C. Up to two different alleles for that gene

In a particular plant, leafe color is controlled by gene locus D. Plants with at least on allele D have dark green leaves, and plants with the homozygous recessive dd genotype have light green leaves. A true-breeding, dark-leaved plant is crossed with a light-leaved one ,and the F1 offspring are allowed to self-pollinate. The predicted outcome of the F2 is diagrammed in the Punnett square shown in the figure, where 1, 2, 3 and 4 represent the genotypes corresponding to each box within the square. Which of the boxes marked 1-4 correspond to plants with light leaves? A. 4 only B. 1 and 2 C. 1 only D. 1, 2, and 3 E. 2 and 3

A. 4 only

Mendel accounted for the observation that traits that had disappeared in the F1 generation reappeared in the F2 generation by proposing that _______. A. The mechanism controlling the appearance of traits was different between the F1 and the F2 plants. B. Members of the F1 generation had only one allele for each trait, but members of the F2 had two alleles for each trait. C. Traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were obscured by the dominant ones in the F1 generation. D. New mutations were frequently generated in the F2 progeny, "reinventing" traits that had been lost in the F1.

C. Traits can be dominant or recessive, and the recessive traits were obscured by the dominant ones in the F1 generation.

Given that chromosome 12 is either: bue or orange and chromosome 19 is either: long and short A certain female's number 12 chromosomes have the blue and orange alleles and number 19 chromosomes have both long alleles. As cells in her ovaries undergo meiosis, her resulting eggs may have which of the following? A. Either two number 19 chromosomes with long genes or two with short genes. B. One chromosome 12 with one blue or with one orange allele and one chromosome 19 with one long allele. C. Either two number 12 chromosomes with blue genes or two with orange genes. D. Either one long or one short allele in addition to the blue allele.

B. One chromosome 12 with one blue or with one orange allele and one chromosome 19 with one long allele.

In rabbits, the homozygous CC is normal, Cc results in long deformed legs, and cc results in very short deformed legs. The genotype BB produces black fur, Bb brown fur, and bb white fur. If a cross is made between brown rabbits with long deformed legs and white rabbits with long deformed legs, what percentages of the offspring would be expected to have short deformed legs and white fur? A. 33 percent B. 50 percent C. 100 percent D. 25 percent E. 12.5 percent

E. 12.5 percent

Two plants are crossed, resulting in offspring with a 3:1 ratio of a particular trait. This ratio suggests that ______. A. The particular trait shows incomplete dominance B. The parents were true breeding for contrasting traits C. Each offspring has the same alleles for each of two different traits D. A blending of traits has occurred. E. The parents were both heterozygous for the particular trait.

E. The parents were both heterozygous for the particular trait.

Use the chromosome model below to answer the following questions. The chromosomes are not replicated. A. True B. False

B. False

Use the chromosome model below to answer the following questions. This cell is n = 10. A. True B. False

B. False

Use the chromosome model below to answer the following questions. This cell is haploid. A. True B. False

A. True

Use the chromosome model below to answer the following questions. There are 10 molecules of double stranded DNA represented by this model. A. True B. False

A. True

Somatic cells of roundworms, which are diploid, have four individual chromosomes per cell ( 2n = 4). How many chromosomes would you expect to find in a heart cell from a roundworm? A. 2 B. 4 C. 8 D. 6

B. 4

Assuming independing assorment for all gene pairs, what is the probability that the following parents, AABbCc X AABbCc, will produce AaBbCc offspring? A. 9/16 B. 1/16 C. 0 D. 3/4 E. 1/8

C. 0

According to the central dogma, what molecule should go in the blank? DNA --> _____ --> Proteins A. mRNA B. rRNA C. tRNA D. mtDNA

A. mRNA

What does it mean when we say the genetic code is redundant? A. The genetic code is universal (the same for all organisms). B. The genetic code is different for different domains of organisms. C. A single codon can specify the addition of more than one amino acid. D. More than one codon can specify the addition of the same amino acid.

D. More than one codon can specify the addition of the same amino acid.

For a species with a haploid number of 6 chromosomes, how many different combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes are possible for the gametes? A. About 1000 B. About 8 million C. 23 D. 64 E. About 70 trillion

D. 64

Homologous chromosomes ______. A. separate into different daughter cells during Meiosis II. B. Carry the same genes that code for the same traits. C. Are identical with the same genes and alleles. D. Are typically inherited from the same parent

B. Carry the same genes that code for the same traits.

Crossing over normally takes place during which of the following processes? A. Prophase I B. Prophase II C. Metaphse I D. Interphase

A. Prophase I

What phase of meiosis is seen in the accompanying figure? A. Anaphase I B. Anaphase II C. Metaphase II D. Metaphase I

A. Anaphase I

You conducted an experiment in which you grew watermelon in full sun, partial sun, and full shade to determine how sunlight affects sweetness of the fruit. After 7 weeks, you conducted a blind taste test with 40 participants and asked them to rank sweetness of each of the fruits. You want to create a graph showing how sweet the watermelons were after 7 weeks grown in the different conditions. What type of graph should you use? A. bar graph; x-axis (average sweetness rank); y-axis (amount of sun) B. bar graph; x-axis (amount of sun); y-axis (average sweetness rank) C. line graph; x-axis time (weeks); y-axis (average sweetness rank) D. line graph; x-axis (amount of sun); y-axis (average sweetness rank)

B. bar graph; x-axis (amount of sun); y-axis (average sweetness rank)

According to the table and the figure, which enzyme is defective in the strain with the arg3 mutation? A. The enzyme that converts citrulline to arginine B. The enzyme that converts the precursor to citrulline C. The enzyme that converts ornithine to citrulline D. The enzyme that converts the precursor to ornithine

A. The enzyme that converts citrulline to arginine

Cinnabar eyes is a sex-linked, recessive characteristic in fruit flies. If a female having cinnabar eyes is crossed with a wild-type male, what percentage of the F1 females will have cinnabar eyes? A. 100 percent B. 0 percent C. 50 percent D. 25 percent E. 75 percent

B. 0 percent

Which of the following happens at the conclusion of meiosis II? A. Cohesions are cleaved at the centromeres. B. Sister chromatids are separated into 4 new daughter cells. C. Homologous chromosomes of a pair are separated from each other. D. Two daughter cells are formed. E. The chromosome number per cell remains the same as before Meiosis I.

B. Sister chromatids are separated into 4 new daughter cells.

The following questions refer to the pedigree chart in the accompanying figure for a family, some of whose members exhibit the trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle. Assume complete penetrance. What is the genotype of individual II-4? A. Ww B. WW C. ww or Ww D. ww E. WW or ww

A. Ww

The following questions refer to the pedigree chart in the accompanying figure for a family, some of whose members exhibit the trait, W. Affected individuals are indicated by a dark square or circle. What is the likelihood that the progeny of IV-3 and IV-4 will have the trait? A. 50 percent B. 0 percent C. 25 percent D. 75 percent E. 100 percent

A. 50 percent

Plants produce more seeds when they reproduce asexually than sexually. Yet most plants reproduce sexually in nature. What is the probable explanation for the prevalence of sexual reproduction? Sexual reproduction ______. A. is more energy efficient than asexual reproduction B. Produces a greater number of offspring per individual C. Mixes up DNA, thus increasing genetic diversity in a species which is beneficial for adaptation. D. Ensure genetic continuity from parents to offspring.

C. Mixes up DNA, thus increasing genetic diversity in a species which is beneficial for adaptation.

Which of the following gametes could result from the cell shown? Select all that apply. A. A B. B C. C D. D E. E F. F

A. A E. E

Radish flowers may be red, purple, or white. A cross between a red-flowered plant and a white- flowered plant yields all- purpose offspring. The flower color trait in radishes is an example of which of the following? A. A multiple allelic system B. Incomplete dominance C. Sex linkage D. Codominance

B. Incomplete dominance

You are looking at a slide of onion root tip cells and count the number of cells in each phase of the cell cycle. You count 5 cells in interphase, 2 in prophase, 3 in metaphase, 4 in anaphase, and 2 in telephase. What is the mitotic index for this selection of cells, rounded to the nearest whole number? A. 17% B. 37% C. 63% D. 69%

D. 69%

A scientist is test a new drug to see if it is effective against harmful bacteria, She adds the new drug to one sample of cultured bacteria, a regular antibiotic to another sample, and distilled water to a third sample. What is the negative control? A. Regular antibiotic B. New drug C. Distilled water D. Cultured bacteria

C. Distilled water

Mendel crossed yellow seeded and green seeded pea plants and then allowed the offspring to self polinate to produce an F2 generation. The results were as follows: 9022 yellow and 3001 green (8023 total). The allele for yellow seeds has what relationship to the allele for green seeds? A. Recessive B. Incomplete dominant C. Codominant D. Dominant

D. Dominant

The accompanying figure shows the pedigree for a family. Dark shaded symbols represent individuals with one of the two major types of colon cancer. Assume full penetrance. From this pedigree, this trait seems to be inherited _______. A. as an autosomal recessive trait B. as an X-linked dominant trait C. as an X-linked recessive trait D. as a Y-linked trait E. as an an autosomal dominant

D. as a Y-linked trait

When does DNA replication take place regarding meiosis? DNA replication ______. A. Occurs during prophase I B. Occurs between prophase II and metaphase II C. Occurs before meiosis I begins D. Does not take place in cells destined to undergo meiosis.

C. Occurs before meiosis I begins

In cats, black fur color is caused by an X-linked allele; the other allele at this locus causes orange color. Ther heterozygote is tortoiseshell. What colors of offspring would you expect from the cross of a black male and an orange female? A. Orange females; orange males B. Tortoiseshell females; black males C. Orange males; tortoiseshell females D. Black females; orange males E. Tortoiseshell females; tortoiseshell males

C. Orange males; tortoiseshell females

Carlos and Aisha are expecting a child and are curious about the potential for dimples in their baby. The gene for dimples is located on an autosome; having dimple is a dominant trait (D), while not having dimples is recessive (d). Both Carlos and Aisha have dimples. However, Carlos's sister and father do not have dimples, and Aisha's brother also does not have dimples. Aisha's dad has dimples, and her mom's sister has dimples. What is the probability that Carlos and Aisha will have a child without dimples? A. 25% B. 50% C. 12.5% D. 100%

A. 25%

Red green color blindness is a sex linked recessive trait in humans. Two people with normal color vision have a color blind daughter. What are the genotypes of the parents? Assume full penetrance. A. It is not possible for two normal vision parents to produce a colorblind daughter caused by a mutant allele on the X chromosome. B. X^NX^n and X^NY C. X^NX^N and X^nY D. X^nX^n and X^NY E. X^NX^N and X^NY

A. It is not possible for two normal vision parents to produce a colorblind daughter caused by a mutant allele on the X chromosome.

The karyotype of one species of primates has 48 chromosomes. IN a particular female, cell division goes awry and she produces one of her eggs with an extra chromosome (n=25). The most probable source of this error would be a mistake in which of the following? A. Telophase II or one meiotic event B. Metaphase I of one meiotic event C. Telophase I of one meiotic event D. Mitosis in her ovary E. Either anaphase I or II

E. Either anaphase I or II

A group of students are conducting an experiment to understand the factors affecting the growth rate of a particular type of bacteria. They propose the following hypothesis: "If the temperature of the environment and the pH level of the growth medium are increased, then the bacteria will grow faster because both higher temperatures and more alkaline conditions stimulate bacterial metabolism." Evaluate the hypothesis. A. It is a problematic hypothesis because it lacks specificity and tests two independent variables simultaneously making it difficult to determine which variable is responsible for any observed changes in bacterial growth. B. It lacks specificity but is otherwise acceptable, as it does not clearly define what is meant by "faster growth" or the exact increases in temperature and pH levels. C. It is a strong hypothesis because testing more variables at once is more efficient and saves time. D. It is a good hypothesis because it identifies two variables that could affect bacterial growth, allowing for a comprehensive understand of environmental impacts.

A. It is a problematic hypothesis because it lacks specificity and tests two independent variables simultaneously making it difficult to determine which variable is responsible for any observed changes in bacterial growth.

What is the most likely mode of inheritance in this pedigree? A. Autosomal Dominant B. X-linked Domainant C. Autosomal Recessive D. X-Linked Recessive

D. X-Linked Recessive

What is the genotype of individual I-2? A. Heterozygous B. Homozygous Dominant C. Homozygous Recessive D. Homozygous Recessive or Heterozygous

A. Heterozygous

Imagine an individual had a mutation such that the SRY gene typically found on the Y chromosome was now located on chromosome 3. This individual had two children. Both children have two X chromosomes and both have a chromosome 3 with the SRY gene. What is the chromosomal sex of these 2 children? What is the likely gondal sex of these two children assuming SRY and other genes involved in sex determination are fully functional? A. Male; Male B. Female; Female C. Male; Female D. Female; Male

D. Female; Male

Imagine that you've isolated a yeast mutant that is unable to acetylate histones. What phenotype do you predict for this mutant? A. The mutant will require galactose for growth. B. The mutant will show high levels of gene expression. C. The mutant will grow rapidly. D. The mutant will show low levels of gene expression.

D. The mutant will show low levels of gene expression.

The leading and the lagging strands differ in that ______. A. The leading strand is synthesized at twice the rate of the lagging strand. B. The lagging strand is synthesized continuously, whereas the leading strand is synthesized in short fragments that are ultimately stitched together. C. The leading strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand, and the lagging strand is synthesized by adding nucleotides to the 5' end. D. The leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.

D. The leading strand is synthesized in the same direction as the movement of the replication fork, and the lagging strand is synthesized in the opposite direction.

Which of the following is an example of posttranscriptional control of gene expression? A. The binding of transcription factors to a promoter B. Gene amplification contributing to cancer C. The addition of methyl groups to cytosine bases of DNA D. The folding of DNA to form heterochromatin E. The removal of introns and alternative splicing of exons

E. The removal of introns and alternative splicing of exons

What amino acid sequence will be generated, based on the following mRNA codon sequence? 5' AUG-UCU-UCG-UUA-UCC-UUG 3' A. Met-Arg-Glu-Arg-Glu-Arg B. Met-Leu-Phe-Arg-Glu-Glu C. Met-Ser-Ser-Leu-Ser-Leu D. Met-Ser-Leu-Ser-Leu-Ser E. Met-Glu-Arg-Arg-Glu-Leu

C. Met-Ser-Ser-Leu-Ser-Leu

Which of the following allows more than one type of protein (different isoforms) to be produced from one gene? A. Mutations in the promoter region of a gene. B. Histone acetylation C. Alternative forms of chromatin remodeling D. Alternative form of RNA splicing

D. Alternative form of RNA splicing

The diagram below shows the DNA methylation of a Green Fluorescent Protein (GFP) gene in a cell. GFP is a protein originally found in the jellyfish, Aequorea victoria, that exhibits green fluorescence when exposed to UV light and is used in many biological applications. Which of the following is true based on this methylation landscape? A. GFP fluorescence will increase due to increased transcription of this gene. B. The GFP gene will be transcribed and translated and the cell will glow green. C. The GFP gene will be transcribed, but translation will not occur and thus the cell will not glow green. D. Very little to no GFP will be made in this cell and the cell will not glow.

D. Very little to no GFP will be made in this cell and the cell will not glow.

Which of the following occurs during RNA processing in eukaryotic cells? A. Addition of a 5' poly-A tail B. Translation of RNA into proteins C. Addition of a 5' cap D. Splicing of exons

C. Addition of a 5' cap

If cells are grown in a medium containing radioactive 35S-labeled sulfur, which of these molecules will be labeled? A. Deoxyribose B. Glucose C. Nucleic acids D. Cellulose E. Proteins

E. Proteins

A researcher is studying gene expression in cancer cells and notices that certain genes which are typically inactive have increased expression. Upon further investigation, it is found that the DNA of these gene is unmethylated in the promoter regions. What is the likely impact of reduced DNA methylation on these genes? A. Reduced methylation has increased transcription of these genes B. Methylation turns off these genes C. Methylation changes the DNA sequence of these genes D. Methylation has no effect on the gene expression

A. Reduced methylation has increased transcription of these genes

Transcribe the following template strand DNA sequence: 5' ATG CGC TTA CCC TTA CTC CTA TAA 3' A. 3' UUA UAG GAG UAA GGG UAA GCG CAU 5' B. 5' AUG CGC UUA CCC UUA CUC CUA UAA 3' C. 5' ATG CGC TTA CCC TTA CTC CTA TAA 3' D. 5' UUA UAG GAG UAA GGG UAA GCG CAU 3'

D. 5' UUA UAG GAG UAA GGG UAA GCG CAU 3'

The functioning of enhancers is an example of ______. A. The stimulation of translation by initiation factors B. Transcriptional control of gene expression C. A posttranscriptional mechanism to regulate mRNA D. A eukaryotic equivalent of a prokaryotic promoter functioning E. Posttranscriptional control that activates certain proteins

B. Transcriptional control of gene expression

In trying to determine whether DNA or protein is the genetic material, Hershey and Chase made use of which of the following facts? A. DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein contains sulfur. B. RNA includes ribose, whereas DNA includes deoxyribose sugars. C. DNA contains purines, whereas protein includes pyrimidines. D. DNA contains nitrogen, whereas protein does not. E. DNA contains sulfur, whereas protein does not.

A. DNA contains phosphorus, whereas protein contains sulfur.

During an experiment, to prevent bacterial growth a biologist adds an antibiotic that specifically targets the RNA polymerase. Which step in the protein making process is most likely directly inhibited by this antibiotic? A. Copying the genetic code from DNA to mRNA. B. Adding amino acids to the growing protein chain C. Binding of the mRNA to the ribosome D. Folding the protein into its final shape

A. Copying the genetic code from DNA to mRNA.

Which of the following statements about the DNA in one of your skin cells is true? A. Many related genes are transcribed from a single promoter. B. Each gene lies immediately adjacent to an enhancer. C. Most of the DNA codes for protein. D. It is the same as the DNA in one of your heart cells. E. All of the genes of the genome are likely to be transcribed.

D. It is the same as the DNA in one of your heart cells.

For a science fair project, two students decide to repeat the Hershey and Chase experiment, with modifications. They decided to label the nitrogen atoms of the nitrogenous base of the DNA, rather than the phosphate. They reasoned that each nucleotide has only one phosphate and two to five nitrogen atoms. Thus, labeling the nitrogenous bases would provide a stronger signal than labeling the phosphates. Why won't this experiment work? A. DNA does not contain nitrogen. B. Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity would not distinguish between DNA and proteins. C. Although there are more nitrogen atoms in a nucleotide, labeled phosphates actually have 16 extra neutrons, therefore, they are more radioactive. D. Radioactive nitrogen has a half life of 100,000 years, and the material would be too dangerous for too long.

B. Amino acids (and thus proteins) also have nitrogen atoms; thus, the radioactivity would not distinguish between DNA and proteins.

In the accompanying figure, which letter points to the 3'-5' leading strand? 1. a B. both a and c C. c D. d

1. a

Interpret the model. The nitrogenous base is a pyrimidine. A. True B. False

A. True

Interpret the model. This is a monomer of RNA. A. True B. False

A. True

Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they ______. A. Contain different genes B. Use different genetic codes C. Having unique ribosomes D. Have different genes turned on and off E. Have different chromosomes

D. Have different genes turned on and off

If a double-stranded DNA sample was composed of 20 percent adenine, what would be the percentage of cytosine? A. 20 B. 30 C. 80 D. 60 E. It is impossible to tell from the information given

B. 30

Which of the following types of mutation, resulting in an error in the mRNA just after the AUG start of translation, is likely to have the most serious effect on the polypeptide product? A. An insertion of a codon B. A substitution of the third nucleotide in an ACC codon C. A deletion of one nucleotide D. A deletion of a codon E. A substitution of the first nucleotide of a GGG codon

C. A deletion of one nucleotide

Four students were asked to draw a simple model of a nucleotide using the following color code. Which model is correct? A. Alesha B. Zubia C. Jamal D. Darsh

D. Darsh

Put the following events of elongation in prokaryotic translation in chronological order: 1. Binding of mRNA with the small ribosomal subunit 2. Recognition of initiation codon 3. Complementary base pairing between the initiator codon and the anticodon of the initiator tRNA 4. Base pairing of the mRNA codon following the initiator codon with its complementary tRNA 5. Attachment of the large subunit A. 2,1,4, 3, 5 B. 5, 4, 3, 2,1 C. 1,2, 3, 4, 5 D. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

D. 1, 2, 3, 5, 4

Select the best model to complete this student's overview of how DNA forms a template for its own synthesis. A. B. C. D.

If the sequence in the coding strand of DNA for a particular amino acid is 5'-TCA-3', then the anticodon on the corresponding tRNA would be _______. A. 3' AGU 5' B. 5' UCA 3' C. 5' AGU 3' D. 5' AGU 3'

B. 5' UCA 3'

Two potential mechanisms that eukaryotic cells use to regulate transcription are ______. A. DNA amplification and histone methylation B. DNA acetylation and methylation C. DNA methylation and histone amplification D. DNA methylation and histone modification E. Histone amplification and DNA acetylation

D. DNA methylation and histone modification

During a genetic study, researchers discover a mutation in the hemoglobin gene of a mammalian species. This mutation changes a codon for tyrosine into a premature stop codon. What type of mutation is this and what could be its potential consequences? A. Missense mutation, could result in a hemoglobin disorder B. Frameshift mutation, could disrupted the overall structure of hemoglobin C. Nonsense mutation, could lead to a truncated hemoglobin protein D. Silent, mutation, likely no change in hemoglobin function

C. Nonsense mutation, could lead to a truncated hemoglobin protein

Which of the following student-drawn models shows the correct numbering of carbons? A. A B. B C. C D. D

D. D

Imagine the following mutations occurred in a bacterial gene. Mutation 1 results in a guanine being replaced by a cytosine at position 9, mutation 2 results in a thymine being replaced by a cytosine at position -35, and mutation 3 results in a cytosine being replaced by an adenine at position -19. Which mutations do you think would affect the transcription rate of the gene (ex. how much mRNA is made)? A. Mutation 2 B. Mutation 4 C. Mutation 1 D. Mutation 5 E. Mutation 3

A. Mutation 2 B. Mutation 4

Imagine the following mutations occurred in a bacterial gene. Mutation 1 results in a guanine being replaced by a cytosine at position 9, mutation 2 results in a thymine being replaced by a cytosine at position -35, and mutation 3 results in a cytosine being replaced by an adenine at position -19. Which mutations do you think would affect protein translation the most, assuming transcription occurred? A. Mutation 3 B. Mutation 2 C. Mutation 5 D. Mutation 1

C. Mutation 5

Imagine that you are studying the contorl of beta globin gene expression in immature red blood cells. If you deleted a sequence of DNA outside the protein-coding region of the beta globin gene and found that this decreased the rate of transcription, the deleted sequence likely functions as: A. A silencer B. A promoter C. An enhancer D. An activator E. A repressor

B. A promoter C. An enhancer

Which small scale mutation would be least likely to have a harmful effect on the function of a protein? A. Deletion of three bases near the end of the coding sequence in an intron B. A base insertion near the middle of gene in an exon C. A base substitution in the start codon D. Deletion of two bases near the start of the coding sequence, but not in the start codon E. A base deletion near the start of a gene in an intron spice site

A. Deletion of three bases near the end of the coding sequence in an intron

In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around _________. A. histones B. polymerase molecules C. mRNA D. ribosomes E. the membrane

A. histones

Why might a point mutation in DNA make a difference in the level of a protein's activity? A. It might result in a chromosomal translocation. B. It might substitute the N-terminus of the polypeptide for the C-terminus. C. It might delay the rate of DNA replication. D. It might substitute a different amino acid in the active site. E. It might exchange one stop codon for another stop codon.

D. It might substitute a different amino acid in the active site.

John drew a model to show transcription and labeled the template strand with a line above the 5'-3' strand, but didn't indicate the direction of the synthesis of the mRNA strand. Select the best way to complete his model showing the direction the DNA will be read during transcription. A. 3' <-----5' B. 3' ----> 5' C. 5' <---- 3' D. 5' -----> 3'

A. 3' <-----5'

What was the main conclusion of Frederick Griffith's 1928 experiment with Streptococcus pneumoniae in mice? A. Proteins carry genetic information responsible for heredity B. Bacteria cannot acquire new traits. C. A transforming principle can transfer genetic traits between bacteria. D. DNA is composed of equal amounts of cytosine and adenine.

C. A transforming principle can transfer genetic traits between bacteria.

Nucleic acids have definite polarity, or directionality. Stated another way, one end of the molecule is different from the other end. How are these ends described? A. One ned has a hydroxyl group on the 2 carbon; the other end has a hydrogen atom on the 2 carbon. B. One end has an unlinked 3' hydroxyl; the other end has an unlinked 5' phosphate. C. One end contains a nitrogenous base; the other end lacks it. D. One end has one phosphate group; the other end has two phosphate groups.

B. One end has an unlinked 3' hydroxyl; the other end has an unlinked 5' phosphate.

Avery, McCarty, and MacLeod built on Griffith's findings by demonstrating that: A. Protein and DNA carry genetic information B. RNA is the genetic information molecule C. DNA is the transforming principle responsible for heredity D. Proteins carry genetic information.

C. DNA is the transforming principle responsible for heredity

Rosalind Franklin's contribution to the discovery of DNA's structure was primarily through: A. Producing x-ray diffraction images that revealed DNA's helical shape B. Performing genetic crosses with fruit flies C. Isolating DNA from bacterial cells D. Synthesizing DNA in a lab

A. Producing x-ray diffraction images that revealed DNA's helical shape.

Why does DNA wrap tightly around histones? A. Histones are covalently linked to the DNA. B. Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged. C. Both histones and DNA are strongly hydrophobic. D. Histones are negatively charged, and DNA is positively charged. E. Histones are highly hydrophobic, and DNA is hydrophilic.

B. Histones are positively charged, and DNA is negatively charged.

A potato is a type of _____ known as a _______. A. modified stem; tuber B. modified stem; stolon C. modified root; tuber D. modified root; pneumatophore

C. modified root; tuber

C3 plants photosynthesize _____. A. mainly in the light bu respire in light and dark. B. and respire only in the light. C. mainly in the dark but respire only in the light. D. only in the light but respire only in the dark. E. and respire only in the dark.

D. only in the light but respire only in the dark.

Pines have needlelike leaves, with the adaptive advantage of ______. A. decreased surface area, reducing gas exchange B. increased surface area, increasing photosynthesis C. decreased surface area, reducing water loss D. increased surface area, increasing gas exchange

A. decreased surface area, reducing gas exchange

Suppose a plant has a unique photosynthetic pigment and the leaves of this plant appear to be reddish yellow. What wavelengths of visible light are absorbed by this pigment? A. Green and yellow B. Green, blue, and yellow C. Red and yellow D. Blue, green, and red E. Blue and violet

C. Red and yellow

Which of the following would be an example of an animal employing torpor to survive very cold weather? A. Nonshivering thermogenesis by humans B. Maintaining homeothermy C. A hamster going into a deep sleep with reduced respiration and metabolism D. Honeybees increasing hive temperature by contracting flight muscles E. An elephant employing evaporative cooling

E. An elephant employing evaporative cooling

Among the last line of defenses against prolonged exposure to an extracellular pathogen is _______. A. histamine release by basophils B. lysozyme production C. mast cell activation D. phagocytosis by neutrophils E. antibody production by B cells

A. histamine release by basophils

Which process occurs within a mitochondrion in a eukaryotic cell? Select all that apply. A. Glycolysis B. Citric acid cycle C. Pyruvate processing D. Electron transport and oxidative phosphorylation

A. Glycolysis

When oxygen is released as a result of photosynthesis, it's a direct by-product of _________. A. chemiosmosis B. the electron transfer system of photosystem II C. the electron transfer system of photosystem I D. splitting water molecules E. reducing NADP+

B. the electron transfer system of photosystem II

Strolling in the Sonoran Desert, you come upon a stately saguaro cactus. The large central "trunks" of this cactus are covered with numerous small spines. The central stalks are modified ________ used for water storage and spines are modified ______ used for protection. A. leaves; leaves B. stems; fruits C. petioles; leaf blades D. stems; leaves E. leaf blades; trichomes

D. stems; leaves

An elephant and a mouse are running in full sunlight, and both overheat by the same amount above their normal body temperatures. When they move into the shade and rest, which animal will cool down faster? A. They will cool at the same rate because they overheated by the same amount. B. The mouse will because it has the higher surface-area-to-volume ratio. C. The elephant will because it has the higher surface-area-to-volume ratio. D. The elephant will because it has the lower surface-area-to-volume ratio. E. The mouse will because it has the lower surface-area-to-volume ratio.

A. They will cool at the same rate because they overheated by the same amount.

An inflammation-causing signal released by mast cells at the site of an infection is ______. A. mucus B. lymphatic fluid C. sodium ions D. histamine E. an interferon

B. lymphatic fluid

Answer True or False for each of the following two statements. The arrow between glucose and pyruvate represents the process of glycolysis. A. True B. False

A. True

Answer True or False for each of the following two statements. This model shows that four molecules of CO2 are produced per molecule of glucose during alcohol fermentation. A. True B. False

B. False

Innate immunity ______. A. is found only in vertebrate animals. B. is based on recognition of antigens that are specific to different pathogens. C. depends on an infected animal's previous exposure to the same pathogen. D. utilizes highly specific antigen receptors on B cells. E. is activated immediately upon infection.

E. is activated immediately upon infection.

Canine phosphofructokinase (PFK) deficiency afflicts Springer spaniels, affecting an estimated 10 percent of the breed. Phosphofructokinase catalyzes step 3 of glycolysis. Given its critical role in glycolysis, one implication of the genetic defect resulting in PFK deficiency in dogs is _________. A. decreased glucose levels in the dog's breed. B. an intolerance for exercise. C. early embryonic mortality. D. hyperactivity.

D. hyperactivity.

Why is glycolysis described as having an investment phase and a payoff phase? A. It shifts molecules from the cytosol to the mitochondria. B. It uses 2 ATP and then forms a net increase in 2 ATP. C. It uses glucose and generates pyruvate. D. It attaches and detaches phosphate groups. E. It both splits molecules and assembles molecules.

D. It attaches and detaches phosphate groups.

Plants contain meristems whose major function is to _______. A. absorb ions B. attract pollinators C. produce more cells D. photosynthesize E. produce flowers

E. produce flowers

Which of the following provides the best example of the adaptive relationship between form and function? A. Both vertebrates and invertebrates have immune systems. B. Rabbit species native to hot regions have longer limbs and ears than those native to cold regions. C. Swans have long necks and ducks have short necks, both have webbed feet. D. Insects have six legs, but birds have only two.

D. Insects have six legs, but birds have only two.

Following glycolysis and the citric acid cycle, but before the electron transport chain and oxidative phosphorylation, the carbon skeleton of glucose has been broken down to CO2 with some net gain of ATP. Most of the energy from the original glucose molecule at that point in the process however, is in the form of _______. A. NADH B. Acetyl CoA C. pyruvate D. glucose

A. NADH

What is the primary function of the Calvin cycle? A. Using NADPH to release carbon dioxide B. Transporting RuBP out of the chloroplast C. Using ATP to release carbon dioxide D. Synthesizing simple sugars from carbon dioxide E. Splitting water and releasing oxygen

B. Transporting RuBP out of the chloroplast

The energy of electron transport serves to move (translocate) hydrogen ions to the outer mitochondrial compartment. How does this help the mitochondria produce ATP? A. The protons receive electrons from the NAD+ and FAD that are accepted by electrons in glycolysis and the citric acid cycle. B. The hydrogen ions (protons) are transferred to oxygen in an energy-releasing reaction. C. The translocation of ions sets up the electrochemical gradient that drives ATP synthesis via chemiosmosis in the mitochondria. D. The protons pick up electrons from the electron transport chain on their way through the inner mitochondrial membrane.

D. The protons pick up electrons from the electron transport chain on their way through the inner mitochondrial membrane.

A function of antibodies is to ______. A. act as Toll-like receptors B. secrete cytokines that attract macrophages to infection sites C. release major histocompatibility proteins to disrupt infected cells D. inject toxins into living pathogens E. mark pathogenic cells for destruction

E. mark pathogenic cells for destruction

You and a friend were in line for a movie when you noticed the woman in front of you sneezing and coughing. Both of you were equally exposed to the woman's virus, but over the next few days, only your friend acquired flu-like symptoms and was ill for almost a week before recovering. Which one of the following is a logical explanation for this? A. Your friend had antibodies to that virus. B. You had an adaptive immunity to that virus. C. Your friend had allergies. D. Your friend had an autoimmune disorder.

B. You had an adaptive immunity to that virus.

What is the major purpose of cellular respiration? A. To generate oxygen B. To produce adenosine triphosphate (ATP) C. To reduce an electron acceptor molecule D. To utilize glucose E. To supply the cell with fixed carbon

D. To utilize glucose

A spaceship is designed to support animal life for a multiyear voyage to the outer planets of the solar system. Plants will be grown to provide oxygen and to recycle carbon dioxide. Since the spaceship will be too far from the Sun for photosynthesis, an artificial light source will be needed. If the power fails and the lights go dark, CO2 levels will _______. A. remain balanced because plants will continue to fix CO2 in the dark B. fall because plants will cease to respire in the dark C. rise as a result of animal but not plant respiration D. fall because plants will increase CO2 fixation E. rise as a result of both animal and plant respiration

B. fall because plants will cease to respire in the dark

The primary role of oxygen in cellular respiration is to ______. A. yield energy in the form of ATP as it's passed down the respiratory chain. B. combine with lactate, forming pyruvate C. combine with carbon, forming CO2 D. act as an acceptor for electrons and hydrogen, forming water E. catalyze the reactions of glycolysis

B. combine with lactate, forming pyruvate

CAM plants keep stomata closed in the daytime, thus reducing loss of water. They can do this because they _______. A. fix CO2 into pyruvate in the mesophyll cells B. fix CO2 into organic acids during the night. C. Use photosystem I and photosystem II at night. D. Use the enzyme phosphofructokinase, which outcompetes rubisco for CO2 E. fix CO2 into sugars in the bundle-sheath cells

E. fix CO2 into sugars in the bundle-sheath cells

Which of the following is an example of a connective tissue? A. Smooth muscles B. Blood C. The surface of the skin D. Nerves E. Cuboidal epithelium

D. Nerves

What type of immunoglobulin is most associated with breastfeeding? A. IgE B. IgM C. IgA D. IgD E. IgG

B. IgM

Which of the following sequences correctly represents the flow of electrons during photosynthesis? A. H20 -->NADPH-->Calvin cycle B. H2O-->photosystem I-->photosystem II C. NADPH-->O2-->CO2 D. NADPH-->electron transport chain-->O2 E. NADPH-->chlorophyll-->Calvin cycle

D. NADPH-->electron transport chain-->O2

Which of the listed statements describes the result of the following reaction? C6H1206 + 6O2 --> 6CO2+6H20+Energy A. O2 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized. B. O2 is oxidized and H2O is reduced. C. C6H12O6 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized. D. C6H12O6 is oxidized and O2 is reduced. E. CO2 is reduced and O2 is oxidized.

C. C6H12O6 is reduced and CO2 is oxidized.

Which process in eukaryotic cells will proceed normally whether oxygen (O2) is present or absent? A. Electron transport B. Glycolysis C. Chemiosmosis D. Oxidative phosphorylation E. The citric acid cycle

A. Electron transport B. Glycolysis D. Oxidative phosphorylation

Tissues functioning together make up ______. A. organs B. membranes C. organelles D. organ systems E. organisms

D. organ systems

Immunological memory accounts for _______. A. the ancient observation that someone who had recovered from the plague could safely care for those newly diseased B. The human body's ability to distinguish self from nonself C. the observation that some strains of the pathogen that causes dengue fever cause more severe disease than others D. the ability of the immune system to present antigen fragments in association with major histocompatibility (MHC) antigens E. the ability of a helper T cell to signal B cells via cytokines

B. The human body's ability to distinguish self from nonself.

What major advantage is conveyed by having a system of adaptive immunity? A. It enables a rapid defense against an antigen that has been previously encountered. B. It results in effector cells, each of which has specificity for a large number of antigens. C. It enables an animal to counter most pathogens almost instantly the first time they are encountered. D. It allows for the destruction of antibodies.

B. It results in effector cells, each of which has specificity for a large number of antigens.

Chum salmon are born in freshwater environmnets and then migrate to the sea. Near the end of their lives, they return to the freshwater stream where they were born to spawn. In freshwater, water constantly diffuses into the body and ions are lost from the body. In salt water, body water diffuses out of the body and excess ions are gained from the water. A salmon's gills have special cells to pump salt into or out of the body to maintain homeostasis. In response to the salmon's moves between freshwater and still water, some cells in the gills are produced and others are destroyed. These changes made in the cells of the gills during the lifetime of an individual salmon are an example of which of the following? A. Acclimatization B. Trade-off C. Evolution D. Adaptation

A. Acclimatization

Which of the following statements about NAD+ is true? A. NAD+ has more chemical energy than NADH. B. NAD+ is reduced to NADH during glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, and the citric acid cycle. C. NAD+ can donate electrons for use in oxidative phosphorylation. D. NAD+ is oxidized by the action of hydrogenases. E. In the absence of NAD+, glycolysis can still function.

E. In the absence of NAD+, glycolysis can still function.

Imagine you find a plant that produces seeds and flowers. What is it? A. Angiosperm B. Fern C. Moss D. Gymnosperm

A. Angiosperm

Chlorophylls absorb most light in which colors of the visible range? A. Violet and Red B. Green and red C. Blue and red D. Green and blue

B. Green and red

What is the main purpose of light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis? A. To use ATP to make glucose B. To produce NADPH and ATP C. To generate oxygen by "splitting" H2O D. To produce NADPH for use in respiration

B. To produce NADPH and ATP

Panting by an overheated dog achieves cooling by ______. A. acclimatization B. hibernation C. evaporation D. shivering E. torpor

C. evaporation

The surface area of a plant's root system is substantially larger than the surface area of its shoot system. The extensive surface area of roots in an adaptation associated with ______. A. The internal structure of the vascular tissue in roots. B. contact with soil particles for mineral and water absorption C. the storage of nutrients within the root system D. the fact that roots absorb materials while shoots do not E. the release of carbon dioxide generated by photosynthesis

A. The internal structure of the vascular tissue in roots.

Biology Final Flashcards

(168 cards)