Bob's questions (201-300)

Question 1

Adequate compression depth for an infant in cardiac arrest is:

a. 0ne third the depth of chest (1½ inches, 4 cm)
b. 2 – 2½ inches
c. 2½ - 3 inches
d. deep as the compressor can go

Answer 1

a. 0ne third the depth of chest (1½ inches, 4 cm)

Question 2

A common cause of airway obstruction occurs in the unconscious person who has
the head:

a. extended backwards
b. flexed forward
c. bent to either side
d. in the neutral position

Answer 2

b. flexed forward

Question 3

You have an unconscious, non-breathing trauma patient. Which technique would
you choose to open the airway?

a. head tilt - neck lift
b. head tilt - chin lift
c. head tilt - jaw lift
d. jaw thrust

Answer 3

d. jaw thrust

Question 4

Well performed cardiac compressions provide about what percentage of normal
cardiac blood flow?

a. 12-15%
b. 25-33%
c. 45-60%
d. 66-75%

Answer 4

b. 25-33%

Question 5

The right side of the heart provides for what phase of circulation?

a. cardiac
b. pulmonary
c. systemic
d. systolic

Answer 5

b. pulmonary

Question 6

What approximate percentage of oxygen will a bag valve mask deliver without it
being attached to any supplemental oxygen?

a. 12%
b. 21%
c. 90%
d. 100%

Answer 6

b. 21%

Question 7

When assessing the pulse of an extreme hypothermic patient, you should check
the pulse for how many seconds?

a. 15 - 30
b. 30 - 45
c. 45 - 60
d. 60 - 75

Answer 7

b. 30 - 45

Question 8

What is the characteristic appearance of arterial bleeding?

a. dark red blood flowing steadily.
b. dark red blood spurting
c. bright red blood flowing steadily.
d. bright red blood spurting

Answer 8

b. dark red blood spurting

Question 9

Once a tourniquet is in place, it should be:

a. removed for 30 seconds every 15 minutes so circulation does not stagnate.
b. removed by or on the order of a medical control physician only.
c. loosened approximately 5 minutes after the bleeding stops.
e. loosened after 5 minutes to permit oozing of blood and a palpable pulse distal
to the tourniquet.

Answer 9

b. removed by or on the order of a medical control physician only.

Question 10

Which of the following would be a common EARLY manifestation of shock?

a. restlessness
b. falling B/P
c. bluish skin color
d. irregular respirations

Answer 10

a. restlessness

Question 11

You are treating a construction worker who collapsed at the job site. The temperature is hot with high humidity and little air movement. The patient has hot, dry skin and a decreased level of consciousness. You should:

a. transport immediately, cooling enroute
b. cool patient prior to transport
c. perform detailed physical exam prior to transport
d. await ALS

Answer 11

a. transport immediately, cooling enroute

Question 12

As a general rule, in what position should the conscious shock patient be placed?

a. prone, with extremities elevated.
b. supine, with lower extremities elevated.
c. laterally recumbent.
d. seated with a pillow behind the head.

Answer 12

b. supine, with lower extremities elevated.

Question 13

What is the basic abnormality in neurogenic shock?

a. reduced blood flow.
b. decreased peripheral vascular resistance.
c. inadequate pumping ability of the heart.
d. harmful changes in the chemistry of the body fluids.

Answer 13

b. decreased peripheral vascular resistance.

Question 14

Which of the following diagnostic signs would not be useful in determining if early
signs of shock were present in your patient?

a. respirations
b. pulse
c. B/P
d. skin color and condition

Answer 14

c. B/P

Question 15

You are called to the scene for a child with a pencil through the cheek. Upon examination, you note that the pencil is through and into the mouth about 2 inch. How would you proceed?

a. Stabilize the pencil in place, and suction as needed to control bleeding.
b. remove the pencil from the outside and pack on both sides of the wound.
c. draw the pencil back so that it no longer protrudes into the mouth but not enough so that it is removed, and suction as needed.
d. monitor and transport only; delay any manipulation until the child reaches the
hospital.

Answer 15

b. remove the pencil from the outside and pack on both sides of the wound.

Question 16

Sprains are injuries in which:

a. joints are stretched and partially torn.
b. tendons are stretched and partially torn.
c. bones are stretched almost to the breaking point.
d. ligaments are stretched an partially torn.

Answer 16

d. ligaments are stretched an partially torn.

Question 17

The general rule in dealing with dislocations is:

a. attempt gentle reductions unless mechanical resistance is encountered.
b. always immobilize in the position in which found.
c. immobilize in the position in which found, unless there is neurologic or circulatory compromise, then seek medical control direction
d. take no action without first consulting medical control.

Answer 17

c. immobilize in the position in which found, unless there is neurologic or circulatory compromise, then seek medical control direction

Question 18

Your patient is found lying supine with her right leg externally rotated. It appears
3 inches shorter than the left. She is complaining of pain in the right hip area. What do you suspect?

a. fracture of the right hip.
b. anterior dislocation of the right hip.
c. posterior dislocation of the right hip.
d. fracture of the right femur.

Answer 18

a. fracture of the right hip.

Question 19

You are called to the scene of a motorcycle accident in which a 32 year old male hit a car head on and was flung over the handle bars. He is complaining of severe pain on palpation of both mid femur areas. B/P is 120/84, pulse is 100 and regular, respirations are 24. Skin color is pale. How would you proceed?

a. put MAST in place and inflate, using MAST as a splint.
b. traction splint both legs prior to transport if patient remains stable.
c. place full leg board splints on outside of both legs. Put MAST in place and
inflate until condition improves.
d. secure the patient to a spine board and tie legs together. MAST is contraindicated in this situation.

Answer 19

b. traction splint both legs prior to transport if patient remains stable.

Question 20

The portion of the brain responsible of the maintenance of posture, balance, and coordination is called the:

a. cerebrum
b. cerebellum
c. brain stem
d. medulla

Answer 20

b. cerebellum

Question 21

Which of the following injuries would most likely result in an air embolism?

a. tension pneumothorax
b. tracheal injury
c. venous bleeding in the neck d. cervical spinal fracture

Answer 21

c. venous bleeding in the neck

Question 22

Pneumothorax is defined as:

a. air in the pleural space.
b. block in the heart sac.
c. air between the pleura & the chest wall.
d. air under the skin.

Answer 22

a. air in the pleural space.

Question 23

Your patient has an visceration of the abdominal organs. Your treatment should be:

a. gently replace the organs and cover with a dry, sterile dressing.
b. leave the organs as is and cover with a dry, sterile dressing.
c. irrigate the area with copious amounts of saline to keep the organs moist, but do not touch with any dressings.
d. cover the organs with a moist sterile dressing underneath a non-adherent
material such as Saran Wrap.

Answer 23

d. cover the organs with a moist sterile dressing underneath a non-adherent
material such as Saran Wrap.

Question 24

A 28 year old patient was thrown against the steering wheel in a two car collision. The front of the patient’s car is crumpled and the steering wheel is bent. The patient is
conscious and complaining of pain in the chest and difficulty breathing. His eyes are bulging and appear to be bloodshot. The neck veins are distended. The patient has probably sustained:

a. tension pneumothorax
b. traumatic asphyxia
c. hemothorax
d. simple pneumothorax

Answer 24

b. traumatic asphyxia

Question 25

What is the FIRST thing you should do when treating a patient for an overdose of drugs? a. call the local poison control center for information b. restrain the patient to prevent the possibility of self injury c. ensure the patient has an adequate airway d. notify the police of the overdose situation

Answer 25

c. ensure the patient has an adequate airway

Question 26

Your patient is a 16 year old female who has just been involved in a family argument. Examination reveals rapid, deep ventilations, dizziness, numbness around the mouth and tingling fingers. Lungs are clear. You suspect: a. spontaneous pneumothorax b. asthma attack c. hyperventilation syndrome d. medication overdose

Answer 26

c. hyperventilation syndrome

Question 27

The respirations of a patient who has internal bleeding tends to be: a. absent b. rapid c. slow d. full

Answer 27

b. rapid

Question 28

If the patient care protocols have been revised, it is the EMS provider’s responsibility to: a. attend in-service training with the agency’s medical director to become familiar with the new protocols b. continue to use the old protocols because they are already familiar c. begin to use the new protocols as soon as the agency receives them d. operate only when in direct communication with a physician

Answer 28

a. attend in-service training with the agency’s medical director to become familiar with the new protocols

Question 29

When an EMT cannot determine whether a conscious patient with an intact gag reflex is displaying signs/symptoms of hypo- or hyperglycemia, he/she should: a. administer glucose or a sugar solution by mouth. b. encourage a family member of patient to give insulin. c. administer oxygen and transport only. d. have the patient eat a meal.

Answer 29

a. administer glucose or a sugar solution by mouth.

Question 30

You are called to attend a 28 year old woman who has had several seizures in the past half hour. When you arrive at the scene, you find the patient lying on the floor, groggy and disoriented. Her husband states that she suffered a seizure about five minutes ago. As you are examining her, you notice her eyes suddenly deviate to the left, and a moment later she is convulsing again. This condition is known as: a. status asthmaticus b. psychomotor seizures c. temporal lobe seizure d. status epilepticus

Answer 30

d. status epilepticus

Question 31

You are called to see a six year old child who has a high fever. His mother tells you that he became ill about four hours ago, and has been complaining of severe sore throat. He says it hurts to swallow. You find the child sitting upright in bed, crying, and drooling noticeably. He appears very frightened. His axillary temperature is 104, respirations 30 and shallow, and there is flaring of the nostrils on inhalation. His chest is clear. Which of the following is NOT part of the management of this patient? a. administer high concentration, humidified oxygen if it does not further agitate the child b. carefully examine the throat to determine if the oropharynx is swollen and reddened. c. transport the patient in a sitting position, or however the patient is most comfortable. d. use the siren as little as possible, to avoid adding to the patient's fear and anxiety.

Answer 31

b. carefully examine the throat to determine if the oropharynx is swollen and reddened.

Question 32

An infant is burned on both upper extremities and head. What percentage of the body is burned? a. 27% b. 36% c. 31.5% d. 54%

Answer 32

b. 36%

Question 33

Your patient had been filling the gas tank on his lawn mower when it suddenly burst into flames. He quickly threw the can away from himself. The hairs in his nostrils are singed, his face is blistered, and both arms are reddened. You would classify his burns as: a. severe. b. moderate. c. minor. d. not enough information is present to classify these burns.

Answer 33

a. severe.

Question 34

A 43 year old female has sustained burns to both her legs and her abdominal area. What percentage of her body is affected? a. 34% b. 45% c. 27% d. 36%

Answer 34

b. 45%

Question 35

Which one of the following is NOT a characteristic finding in a patient who is having a heart attack? a. nausea & vomiting b. weakness c. unequal pupils d. sweating

Answer 35

c. unequal pupils

Question 36

When checking the lower extremities of a conscious patient for paralysis, the EMS provider should FIRST: a. look for gross deformities and feel for crepitus b. feel for pedal pulses and crepitus c. touch the patient’s feet and ask if he/she can feel the touch d. stick the patient lightly with a pin to see if there is feeling

Answer 36

c. touch the patient’s feet and ask if he/she can feel the touch

Question 37

The ambulance driver should remember that New York State Vehicle and Traffic Law grants ambulances all of the following except: a. use of controlled, additional speed b. passage against a traffic signal c. privilege of special parking at the scene, regardless of posted parking regulations. d. absolute right of way over all other types of vehicles.

Answer 37

d. absolute right of way over all other types of vehicles.

Question 38

A traffic signal turns red as the ambulance in the emergency mode (lights and siren) approaches on its way to an emergency call. There are no vehicles in front of the ambulance. The ambulance driver should: a. be prepared to stop, and proceed when safe. b. proceed through without stopping. c. turn in a side road and avoid the light. d. turn off the emergency lights and siren, and wait for the traffic signal to change.

Answer 38

a. be prepared to stop, and proceed when safe.

Question 39

If the spinal cord were severed at the waist, all body segments below the level of injury would MOST likely: a. retain motion but lose all sensation b. become completely paralyzed c. become partially paralyzed d. become completely paralyzed but retain sensation

Answer 39

b. become completely paralyzed

Question 40

In the acronym START TRIAGE, what does the “R” in START stand for? a. respirations b. rapid c. rest d. radiate

Answer 40

b. rapid

Question 41

The care that others of equal training would be expected to give, and by which actions are judged is called: a. standard of care b. protocols c. medical control d. level of training

Answer 41

a. standard of care

Question 42

Decompensated shock places the patient in what “CUPS” category? a. “C” b. “U” c. “P” d. “S”

Answer 42

b. “U”

Question 43

In single rescuer adult CPR, the compression to ventilation rate is: a. 5 : 1 b. 5 : 2 c. 15 : 2 d. 30 : 2

Answer 43

d. 30 : 2

Question 44

The type of hypoperfusion associated with severe blood loss is called: a. anaphylaxis b. hypovolemic c. cardiogenic d. respiratory

Answer 44

b. hypovolemic

Question 45

The primary purpose of the initial assessment is to: a. find and treat all life threatening injuries b. find and splint all fractures c. determine SAMPLE d. locate and treat all injuries

Answer 45

a. find and treat all life threatening injuries

Question 46

You are called to the Legislative Office Building and you find a senator unconscious on the ground. You begin to treat the senator and a reporter asks you by what authority can you treat the senator. Your reply is that you may treat under: a. implied consent b. legislative consent c. expressed consent d. informed consent

Answer 46

a. implied consent

Question 47

Burns produce shock by their effect upon: a. arteries b. capillaries c. plasma d. red blood cells

Answer 47

c. plasma

Question 48

A high pitched whistling sound created by narrowed bronchioles is called: a. stridor b. wheezing c. gurgling d. grunting

Answer 48

b. wheezing

Question 49

The word auscultation refers to: a. oscillation b. vibration c. listening d. palpation

Answer 49

c. listening

Question 50

A disadvantage of a blood pressure taken by palpation is that you can only obtain the _______ pressure. a. systolic b. diastolic c. pulse d. contractile

Answer 50

a. systolic

Question 51

Which of the following devices is best suited for total immobilization of the patient? a. wheeled cot stretcher b. short board or KED c. Stokes d. long spine board

Answer 51

d. long spine board

Question 52

Unless additional suctioning time is necessary to clear the airway, an adult patient should be suctioned for no longer than ___________ seconds a. 5 b. 15 c. 20 d. 25

Answer 52

b. 15

Question 53

The molecule in the blood which carries oxygen is: a. white blood cells b. red blood cells c. hemoglobin d. platelets

Answer 53

c. hemoglobin

Question 54

A major complication of a bag-valve-mask (BVM) resuscitator with the one-person technique is: a. over ventilation and pneumothorax b. low tidal volumes caused by leakage from mask seal c. rupture of the bag during exhalation d. valve failure caused by clogging

Answer 54

b. low tidal volumes caused by leakage from mask seal

Question 55

When a patient has ingested poison, you should: a. always induce vomiting b. always give the universal antidote (activated charcoal, tannic acid and magnesium oxide) immediately c. never induce vomiting under any circumstances d. never induce vomiting if the ingested poison is a corrosive

Answer 55

d. never induce vomiting if the ingested poison is a corrosive

Question 56

The calcaneus is also known as the: a. heel b. ankle c. wrist d. palm

Answer 56

a. heel

Question 57

When blunt or compression forces are applied to the skin, the capillaries or larger vessels may leak or rupture. This type of injury is known as a: a. contusion b. abrasion c. puncture d. crepitation

Answer 57

a. contusion

Question 58

When examining the lower extremities, compare: a. one to the other b. upper thighs to the lower leg c. them to the upper extremities d. anterior-posterior diameter

Answer 58

a. one to the other

Question 59

The best location for assessing adequate breath sounds on the anterior surface of the body is at the apices (top of the lung field) at the: a. anterior axillary line b. mid-sternum c. mid-clavicular line d. nipple line

Answer 59

c. mid-clavicular line

Question 60

The posterior tibial pulse is located behind the: a. inner ankle bone b. mid-thigh region c. hip region d. top of the foot

Answer 60

a. inner ankle bone

Question 61

A continuous increase in the pulse and drop in the blood pressure during repeated on- going assessments suggest: a. a trend in the patients status b. improvement in the patient’s condition c. the patient will benefit from airway insertion d. nothing of importance to the EMT

Answer 61

a. a trend in the patients status

Question 62

All of the following are phases of a grand mal seizure except: a. aura b. tonic c. clonic d. postictal

Answer 62

a. aura

Question 63

A hypothermic patient who is alert and responding should be managed by: a. active rewarming b. passive rewarming c. local rewarming d. rewarming by immersion

Answer 63

a. active rewarming

Question 64

The mandatory reporting requirement for EMTs concerning suspected child abuse cases establishes which penalties for failure to comply? a. civil b. criminal c. both d. neither

Answer 64

c. both

Question 65

After the infants head is born, you should before proceeding with the delivery. a. suction the mouth as nasal suction is no longer recommended by NYS EMS b. check for a cord around the neck c. perform a and b d. none of the above

Answer 65

c. perform a and b

Question 66

You are transporting an amputated limb to the hospital. How should it be transported? a. wrapped in a sterile dressing, packed with ice and sealed in a plastic bag b. wrapped in a sterile dressing, placed inside a plastic bag or wrapped in plastic, then transported near or on ice to keep cool c. first soaked in water, then wrapped in a sterile dressing, place inside a plastic bag or wrap in plastic, and keep warm d. wrapped in a sterile dressing, place inside a plastic bag, then cooled with dry ice

Answer 66

b. wrapped in a sterile dressing, placed inside a plastic bag or wrapped in plastic, then transported near or on ice to keep cool

Question 67

Two life-threatening complications which may be encountered in a patient with a cervical spinal cord injury are: a. paralysis of the facial muscles and of the diaphragm b. paralysis of the neck muscles and a ruptured diaphragm c. neurogenic shock and a ruptured diaphragm d. inadequate breathing effort and neurogenic shock

Answer 67

d. inadequate breathing effort and neurogenic shock

Question 68

The narrowest portion of a child’s upper airway is at the: a. pharynx b. larynx c. cricoid ring d. glottis

Answer 68

c. cricoid ring

Question 69

The primary problem leading to cardiac arrest in children is: a. heart disease b. respiratory failure c. cancer d. seizures

Answer 69

b. respiratory failure

Question 70

All of the following cause seizures in children, what is the least cause in Adults a. hypoglycemia b. trauma c. hypoxia d. fever

Answer 70

d. fever

Question 71

Which of the following is classified as a long bone? a. sternum b. ribs c. humerous d. vertebra

Answer 71

c. humerous

Question 72

Nitroglycerine tablets have what affect upon the body? a. heart stimulator b. vassal dilator c. heart depressant d. vassal constrictor

Answer 72

b. vassal dilator

Question 73

The correct term for an open wound that is irregular and uneven is: a. laceration b. abrasion c. incision d. puncture

Answer 73

a. laceration

Question 74

When inserting a nasopharyngeal airway a. the airway always is placed in the right nostril b. the airway always is placed in the left nostril c. the airway is lubricated with water soluble lubricant prior to insertion d. if resistance is met, use more force to advance airway

Answer 74

c. the airway is lubricated with water soluble lubricant prior to insertion

Question 75

If medical control tells you to do something you are not trained to do, you should: a. defer to another equally trained crew member. b. do what you are instructed to do by medical control. c. tell medical control that you are not trained to perform said medical procedure. d. assume that protocols have been changed.

Answer 75

c. tell medical control that you are not trained to perform said medical procedure.

Question 76

What connects the ribs to the sternum? a. tendons b. ligaments c. cartilage d. muscles

Answer 76

c. cartilage

Question 77

With a flail chest, what would you expect to find? a. paradoxical respirations, deformity, difficulty breathing, rapid pulse. b. paradoxical respirations, cyanosis, slow pulse. c. rapid pulse, no deformity. d. difficulty breathing, rapid pulse, no paradoxical respiration.

Answer 77

a. paradoxical respirations, deformity, difficulty breathing, rapid pulse.

Question 78

You come upon an unconscious trauma patient with suspected spinal injury. You should: a. ignore airway, protect the spine. b. ignore spine, maintain airway. c. use special technique for opening airway while protecting spine. d. transport as rapidly as possible.

Answer 78

c. use special technique for opening airway while protecting spine

Question 79

When should you start CPR on a drowning patient? a. Immediately upon reaching the patient in the water. b. When you get the patient out of the water. c. In the water while support the thorax. d. After a second rescuer has arrived.

Answer 79

b. When you get the patient out of the water.

Question 80

A high pitched crowing sound (stridor) indicates: a. partial airway obstruction with good air exchange. b. partial airway obstruction with poor air exchange. c. complete airway obstruction with good air exchange. d. complete airway obstruction with poor air exchange.

Answer 80

b. partial airway obstruction with poor air exchange.

Question 81

All forms of shock are indications of: a. poor tissue perfusion b. poor cardiac activity c. poor ventilitory activity d. poor circulatory activity

Answer 81

a. poor tissue perfusion

Question 82

Cutting the umbilical cord is: a. an ALS procedure b. a standard procedure for BEMT c. only done by approval of medical control d. not done in the field

Answer 82

b. a standard procedure for BEMT

Question 83

In treating an unconscious choking victim, where do you place your hands in order to relieve the obstruction? a. over the center of the chest on the lower half of the breastbone b. over the upper half of the sternum. c. between the umbilicus and the xyphoid. d. over the lower half of the abdomen.

Answer 83

a. over the center of the chest on the lower half of the breastbone

Question 84

You are ready to begin chest compressions on an adult victim. Which of the following is the correct hand position for chest compressions? a. upper half of the sternum. b. one palm width below the top of the sternum. c. over the center of the chest on the lower half of the breastbone. d. lowest part of the sternum.

Answer 84

c. over the center of the chest on the lower half of the breastbone

Question 85

You are doing two rescuer Adult CPR. How fast should you compress the chest? a. 80 – 100 times per minute b. rate depends upon size of the victims chest. c. at least 100 times per minute but no more that 120 times per minute d. fast enough to keep the facial skin pink.

Answer 85

c. at least 100 times per minute but no more that 120 times per minute

Question 86

The single most important reason for a single rescuer to activate EMS after determining unresponsiveness in an arrested adult patient is: a. fast arrival of someone to help you with CPR. b. fast arrival of EMS personnel able to attach and use a defibrillator. c. fast arrival of EMS personnel able to intubate, start an IV, and give medications d. fast arrival of an ambulance to transport the victim to the nearest emergency department.

Answer 86

b. fast arrival of EMS personnel able to attach and use a defibrillator.

Question 87

You are responding to a emergency call for a three year old boy. His mother said, his heart has stopped beating. The most common cause of the heart stopping (cardiac arrest) in this age child is: a. an inherited form of pediatric ventricular tachycardia/fibrillation. b. severe airway or breathing problems. c. electrical shock from household appliances. d. severe head injury.

Answer 87

b. severe airway or breathing problems.

Question 88

A thirty five year old woman swallowed a handful of strong sleeping pills 30 to 40 minutes ago. She is now unconscious, barely breathing , and taking only gasping breaths. Her pulse is rapid and strong. What should you do next? a. call 911; start rescue breathing at a rate of 12 per minute. b. start CPR; call 911 after two minutes. c. place the victim in the recovery position after two abdominal thrusts. d. perform CPR for one minute; then call 911.

Answer 88

a. call 911; start rescue breathing at a rate of 12 per minute.

Question 89

You have responded to the scene of a 60 year old man who complains of a sudden, severe headache, weakness on one side of his face, trouble speaking, and marked weakness in one arm. The condition you consider most likely is: a. epileptic seizure b. acute myocardial infarction c. acute stroke d. diabetic coma

Answer 89

c. acute stroke

Question 90

You are a firefighter who has received a non-breathing six year old child just evacuated from a burning apartment. You begin rescue breathing; the size (volume) of each breath should be: a. half the size that you give to an adult b. puffs from your checks. c. enough air to the see the chest rise. d. twice the size that you would give a three year old.

Answer 90

d. twice the size that you would give a three year old.

Question 91

You and your crew return from a call and go to a local coffee shop and discuss your recent call with other crew members and some patrons of the restaurant. This a. is a violation of the patient’s right of confidentiality (HIPAA) and is an unethical act b. is acceptable if being done for educational purposed c. does not constitute a violation of the patient’s rights d. should be kept to a minimum

Answer 91

a. is a violation of the patient’s right of confidentiality (HIPAA) and is an unethical act

Question 92

The compression rate for 2-rescuer CPR on a patient with an advanced airway in place is: a. 15 followed by 2 ventilations b. 30 followed by 2 ventilations c. 30 followed by 1 ventilation d. compressions at a rate if at least 100/minute without pausing for ventilations

Answer 92

d. compressions at a rate if at least 100/minute without pausing for ventilations

Question 93

What should you do FIRST for a victim who shows signs of an injured shoulder? a. manually stabilize the injury site b. check for a proximal pulse c. apply traction promptly d. cushion the injury

Answer 93

a. manually stabilize the injury site

Question 94

An obvious shortening of one leg indicates a fracture of the: a. tibia/fibula b. femur c. hip d. pelvis

Answer 94

b. femur

Question 95

A victim with major blunt trauma has a systolic BP of 40 by palpation, is tachycardic, skin is cool and clammy, and has rapid shallow respirations. Appropriate treatment would be: a. MAST/PASG are contraindicated. b. Apply MAST but do not inflate at this time. c. Apply and inflate MAST. d. Apply MAST and inflate leg compartments only.

Answer 95

d. Apply MAST and inflate leg compartments only.

Question 96

When doing rescue breathing only to a child, the rescuer should ventilate once every: a. 1 to 2 seconds (60-30 per minute) b. 3 to 5 seconds (20 – 12 per minute) c. 6 to 9 seconds (10 – 7 per minute) d. 8 to 10 seconds (7 – 6 per minute)

Answer 96

b. 3 to 5 seconds (20 – 12 per minute)

Question 97

You arrive on the scene of an automobile accident. You find a victim lying on the side of the road unconscious. In your examination of this patient you pinch the bottom of the foot and you observe reflex movement of the foot. This sign indicates: a. there is no spinal injury b. there still may be spinal injury and spinal restriction is in order c. there is adequate circulation to the foot d. there is no injury to the back

Answer 97

b. there still may be spinal injury and spinal restriction is in order

Question 98

You arrive at a home where you observe evidence of severe friction between parents and their 19 year old daughter. This situation is called: a. domestic dispute/violence b. generation gap c. psychological conflict d. child abuse

Answer 98

a. domestic dispute/violence

Question 99

In which of the following positions should a nontraumatic conscious patient showing sings and symptoms of an altered mental status be transported? a. prone, with head elevated b. supine, with feet elevated c. laterally, with feet elevated d. supine, with head elevated

Answer 99

d. supine, with head elevated

Question 100

You come upon an unconscious person with no trauma. You clearly hear stridor. You could do all of the following except: a. chin lift, head tilt backward b. head tilted forward c. jaw thrust d. chin lift

Answer 100

b. head tilted forward