Bobs questions (301-400) Flashcards

(101 cards)

1
Q

Effective two rescuer adult CPR (without advanced airway control) is accomplished when:

a. the rescuer doing chest compressions stops after 5 compressions and allows for
ventilations
b. the rescuer doing chest compressions stops after 15 compressions to allow for
ventilations
c. the rescuer doing chest compressions stops after 30 compressions to allow for
ventilations
d. the rescuer doing chest compressions continues an uninterrupted rate of
compressions

A

c. the rescuer doing chest compressions stops after 30 compressions to allow for
ventilations

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2
Q

You arrive at the scene of a behavioral disorder. You hear someone inside the house
throwing furniture around the room. There is no one else in the house. You should:

a. approach the patient carefully
b. send only one rescuer inside the house
c. call ALS
d. await the assistance of law enforcement

A

d. await the assistance of law enforcement

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3
Q

What is the proper treatment for a cold emergency where one finger is affected with
frostbite and transport is delayed for at least 30 minutes?

a. wrap the finger in sterile gauze with passive warming
b. elevate the finger
c. rewarm the finger (active rewarming) in warm (102 - 105 degrees) water if
refreezing is not a possibility
d. rewarm finger in hot (120 degrees) water if refreezing is not a possibility

A

c. rewarm the finger (active rewarming) in warm (102 - 105 degrees) water if
refreezing is not a possibility

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4
Q

You have completely immobilized a shoulder fracture. The next step would be to:

a. secure patient to long board b. transport
c. check a carotid pulse
d. check a radial pulse

A

d. check a radial pulse

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5
Q

You respond to a COPD patient on home oxygen and not in acute respiratory
distress. You should administer oxygen by:

a. non-rebreather
b. nasal cannula
c. venturi
d. positive pressure device

A

b. nasal cannula

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6
Q

An early sign of lack of oxygen to the heart muscle is:

a. heart spasm
b. chest pain/pressure
c. difficulty breathing
d. fluid in the lungs

A

b. chest pain/pressure

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7
Q

Which component of the blood is active in killing bacteria?

a. hemoglobin
b. gamma globulin
c. platelets
d. white blood cells

A

d. white blood cells

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8
Q

A woman has slipped on the ice-covered sidewalk on her property. She has an
injured jaw and is bleeding from a laceration of the tongue. You should do all of the following EXCEPT:

a. clear the upper respiratory passage in the first phase of patient care
b. have suction available for use
c. bend the patient’s head foreword to move the tongue away from the airway
d. prevent blood from getting into the pharynx because it may cause coughing and
retching

A

c. bend the patient’s head foreword to move the tongue away from the airway

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9
Q

Which of the following is true about the delivery of the placenta

a. the placenta may take up to 30 minutes to deliver and transportation should await
the delivery of the placenta
b. once the delivery is completed and the infant is stabilized, transport should be
initiated immediately without waiting for the deliver of the placenta
c. once delivered, the placenta may be discarded
d. once the placenta starts to deliver, gentle traction may be applied to help guide the
placenta through the birth canal

A

b. once the delivery is completed and the infant is stabilized, transport should be
initiated immediately without waiting for the deliver of the placenta

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10
Q

After the first defibrillation, the next step is to:

a. do about 2 minutes (5 cycles) of CPR
b. transport
c. await ALS
d. check for a pulse

A

a. do about 2 minutes (5 cycles) of CPR

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11
Q

The best way to assess the effectiveness of chest compressions is to:

a. shine a light into the eyes to check for reaction
b. check skin color
c. check femoral pulse
d. check carotid pulse

A

d. check carotid pulse

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12
Q

When you use a BVM device to provide rescuer breathing to a non-traumatic apneic
patient, you should:

a. Maintain the head in the neutral position
b. Remove the mask after each ventilation
c. Deliver a volume of at least 2 liters
d. Make sure an oropharyngeal airway is in place

A

d. Make sure an oropharyngeal airway is in place

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13
Q

Initial BLS airway management of an unconscious patient is:

a. directional
b. medial
c. lateral
d. positional

A

d. positional

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14
Q

Which of the following are signs of hypoglycemia?

a. flushed face, cold clammy skin, rapid respirations
b. pale face, sweet-smelling breath, slow respirations
c. elevated heart rate, cold clammy skin, mental irritability
d. flushed face, warm dry skin, rapid respirations

A

c. elevated heart rate, cold clammy skin, mental irritability

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15
Q

In doing CPR, the fingers are held

a. outward and slightly upward
b. in a fist position
c. inward and downward on the chest
d. flat on the chest wall

A

a. outward and slightly upward

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16
Q

With ingested poisoning the next action a rescuer should take for a poisoning patient
after assuring adequate airway, respirations and circulation is to

a. give syrup of ipecac
b. give activated charcoal
c. contact medical control or a poison control center
d. transport immediately

A

c. contact medical control or a poison control center

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17
Q

An incorrect flow rate for a nasal cannula is:

a. 1 – 2 LPM
b. 2 – 4 LPM
c. 4 – 6 LPM
d. 8 – 10 LPM

A

d. 8 – 10 LPM

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18
Q

Spinal cord injury to the neck is a threat to life by making breathing more difficult and
by causing:

a. hypovolemic shock
b. neurologic shock
c. septic shock
d. cardiogenic shock

A

b. neurologic shock

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19
Q

Hypoxia of the heart often produces

a. increased blood pressure
b. decreased blood pressure
c. depressed respirations
d. pain in the chest with possible radiation

A

d. pain in the chest with possible radiation

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20
Q

In treating the heat stroke victim, the primary goal of the EMT-B should be:

a. kept the patient calm
b. slowly cool the patient
c. prevent further heat buildup
d. remove heat quickly

A

d. remove heat quickly

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21
Q

Which of the following statements regarding traction splinting is INCORRECT?

a. it is the splint of choice for a knee injury
b. distal pulses should be taken before and after splinting
c. clothing should be cut away from the injured site
d. the splint should be adjusted to size prior to applying it to the leg

A

a. it is the splint of choice for a knee injury

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22
Q

Hair follicles, nerve endings, and blood vessels are found in what layer of skin?

a. epidermis
b. dermis
c. subcutaneous layer
d. sebaceous layer

A

b. dermis

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23
Q

Burns to the face present a potentially life threatening problem to the:

a. nasal passage
b. esophagus
c. mucus membranes
d. airway

A

d. airway

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24
Q

The most common cause of an obstructed airway in an adult unresponsive patient is:

a. respiratory secretions
b. the tongue
c. a foreign body
d. a heart attack

A

b. the tongue

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25
You respond to a 65 year old patient who is complaining of left sided weakness. You observe left sided facial droop and his speech is slurred. His left extremities are weaker than his right. First care after airway management of this patient is: a. lay the patient down b. provide oxygen c. place in the recovery position d. place in the shock position
b. provide oxygen
26
Which of the following is not used for assessing the adequacy of breathing: a. respiratory rate b. skin color c. depth of respirations d. blood pressure
d. blood pressure
27
The third principle of FICK is: a. ventilation b. circulation c. oxygenation d. respiration
d. respiration
28
When caring for an alert, responsive, hypothermic patient you should: a. delay transport until rewarming is complete b. move the extremities to stimulate blood flow c. apply heat packs to the groin, axillaries, and cervical regions d. administer fluids with caffeine
c. apply heat packs to the groin, axillaries, and cervical regions
29
The average adult male (150 lbs.) has approximately how many liters of blood? a. 3 b. 4 c. 6 d. 7
c. 6
30
A traction splint is useful in treating a fracture to the: a. knee b. hip c. pelvis d. mid-shaft femur
d. mid-shaft femur
31
You have arrived at the scene of an automobile accident. One of the victims has a bleeding, depressed scalp wound. What should you do? a. loosely cover the wound with a sterile dressing b. apply a pressure dressing c. collect the fluid in a sterile container for later evaluation d. pack the wound with a sterile dressing
a. loosely cover the wound with a sterile dressing
32
You are treating a non-traumatic cardiac arrest patient. Breathing and pulse have been restored but patient remain unresponsive. You should place the patient in the following position: a. shock b. trendelenburg c. recovery d. supine
c. recovery
33
You arrive on the scene of a call for an injured child. You suspect child abuse. How should you proceed with your suspicions? a. confront parents b. call police to scene c. ignore your suspicions d. record suspicions on PCR and notify the Emergency Room upon your arrival with the child
d. record suspicions on PCR and notify the Emergency Room upon your arrival with the child
34
Extremities can be assessed for circulation after splinting by all of the following except: a. feeling for a pulse b. skin temperature c. skin color d. rate of pulse
d. rate of pulse
35
In mouth-to-mask ventilation, the stomach is likely to be distended if too great a force is used to inflate the lungs. Lung ventilation may become more difficult because stomach inflation: a. causes a spasm at the larynx b. pushes up on the diaphragm and increases the likelihood of vomiting c. produces a back pressure that pushes the epiglottis forward d. causes a displacement of the lungs, resulting in deviation of the trachea
b. pushes up on the diaphragm and increases the likelihood of vomiting
36
An airsplint should be inflated until a. it realigns fractured area b. it is so rigid that it can not be dented with finger pressure c. the splint is firm yet still able to dent splint with finger pressure d. the patient states he/she feels relief
c. the splint is firm yet still able to dent splint with finger pressure
37
A convenient mnemonic for assessing medical history is a. AVPU b. SAMPLE c. DCAP/BTLS d. SOAP
b. SAMPLE
38
With the exception of an airway blocked with stomach contents, suctioning should not last longer than a. 5 seconds b. 15 seconds c. 25 seconds d. 30 seconds
b. 15 seconds
39
As an EMT-B you may assist a patient with his/her prescribed nitroglycerine by having patient a. chew tablet b. place under tongue c. drink with glass of water d. suck on tablet
b. place under tongue
40
What two life threatening problems can result from a high “C” spine fracture a. breathing insufficiency and neurologic shock b. cardiac arrest and cardiogenic shock c. tension pneumothorax and ruptured liver d. pneumothorax and cardiac tamponade
a. breathing insufficiency and neurologic shock
41
A non-breathing victim is found floating face down in the water. You should first a. roll him over onto a backboard and begin ventilations b. roll him over and begin ventilations c. stabilize head while rolling victim over d. immobilize victim to backboard in position found
c. stabilize head while rolling victim over
42
You are treating a rattlesnake bite to the arm . What should you instruct the patient to do a. keep arm below level of the heart b. exercise arm c. put heat on bite site d. apply pressure to bite site
a. keep arm below level of the heart
43
All of the following are part of the respiratory system EXCEPT the: a. alveoli b. esophagus c. epiglottis d. bronchi
b. esophagus
44
Two rescuer CPR is being performed on a child. The child starts breathing, you should a. continue ventilations and compressions b. leave hand on chest incase CPR must be restarted c. continue compressions without ventilations d. stop compressions and place in recovery position
d. stop compressions and place in recovery position
45
In the lungs, the alveoli come in close contact with a. pulmonary arteries b. pulmonary veins c. pulmonary capillaries d. atria
c. pulmonary capillaries
46
Which of the following severe burns would be classified as a critical burn a. chest b. both hands c. left thigh d. abdomen
b. both hands
47
Another name for nose bleed is a. nares b. ecchymosis c. epistaxis d. dysphagia
c. epistaxis
48
A non-rebreather mask is run at _________ liters per minute a. 4 - 6 b. 6 - 8 c. 8 - 12 d. 12 -15
d. 12 -15
49
During 2-rescuer CPR, at what point is it appropriate to change compressors? a. after each set b. after 2 minutes c. after 2 cycles d. after 5 minutes
b. after 2 minutes
50
The structure which prevents food from entering the trachea is: a. esophagus b. thyroid cartilage c. cricoid cartilage d. epiglottis
d. epiglottis
51
A correct statement about skeletal muscles is that they: a. relax quickly and are voluntary b. line the walls of the abdominal organs c. contract quickly and are involuntary d. contract slowly and are involuntary
a. relax quickly and are voluntary
52
A conscious patient in respiratory distress should be placed in: a. straight Fowler position (90-degrees) b. prone position c. supine position d. position of comfort
d. position of comfort
53
Unequal size of the pupils is seen in connection with: a. cardiac arrest b. drug reaction c. head injuries d. hemorrhagic shock
c. head injuries
54
A high school soccer player has received a hard direct blow to the abdomen. Which of the following may indicate internal bleeding? a. profuse bleeding from the bowels, deep slow breathing, slow pulse b. weak rapid pulse, tenderness, guarding, and pain in the abdomen c. deep slow breathing, normal pulse, warm dry skin d. warm dry skin, rapid pulse, nausea, deep regular breathing
b. weak rapid pulse, tenderness, guarding, and pain in the abdomen
55
All of the following are signs of respiratory distress except: a. retractions b. nasal flaring c. seesaw breathing d. symmetric breathing
d. symmetric breathing
56
Signs and symptoms of multiple broken ribs include: a. rapid breathing with equal chest expansion, chest pain, rapid weak pulse, and cyanosis b. equal chest expansion, slow weak pulse, cyanosis, and chest pain c. unequal chest expansion, inadequate breathing, deformity, and pain d. slow breathing, cyanosis, chest pain, and rapid weak pulse
c. unequal chest expansion, inadequate breathing, deformity, and pain
57
Which of the following automobile accident patients fall into the highest triage category a. 16 year old female with back injury b. 43 year old male in respiratory and circulatory arrest c. 20 year old female with abdominal injury with a B/P of 130/88 d. 38 year old female with head injury and a B/P of 180/120
d. 38 year old female with head injury and a B/P of 180/120
58
The pain of angina results from a. lack of sufficient oxygen to the heart b. sudden blockage of a coronary artery c. death of heart muscle d. pulmonary embolism
a. lack of sufficient oxygen to the heart
59
If severe bleeding to an extremity does not stop with application of direct pressure and pressure dressing, the next step is to: a. loosely apply a tourniquet b. apply an occlusive dressing c. compress the pressure point d. tightly apply a tourniquet until bleeding stops
d. tightly apply a tourniquet until bleeding stops
60
When NYS BLS Protocols/medical control call for the use of MAST Trousers, they should be inflated in the following manner: a. leg compartments inflated first b. abdominal compartment inflated first c. all compartments inflated simultaneously d. it does not matter which compartments are inflated first
c. all compartments inflated simultaneously
61
The initial assessment requires that the EMT assess a. respiratory effort b. level of consciousness c. circulatory status d. all of the above
d. all of the above
62
The color of jaundice is described as being a. red b. white c. blue d. yellow
d. yellow
63
The medical term for a rapid respiratory rate is a. dyspnea b. hypoventilation c. hypopnea d. tachypnea
d. tachypnea
64
The medical term for the absence of breathing is a. anoxia b. hyperpnea c. apnea d. hypoxia
c. apnea
65
When a newborn’s airway is suctioned, a. the mouth is to be suctioned only according to the NYS protocols b. the nose is to be suctioned before the mouth c. either the nose or mouth can be suctioned first d. the suction tip is to be inserted as far as the EMT can reach to elicit a gag reflex
a. the mouth is to be suctioned only according to the NYS protocols
66
Acting within your scope of training is called: a. sovereign immunity doctrine b. approved protocol c. institutional standard d. professional standard
b. approved protocol
67
All of the following are criteria for effective chest compressions in an adult EXCEPT a. compress the chest hard and fast b minimize interruptions during compressions c. allow for full chest recoil d. pause chest compressions to check the pulse each minute
d. pause chest compressions to check the pulse each minute
68
You are attempting to dislodge a foreign body from the airway of an unconscious infant. In order to deliver chest thrusts, you should place the victim in what position. a. face down on your thigh b. face down on arm c. body across lap d. face up on thigh or arm, head lower than body
d. face up on thigh or arm, head lower than body
69
The third stage of labor begins after the: a. dilation of the cervix b. delivery of the baby c. braking of the bag of waters d. delivery of the placenta
b. delivery of the baby
70
Which one of the following statements concerning performance of CPR is CORRECT: a. compressions and chest recoil/relaxation times should be approximately equal b. quick jabs are effective in providing pulses of blood to the brain c. 70% of the cycle should be compressions and 30% of the cycle should be relaxation d. quick jabs produce jets of blood flow out of the heart and enhances stroke volume
a. compressions and chest recoil/relaxation times should be approximately equal
71
You are assessing a hypothermic patient. You should assess pulses for ______ before starting CPR. a. 5-10 seconds b. 30-45 seconds c. 60-90 seconds d. 1 to 2 minutes
b. 30-45 seconds
72
You are called to the scene of a potentially hazardous materials incident. Your first action should be a. remove victim(s) from scene b. manage ABCs prior to moving c. restrict area to EMS only d. determine hazard to you and your crew
d. determine hazard to you and your crew
73
373. While doing your initial assessment, you discover a life threatening condition. You should: a. make a note of the finding and continue assessment b. treat life threatening condition at once c. immediately transport patient d. complete initial assessment before treating any problems
b. treat life threatening condition at once
74
Adult suction units should generate __________ mmHg vacuum. a. 100 b. 200 c. 300 d. 400
c. 300
75
The A of AVPU stands for: a. ample b. alert c. ABCs d. allergies
b. alert
76
A patient has large blood clots in the mouth. You should clear the airway by: a. having alcohol ready to clean rigid suction tip (Yankauer rigid tip) b. use a finger sweep to clear large clots c. insert suction tip with suction on while inserting d. make sure suction device delivers no more than 200 mmHg of vacuum
b. use a finger sweep to clear large clots
77
Oxygen given by a non-rebreather mask delivers up to _______% concentration of oxygen to the patient. a. 60 b. 70 c. 80 d. 90
d. 90
78
The medical term for any dressing that forms an airtight seal is a(n): a. occlusive dressing b. flutter-valve dressing c. universal dressing d. self-adherent dressing
a. occlusive dressing
79
The extent and limits of the job that the EMT-B does are referred to as: a. duty to act b. limits of liability c. professional practice d. scope of practice
d. scope of practice
80
Which of the following is not a common sign or symptom of an acute MI? a. sudden onset of severe headache b. crushing substernal pain or pressure c. an aching pain in the shoulders d. shortness of breath.
a. sudden onset of severe headache
81
A patient’s blood pressure is 120/80 mmHg. Which of the following is incorrect? a. the systolic B/P is 120 mmHg b. the pulse pressure is 40 mmHg c. the diastolic B/P is 80 mmHg d. the pulse pressure can not be determined
d. the pulse pressure can not be determined
82
Which of the following is an contraindication to assisting with nitroglycerin administration? a. diastolic B/P is 70 mmHg b. the patient has taken one nitro tablet prior to your arrival c. systolic B/P is 100 mmHg d. the patient is having severe substernal chest pain
c. systolic B/P is 100 mmHg
83
The back surface of the body is known as the: a. posterior b. anterior c. inferior d. superior
a. posterior
84
As a part of infection control procedures, it is ESSENTIAL that the EMS provider: a. dispose of all equipment used after each call b. avoid casual contact with any patient c. wash his/her hands after treating each patient d. wash his/her clothes after each patient contact
c. wash his/her hands after treating each patient
85
You are the first EMS provider on the scene and have begun to conduct an Initial Assessment. All of the following procedures are included in the Initial Assessment EXCEPT: a. checking for adequate breathing b. opening an airway c. taking the blood pressure d. checking for profuse bleeding
c. taking the blood pressure
86
You arrive at the scene of a call and find an unconscious adult victim. The initial attempt to ventilate proves unsuccessful. The NEXT step should be to: a. deliver 5 abdominal thrusts b. check the carotid pulse c. reposition the head and attempt to ventilate again d. reposition the head and perform a finger sweep
c. reposition the head and attempt to ventilate again
87
While inserting a nasopharyngeal airway into the right nostril, you encounter resistance, you should: a. use more force in inserting the airway b. revert to an oropharyngeal airway c. relubricate nasopharyngeal airway and try the left nostril d. discontinue attempt to insert an airway
c. relubricate nasopharyngeal airway and try the left nostril
88
Which of the following factors is common to all forms of hypoperfusion (shock)? a. dilation of blood vessels b. inadequate cell perfusion c. decreased blood volume d. sympathetic nerve response
b. inadequate cell perfusion
89
Paralysis limited to one side of the body is usually a sign of: a. skull injury b. thoracic spine injury c. nontraumatic brain injury d. cervical spine injury
c. nontraumatic brain injury
90
When examining a patient at the scene of an accident, you should check for injuries to an extremity by doing all of the following EXCEPT: a. manipulating the extremity for abnormal motion b. determining the presence of a distal pulse c. gently palpating the extremity d. assessing the skin at the distal extremity for circulation
a. manipulating the extremity for abnormal motion
91
In caring for a non-breathing patient with a stoma or tracheostomy tube, the EMS provider must: a. use a nasopharyngeal airway b. use extra force with each ventilation c. cover the neck opening d. ventilate through the neck opening
d. ventilate through the neck opening
92
An adult patient has a foreign body obstruction and is able to forcefully cough. The EMS provider’s MOST APPROPRIATE action is to: a. perform a finger sweep b. not interfere and monitor the patient c. perform up to 5 abdominal thrust d. perform back blows followed by abdominal thrusts
b. not interfere and monitor the patient
93
In providing infant or child CPR, two EMT rescuers should use a compression/ ventilation rate of a. 15 : 1 b. 15 : 2 c. 30 : 1 d. 30 : 2
b. 15 : 2
94
When you are providing treatment for a patient with an abdominal injury, all of the following actions are appropriate EXCEPT: a. administering high-concentration oxygen b. positioning the patient face up with knees flexed c. providing a drink of water d. saving vomitus for transport to medical facility
c. providing a drink of water
95
At the end of each compression, make sure you allow the chest to recoil or re- expand completely. The reason for this is: a. stomach distention can be prevented b. correct hand position can be maintained c. overexpansion of the chest can be avoided d. full chest recoil allows more blood to refill the heart between compressions
d. full chest recoil allows more blood to refill the heart between compressions
96
If slight gastric distention occurs in a victim as a result of proper ventilation, the FIRST action the rescuer should take is to: a. keep the victim’s head and shoulders lower than the chest b. keep the victim’s head and shoulders higher than the chest c. give 5 abdominal thrust to expel the air d. reposition the airway and continue ventilations
d. reposition the airway and continue ventilations
97
The use of a nasopharyngeal airway is NOT indicated for a patient who: a. exhibits a gag reflex b. has injuries to the oral cavity c. has cerebrospinal fluid leaking through the nose and/or ears d. requires suctioning
c. has cerebrospinal fluid leaking through the nose and/or ears
98
Providing care within the scope of practice would be considered behavior in accordance with: a. the sovereign immunity doctrine b. professional conduct c state law d. institutional standards
c state law
99
A patient has been involved in a motor vehicle crash. The patient is cyanotic with rapid shallow respirations at a rate of 32 per minute, unequal chest expansion, and diminished breath sounds. The MOST APPROPRIATE device for delivering treatment is a: a. nasal cannula at 2 liters/min b. Venturi mask at 24% oxygen c. non-rebreathing mask at 10 liters/min d. bag-valve-mask with supplemental oxygen
d. bag-valve-mask with supplemental oxygen
100
You are treating a patient who is complaining of chest pain and difficulty breathing. You should have the patient lie: a. flat and take slow deep breaths b. on his/her back with head elevated and take fast shallow breaths c. in whatever position feels most comfortable d. in the coma position
c. in whatever position feels most comfortable
101