Bob's questions (101-200) Flashcards

1
Q

You come upon an MVA where the driver has sustained serious chest trauma. He is cyanotic, in severe respiratory distress and breathing at a rate of 38 breaths per minute. You should administer oxygen using:

a. nasal cannula
b. Venturi
c. non-rebreather
d. positive pressure device

A

d. positive pressure device

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Pelvic fractures should be treated:

a. with a traction splint
b. on a backboard
c. placing patient on injured side
d. with a board splint along the injured side

A

b. on a backboard

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Which of the following is the result of a pneumothorax?

a. pressure on other lung
b. collapsed lung
c. pressure on the heart
d. deviation of trachea away from injury

A

b. collapsed lung

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

You observe a patient who has sustained upper right quadrant injury and is hypotensive and tachycardia. He has pain radiating to right shoulder. You should suspect injury to:

a. liver
b. spleen
c. lungs
d. diaphragm

A

a. liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

An EMT should transport a patient with abdominal pain:

a. supine with legs bent at the hip/knees
b. on left side
c. supine with legs straight
d. sitting up with legs straight

A

a. supine with legs bent at the hip/knees

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

A stroke victim should be transported:

a. prone
b. supine with feet elevated
c. laterally with feet elevated
d. supine with head elevated

A

d. supine with head elevated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

The danger of vomiting in a patient without a gag reflex is?

a. aspiration
b. ventilation
c. blocked airway
d. poor air exchange

A

a. aspiration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

According to NYS BLS Protocols, syrup of Ipecac should be used:

a. on any poisoning patient
b. on patients who have no gag reflex
c. after contacting poison control center or medical control
d. may be used at discretion of EMT

A

c. after contacting poison control center or medical control

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Always approach airborne contaminants from:

a. upwind
b. downwind
c. either upwind or downwind
d. after wind has stopped

A

a. upwind

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

AIDS is most likely to be contracted:

a. doing mouth-to-mouth ventilations
b. touching clothing worn by AIDS patient
c. contact with body fluids of an infected person into an opening (cut, sore) of the
rescuer
d. through air contamination

A

c. contact with body fluids of an infected person into an opening (cut, sore) of the
rescuer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Treatment of an unconscious hypothermic patient consists of:

a. rewarming patient slowly
b. maintain body temperature and transport gently
c. delay transport until patient has been rewarmed
d. place hot packs under arm pits

A

b. maintain body temperature and transport gently

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Two of the absolute contraindications for use of MAST in the field are:

a. hypotension and head injury
b. hypothermia and tachycardia
c. pulmonary edema and penetrating injury to the chest
d. tachypnea and late pregnancy

A

c. pulmonary edema and penetrating injury to the chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

You are assisting a patient having difficulty breathing. You should do all of the following except:

a. place patient in supine position
b. help patient with prescribed Albuterol inhaler
c. administer oxygen
d. transport patient in position of comfort

A

a. place patient in supine position

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

According to NYS vehicle and traffic law, an ambulance may proceed through a
red light or stop sign without stopping if:

a. there is an urgent need to
b. no other traffic in sight
c. ambulance red lights are on
d. audible signal(s) are sounded and when the vehicle is operating it’s red lights

A

d. audible signal(s) are sounded and when the vehicle is operating it’s red lights

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The initial action of the first EMS unit at the scene of an MCI should:

a. establish control center
b. initiate triage
c. start patient care
d. assure safety of scene/crew and inform dispatcher of nature of disaster

A

d. assure safety of scene/crew and inform dispatcher of nature of disaster

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The layer of skin responsible for shock absorption and insulation is:

a. epidermis
b. dermis
c. sebaceous layer
d. subcutaneous tissue

A

d. subcutaneous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Entrapment of air beneath the skin as a result of trauma to the airway, lungs,
esophagus, or skin is call:

a. subcutaneous emphysema
b. traumatic asphyxia
c. air embolism
d. traumatic emphysema

A

a. subcutaneous emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Subdural hemorrhage is bleeding:

a. between brain and outer most membrane
b. between linings of the pleura
c. between outer most membrane of brain and skull
d. between linings of the peritoneum

A

a. between brain and outer most membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The dorsalis pedis pulse is found on:

a. anterior surface of foot
b. posterior surface of foot
c. lateral surface of foot
d. medial surface of foot

A

a. anterior surface of foot

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Using the international color code for triage, highest priority patients (most
urgent) are tagged:

a. red
b. yellow
c. green
d. black

A

a. red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Using the international color code for triage, third priority patients are tagged:

a. red
b. yellow
c. green
d. black

A

c. green

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

A disease which causes the loss of elasticity of the lungs is:

a. emphysema
b. bronchitis
c. asthma
d. epiglottis

A

a. emphysema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Wheezing on exhalation is characteristic of:

a. emphysema
b. bronchitis
c. asthma
d. epiglottis

A

c. asthma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

An example of a suture joint is:

a. knee
b. hip
c. shoulder
d. skull

A

d. skull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Another name for left laterally recumbent is: a. semi-Fowler position b. prone position c. Trendelenburg position d. recovery position
d. recovery position
26
In initially performing single rescuer adult CPR, how many cycles should be performed before reassessing breathing/pulse? a. after every cycle b. after 3 cycles c. after 4 cycles d. after 5 cycles
d. after 5 cycles
27
In infants and elderly people, excessive diarrhea and vomiting can lead to: a. hypovolemic shock b. pulmonary edema c. cardiogenic shock d. hypertension
a. hypovolemic shock
28
After splinting a swollen, deformed painful shoulder, you should: a. check for radial pulse b. check airway c. check for correct bone alignment d. check for correct reduction of shoulder
a. check for radial pulse
29
The layers of tissue that envelop the brain and spinal cord are the: a. meniscus b. meninges c. epidermis d. dermis
b. meninges
30
According to the AHA Guidelines, when ventilating a pulseless, non-breathing child with an advanced airway in place, what is the rate of breaths for a child? a. 1 breath every 15-30 seconds b. 1 breath every 8-10 seconds) c. 1 breath every 6 -8 seconds d. 1 breath every 3-5 seconds
c. 1 breath every 6 -8 seconds
31
You are performing rescue breathing on an unresponsive patient by way of a stoma. You observe poor chest rise and air escaping from the mouth & nose. You should: a. continue ventilations b. seal the mouth & nose c. reposition the head d. increase force of ventilations
b. seal the mouth & nose
32
When opening the airway of an infant, the EMT should remember that: a. over extension of the head should be avoided b. gastric distention may occur spontaneously c. the airway must be flexed to be open d. excessive secretions develop with hyperextension
a. over extension of the head should be avoided
33
A patient having a myocardial infarction (MI) experiences pain due to: a. anxiety b. pulmonary edema c. arrhythmia’s d. myocardial hypoxia
d. myocardial hypoxia
34
Tension pneumothorax may interfere with what other organ? a. liver b. spleen c. heart d. kidneys
c. heart
35
With sudden onset of dyspnea and pleuritic chest pain, one should suspect: a. spontaneous pneumothorax b. tension pneumothorax c. congestive heart failure d. angina
a. spontaneous pneumothorax
36
Spinal injury may produce hypovolemic shock by: a. exterior blood loss b. interior blood loss c. decreased heart activity d. vessel dilation
d. vessel dilation
37
The back surface of the body is referred to as : a. anterior b. posterior c. inferior d. superior
b. posterior
38
A patient with a fracture to the clavicle will present with a. shoulder forward & dropped b. shoulder back & raised c. shoulder forward & elevated d. shoulder in normal position
a. shoulder forward & dropped
39
Chemical burns to the eyes are best treated by: a. covering with petroleum jelly b. covering with dry sterile dressing c. irrigation with water for 20 to 30 minutes d. covering w/ moist sterile dressing
c. irrigation with water for 20 to 30 minutes
40
A severe diabetic emergency is characterized by: a. an altered mental status b. a slow pulse c. an “A” on the AVPU scale d. urine retentions
a. an altered mental status
41
Which of the following is the recommended method for splinting a mid-shaft fracture of the femur? a. backboard b. air splint c. traction splint d. fixation splint
c. traction splint
42
You are treating a patient with a local cold injury. The primary reason you should not allow the victim to smoke is because smoking causes: a. vasoconstriction b. vasodilatation c. increased heart rate d. decreased heart rate
a. vasoconstriction
43
According to NYS DOH protocols, when assisting a patient’s ventilations with high concentration oxygen using a positive pressure adjunctive device, the first choice is: a. bag-valve-mask (BVM) with reservoir & O2 b. pocket mask with O2 & 10 LPM c. flow restricted O2 powered ventilation device d. non-rebreather mask
a. bag-valve-mask (BVM) with reservoir & O2
44
Fractures of the wrist that have a classic "dinner fork" & or “silver fork” deformity are called: a. Volkmann's fractures b. Homan's fractures c. Colles' fractures d. Brown's fractures
c. Colles' fractures
45
The group of individuals who are at increased risk of heat emergencies includes: a. teenagers b. men between 30 and 50 c. women between 30 and 50 d. the very young and very old
d. the very young and very old
46
The heat emergency associated with a hot environment in which the skin is cool & sweaty, patient is weak, and body temperature is normal or slightly elevated is: a. heat cramps b. heat exhaustion c. heat prostration d. heat stroke
b. heat exhaustion
47
If a frostbite area is to be thawed (active rewarming), it should be thawed in: a. warm water (102 -105 degrees) b. cool water (90 - 100 degrees) c. hot water (100-120 degrees) d. normal room air
a. warm water (102 -105 degrees)
48
In managing a diving accident, the patient should: a. be carefully removed from the water and evaluated b. have an extrication collar applied before moving c. be fully immobilized with a halfboard before removing from the water d. be restricted on a longboard before removing from the water
d. be restricted on a longboard before removing from the water
49
According to NYS DOH protocols, adult hypoperfusion is defined as having a systolic B/P of _________ or less. a. 120 b. 100 c. 90 d. 80
c. 90
50
Diffusion is the tendency of molecules to move from an area of: a. higher concentration to an area of lower concentration b. higher concentration to an area of equal concentration c. lower concentration to an area of higher concentration d. lower concentration to an area of equal concentration
a. higher concentration to an area of lower concentration
51
At a crime scene you should: a. move only what's necessary to care of the patient b. avoid moving anything that might be considered evidence c. assemble all evidence and place it in a secure area while awaiting law officers d. leave one care provider at the scene to reconstruct incident for law officers
a. move only what's necessary to care of the patient
52
If a pulse is irregular, how many seconds do you assess pulse in order to determine rate? a. 15 b. 30 c. 45 d. 60
d. 60
53
In which one of the following locations in the cardiovascular system is oxygen content of the blood the lowest? a. left ventricle b. left atrium c. pulmonary vein d. pulmonary artery
d. pulmonary artery
54
In caring for a child with a barking cough, the EMT should have a high index of suspicion of which of the following illnesses? a. croup b. epiglottitis c. asthma d. pneumonia
a. croup
55
When performing ventilations on an infant or child in respiratory arrest, you should ventilate once every __________ seconds. a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8
b. 4
56
The process by which rescuers are allowed to express their feelings about an incident and thereby relieve stress associated with the situation is called the: a. catharsis b. debriefing c. critique d. field exercise
b. debriefing
57
Distended neck veins are caused by which of the following? a. pneumothorax b. hemothorax c. tension pneumothorax d. flail chest
c. tension pneumothorax
58
Distended neck veins would not be caused by: a. myocardial infarction b. congestive heart failure c. tension pneumothorax d. pericardial tamponade
a. myocardial infarction
59
An oropharyngeal airway is inserted: a. the way it finally rests in the mouth b. initially upside down c. from the side of the mouth d. may be inserted either way
b. initially upside down
60
The most common symptom directly related to high blood pressure is: a. dizziness b. weakness c. epistaxis d. headache
d. headache
61
How should you treat fluid running from ears? a. occlusive dressing b. moist sterile dressing c. dry sterile dressing d. pressure dressing
c. dry sterile dressing
62
Which of the following is proper vehicle operation? a. keep snow tires on all year b. brakes should be dried by friction after passing through water c. in fog and snow, drive with high beams on d. in freezing weather, bridges freeze last
b. brakes should be dried by friction after passing through water
63
Proper care for a victim of a respiratory emergency is: a. place the patient in a prone position b. place the patient in a supine position c. deliver high-concentration of oxygen d. suction lung fluids to relieve edema
c. deliver high-concentration of oxygen
64
A situation in which an EMT can cease CPR is: a. DNR bracelet b. NYS Molst or Paper DNR c. family request d. clergy request
b. NYS Molst or Paper DNR
65
An injury to the forearm is: a. distal to elbow b. lateral to elbow c. proximal to elbow d. medial to elbow
a. distal to elbow
66
A stoma in a total laryngectomy connects directly to the: a. trachea b. larynx c. pharynx d. esophagus
a. trachea
67
A chest injury may interfere mechanically with the functioning of the: a. lungs b. xiphoid process c. sternum d. brain
a. lungs
68
The best way to prevent the spread of disease from patient to care provider is: a. hand washing b. wearing protective gloves c. wearing protective face mask d. wearing protective gown
a. hand washing
69
The term "barrel-shaped chest" refers to persons suffering from difficulty with: a. circulation b. diabetes c. kidneys d. COPD
d. COPD
70
When measuring for the correct size of an oropharyngeal airway, one should measure from: a. center of mouth to corner of mouth b. center of the mouth to curvature of the mandible c. corner of the mouth to the earlobe d. corner of the mouth to the curvature of the mandible
d. corner of the mouth to the curvature of the mandible
71
What is an advantage of use of a pocket mask with oxygen supplement in field resuscitation? a. provides higher concentrations of oxygen than other devices b. provides better infectious control than other devices c. provides greater volume of air to patient d. allows two hands to make seal and hold mask
d. allows two hands to make seal and hold mask
72
What is the first step when an adult choking victim becomes unconscious? a. finger sweep if obstruction is seen b. attempt to ventilate c. provide 2 abdominal thrusts d. provide 5 abdominal thrusts
a. finger sweep if obstruction is seen
73
What is the proper finger location for chest compressions of an infant? a. at the nipple line b. one finger width below nipple line c. one finger width above the xiphoid d. 2 finger widths above the xiphoid
b. one finger width below nipple line
74
According to NYS Protocols, a non-traumatic, conscious, irritable (altered mental status) patient with an intact gag reflex and a history of diabetes controlled by medication may be: a. given nothing by mouth b. given a salted solution by mouth c. given milk by mouth d. given a sugar solution by mouth
d. given a sugar solution by mouth
75
You are called to treat a severely angulated swollen, painful, deformed (fractured) right forearm. You are unable to palpate a pulse distal to the injury and your patient tells you he feels tingling in his fingers in the right hand. You should: a. splint in position found b. attempt to straighten arm before splinting c. apply pressure to site of fracture d. use vacuum splint (or similar device) to immobilize arm in angulated position.
b. attempt to straighten arm before splinting
76
Which of the following fractures would produce the most blood loss? a. tibia b. pelvis c. femur d. humerus
b. pelvis
77
Which organ controls respirations: a. medulla oblongata b. diaphragm c. lungs d. spinal cord
a. medulla oblongata
78
A patient suffering from congestive heart failure should be transported: a. supine b. prone c. with head & shoulders elevated d. on side with head down
c. with head & shoulders elevated
79
In general, embedded objects that have impaled the body should be: a. stabilized in place b. carefully removed c. repositioned to facilitate bandaging d. left alone
a. stabilized in place
80
You are treating a serious head injured patient. She has a Glasgow Coma Scale of less than 8 and is displaying neurologic posturing. You should oxygenate this patient using: a. non-rebreather b. Venturi c. nasal cannula d. positive pressure device
d. positive pressure device
81
You are an EMT traveling in a private car and you come upon an auto accident. You begin administering care to the injured driver as the ambulance arrives. The ambulance is staffed by first-aiders only. You remember that you have a meeting to attend and after informing the ambulance crew of your treatments, you leave the scene. Your actions would be judged as: a. providing the standard of care b. negligence c. abandonment d. omission
c. abandonment
82
The expression of the patient’s main problem in his/her own words is called the: a. history of the present illness b. primary problem c. primary complaint d. chief complaint
d. chief complaint
83
The tendency of the body functions to maintain a constant internal environment is known as: a. homeostasis b. alkalosis c. ketoacidosis d. compensation
a. homeostasis
84
A harsh, high-pitched sound heard usually on inspiration. It is indicative of upper airway obstruction involving the vocal cords or epiglottis: a. gurgling b. wheezing c. stridor d. snoring
b. wheezing
85
According to AHA 2015 Guidelines for CPR, interruptions in compressions should take no longer than: a. 5 seconds b. 10 seconds c. 15 seconds d. 20 seconds
b. 10 seconds
86
The level of consciousness is determined in what section of patient assessment? a. scene size-up b. initial assessment c. focused history d. detailed physical exam
b. initial assessment
87
A patient has sustained a broken nose and a fracture of the orbit region of the face. Bleeding from the nose has been stopped. Upon arrival and surveying the scene, the EMT's first concern should be: a. maintain an airway b. maintain circulation c. control bleeding d. stabilize cervical spine
d. stabilize cervical spine
88
A fracture where there is a break in the skin close to the fracture site is classified as: a. open b. closed c. transverse d. comminuted
a. open
89
In doing chest compressions, pressure on the xyphoid is most likely to cause injury to the: a. heart b. liver c. spleen d. kidney
b. liver
90
With the beginning of childbirth, as the head delivers, the EMT should: a. place one hand on the baby's head and apply gentle pressure against the head b. avoid touching the baby's head c. apply gentle traction on the baby's head to assist delivery d. insert one hand into the birth canal to guide baby
a. place one hand on the baby's head and apply gentle pressure against the head
91
You have arrived on the scene on a motorcycle accident to find a male operator unconscious, with a full face helmet in place which does not flip open. You immediately note snoring respirations. You should: a. start ventilations with a BVM while helmet is still in place. b. insert a nasal airway c. leave helmet on, work around it d. remove helmet, using C-Spine precautions
d. remove helmet, using C-Spine precautions
92
The condition in which a pregnant woman is transported on her back with the weight of the unborn baby and the uterus pressing against the inferior vena cava and preventing blood flow back to the heart is known as: a. supine hypotensive syndrome b. stomach compression c. abdominal cavity compression d. supine presentation
a. supine hypotensive syndrome
93
The law which grants certification to an EMT to practice at his/her level of training and governs EMT practice in New York State is: a. General Municipal Law b. Public Health Law c. Medical Practice Act d. Good Samaritan Law
b. Public Health Law
94
When examining a patient with suspected injury or inflammation to the peritoneum, the first step in examining that area of the patient would be to: a. deep palpation b. percussion c. observe guarding d. auscultation
c. observe guarding
95
The chamber of the heart which is largest in mass and pumps against the highest resistance is the: a. right atrium b. right ventricle c. left atrium d. left ventricle
d. left ventricle
96
An acute obstructive respiratory disease with narrowing of the airways and expiratory wheezing that is usually precipitated by stress, infection, or an allergic response is: a. asthma b. emphysema c. bronchitis d. respiratory failure
a. asthma
97
The purpose of the "bag of waters" is: a. cushion & insulation b. nutrition c. waste exchange d. oxygen exchange
a. cushion & insulation
98
In relation to the elbow, the wrist is said to be: a. inferior b. proximal c. distal d. superior
c. distal
99
When performing 2-rescuer CPR, the rescuer should palpate the carotid artery to check for the return of a spontaneous pulse after the first: a. 2 cycles of CPR b. 30 seconds of CPR c. 5 minutes of CPR d. 5 cycles of CPR
d. 5 cycles of CPR
100
High-quality CPR improves a victim’s chances of survival. The critical characteristics of high-quality CPR include starting compressions within _______ seconds of recognition of cardiac arrest. a. 5 b. 10 c. 15 d. 20
b. 10
101