Midterm 1/21/2025 Flashcards by Danielle Fusco

Which of the following provides the greatest personal safety for an EMT working at a motor vehicle collision?

A) Flashlight
C) Reflective outer clothing
B) Portable radio
D) Nonslip footwear

C) Reflective outer clothing

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Your patient is a 10-year-old boy who suffered a possible fractured arm while rollerblading at a friend’s house. Which of the following is the best way to obtain consent for treatment?

A) Allow the patient to consent as an emancipated minor.

B) Act on implied consent.

C) Call the patient’s mother at work.

D) Get consent from the patient’s 15-year-old sister, who is at the scene.

C) Call the patient’s mother at work.

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The EMT’s obligation to provide care to a patient elther as a formal or ethical responsibility is known as which of the following?

A) Legal responsibility
C) Scope of practice
B) Standard of care
D) Duty to act

D) Duty to act

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The administration of oxygen and the application of spinal immobilization are part of which of the following for the EMT?

A) Standard of care
C) Duty to act
B) Scope of practice
D) Expressed consent

B) Scope of practice

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You are attempting to place a nonrebreather mask on a patient who is experiencing difficulty breathing. The patient is anxious and does not want the mask on his face. Which of the following is the best course of action?

A) Explain the importance of oxygen, and ask the patient to at least try to leave the mask on, but assure him that if he can’t tolerate it, you can try another method.

B) Tell the patient the mask is for his benefit, and you will restrain him if necessary to place it on him.

C) Document that the patient was uncooperative and refused oxygen.

D) Tell the patient he will soon become unconscious without the mask, and then you will be able to place it on him.

A) Explain the importance of oxygen, and ask the patient to at least try to leave the mask on, but assure him that if he can’t tolerate it, you can try another method.

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What mode of transmission most accurately describes the route of spreading hepatitis ?

A) Unprotected sex
B) Fecal-oral
C) Bloodborne
D) Respiratory droplet

B) Fecal-oral

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The abdominal quadrants include all of the following except the:

A) right medial.
B) left upper.
C) left lower.
D) right upper.

A) right medial.

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Which of the following is the primary function of the stomach?

A) Absorption of water from food products

B) Absorption of nutrients into the bloodstream

C) Chemical breakdown of food by acidic secretions

D) Production of bile

C) Chemical breakdown of food by acidic secretions

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In which age group do you anticipate seeing patients who have less efficient cardiovascular systems and a reduction of prevlous blood volume?

A) Early adulthood
C) Late adulthood
B) Infancy
D) Middle adulthood

C) Late adulthood

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You are treating an unconsclous patient who does not have a possibility of spinal Injury and who is breathing adequately. Which of the following is the best position for transporting the patient?

A) SemI-Fowler position
B) Supine
C) Recovery position
D) Fowler position

C) Recovery position

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Daniel has been performing landscaping on a hot, humid summer day when he suddenly becomes dizzy and feels like he might faint. This disruption of fluid balance is most likely caused by:

A) hypotension.
B) tachycardia.
C) dehydration.
D) hyperthermia.

C) dehydration.

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Which of the following is not determined in a scene size-up?

A) Chief complaint
B) Potential hazards to the EMS crew
C) Need for additional resources
D) Mechanism of injury

A) Chief complaint

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Which or the following represents the correct order of assessment for the EMIT during the primary assessment from start to end?

A) Patient priority, general impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation

B) General impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority

C) Mental status, general impression, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority

D) None of the above

B) General impression, mental status, airway, breathing, circulation, patient priority

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You are called for a patient who is complaining of being weak and dizzy. He reports that he does not have enough money to pay for his medications so he has not gotten them refilled. Your service has an automatic blood pressure machine and you use it to measure the patient’s blood pressure while you count his respirations. The blood pressure machine reports a blood pressure of 280/140.
What should you do next?

A) Continue with vital sign assessment.
C) Call immediately for ALS response.
B) Begin transport immediately.
D) Take a manual

D) Take a manual

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Expert clinicians may use different approaches of thinking through problems, but which of the following will they have in common?

A) Knowledge that one strategy works for everyone
B) Organization of data in their head
C) Strong foundation of knowledge
D) Dislike of ambiguity

C) Strong foundation of knowledge

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What is the sound of the soft tissue of the upper airway creating impedance or partial obstruction to the flow of air?

A) Snoring
B) Gurgling
C) Hoarseness
D) Stridor

A) Snoring

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You are called to an elementary school for an 8-year-old female patient who is experiencing respiratory distress. The school nurse states the patient has an epinephrine auto- injector for a possible anaphylactic reaction to bee stings. The patient also has an albuterol inhaler for exercise- induced asthma. The patient is breathing 30 times a minute, is in the tripod position, and is speaking in two- to three-word sentences. The nurse states the patient was playing basketball in the gym when she started having difficulty breathing. The patient has wheezing in all lung fields.
An ALS unit is en route but it is 10 minutes away. You are 20 minutes away from the nearest hospital. After placing the patient on oxygen, your next intervention should be to:

A) contact medical control and request to assist the patient with her epinephrine.

B) cancel the ALS unit and call medical control to assist with the albuterol administration while en route to the hospital.

C) assist the patient with her albuterol.

D) provide supportive care until the ALS unit arrives.

C) assist the patient with her albuterol.

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Which of the following circumstances may result in hypoperfusion?

A) The heart is damaged.
B) There is external bleeding.
C) Blood vessels are dilated.
D) All of the above

D) All of the above

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What is not one of the basic parts of a bag-valve-mask system?

A) Nonrebreathing
B) 15/25 respiratory fitting
C) Self-refilling shell
D) Non-jam

B) 15/25 respiratory fitting

should be 15/22

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You are unable to find a radial pulse on a patient from a motor vehicle crash. You should:

A) attempt to find the carotid pulse.
B) apply the pulse oximeter.
C) listen for heart sounds.
D) begin chest compressions.

A) attempt to find the carotid pulse.

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What condition is when there is an infection in one or both lungs caused by bacteria, viruses, or fungi?

A) Pneumonia
C) Pulmonary embolism
B) Asthma
D) Pulmonary edema

A) Pneumonia

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Which of the following is the name given to the condition in which fluid accumulates in the lungs?

A) Dyspnea
C) Pulmonary edema
B) Pedal edema
D) Congestive heart failure

C) Pulmonary edema

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Which of the following is FALSE regarding the purpose of immediately documenting vital signs once they are obtained?

A) Failure to record the vital signs immediately is considered falsifying the medical record.

B) It may be difficult to recall the vital signs accurately later on.

C) You will be able to compare each set of vital signs with the previous ones to detect trends in the patient’s condition.

D) You will be able to report the vital signs accurately when contacting the receiving facility.

A) Failure to record the vital signs immediately is considered falsifying the medical record.

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With the exception of the _______ most abdominal organs are not able to sense tearing sensations.

A) ovaries
B) aorta
C) liver
D) colon

B) aorta

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The condition in which there is an insufficient amount of sugar in the blood is called: A) hyperglycemia. B) hypoglycemia. C) diabetic ketoacidosis. D) tachycardia.

B) hypoglycemia.

Patients who dialyze at home are at high risk for what type of infection? A) Peritonitis B) Fistula infection C) Cellulitis D) Decubitus ulcers

A) Peritonitis

Two chronic medical conditions that dialysis patients frequently have in addition to kidney failure are_____ and____. A) heart failure; stroke C) blood clots; COPD (B)hypertension; diabetes D) high cholesterol; cerebral aneurysms

B) hypertension; diabetes

If a patient is having a myocardial infarction-not an allergic reaction-and receives an epinephrine auto-injection, which of the following will most likely occur? A) No reaction if administered inadvertently B) Stronger and faster heartbeat C) Bradycardia D) Relief of shortness of breath

B) Stronger and faster heartbeat

You are called to the scene of a 13-year-old male with a fever and cough. Upon assessment, you note a red blotch rash on the face and trunk, and small bluish-white spots on the inside of the cheeks. Based on this presentation, the patient likely has: A) hepatitis A. B) chickenpox. C) measles. D) shingles.

C) measles.

You are treating a 61-year-old who is a chronic alcohol abuser. He is complaining of "snakes slithering around his ankles," and he tells you that he had only two drinks tonight. You notice that he is sweating, trembling, and anxious. Before you can complete your assessment, he begins to have a seizure. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this situation? A) The patient is suffering from alcohol withdrawal. B) The patient drank mouthwash instead of beverage alcohol. C) The patient is suffering from acute alcohol poisoning. D) The patient could not find an alcoholic beverage and drank antifreeze instead.

A) The patient is suffering from alcohol withdrawal.

Your patient is a 24-year-old male who is severely depressed. He tells you that he can't "handle the pressure" anymore and that he wants to die. He is refusing transport. Which of the following is the most appropriate decision regarding this patient's care? A) Contact the patient's family to find out what their wishes are. B) Respect the patient's wishes; he is alert, oriented, and capable of giving consent. C) Transport the patient against his will with the assistance of law enforcement. D) Leave the scene and allow law enforcement to handle the situation.

C) Transport the patient against his will with the assistance of law enforcement.

Your patient is a 15-year-old female who has been diagnosed with a personality disorder. She has no history of violent behavior. The staff at her residential care facility wants her to be transported for evaluation of a possible urinary tract infection. Which of the following is the best way to handle this situation? A) Ask that the patient be given a tranquilizer injection prior to transport. B) Refuse to transport the patient without a police escort. C) Transport the patient, but do not speak to her or perform an assessment. D) Have a female EMT attend to the patient.

D) Have a female EMT attend to the patient.

You are called to the scene of a 17-year-old female patient who is unresponsive. Her mother suspects that she tried to commit suicide by taking her pain pills. The patient is unresponsive to painful stimuli, has agonal respirations, and has vomited. She has a weak carotid pulse. After securing the airway and providing oxygen by bag-valve mask, what is your next action? A) Question the mother about the patient's suicidal tendencies. B) Perform a secondary assessment of the patient. C) Ask the mother the name of her pain medication. D) Perform a focused assessment.

B) Perform a secondary assessment of the patient.

Which of the following is most likely to be a complaint of a patient suffering from anaphylaxis? A) "I can't remember what happened." B) "My legs are numb and I can't move them." C) "My throat feels like it is closing." D) "I am having severe muscle pains."

C) "My throat feels like it is closing."

After activating the EpiPen® auto-injector, how long should it be held in place before removing it from the patient's thigh? A) 10 seconds B) 30 seconds C) 1 minute D) It should be removed from the injection site immediately.

A) 10 seconds

In what position should the patient complaining for severe abdominal pain be placed in if there are no signs or symptoms of shock? A) One of comfort C) Supine with feet elevated B) Semi-Fowler with knees bent D) Left lateral recumbent

A) One of comfort

Which of the following is a characteristic of referred pain? A) It is usually described as "crampy" or "colicky. B) It is only felt in hollow organs. C) It is caused by psychological stress. D) It is felt in a location other than the organ causing it.

D) It is felt in a location other than the organ causing it.

You are called for a 58-year-old male who is concerned that his blood pressure is too high. He tells you that he has had a headache and is feeling a little dizzy. You notice that his skin is flushed and feels warm to the touch. As you finish taking his vital signs, you should: A) begin your reassessment. B) write down the patient's vital signs. C) assist the patient to take his blood pressure medication. D) move the patient to the ambulance for transport.

B) write down the patient's vital signs.

Which of the following best describes a fluttering sensation in the chest? A) Dysrhythmia B) Palpitations C) Tachycardia D) Pulseless electrical activity of the heart

B) Palpitations

What is not a result of a mechanical malfunction of the heart? A) Cardiogenic shock C) Dysrhythmia B) Cardiac arrest D) Pulmonary edema

C) Dysrhythmia

What is the best way to determine that you are getting adequate ventilation with a bag-valve mask? A) Ensure the pulse oximeter reads 95 to 100%. B) Hyperventilate the patient until the oxygen saturation reaches 100%. C) Look for chest rise and fall. D) Push the full amount of the air in the bag into the patient.

C) Look for chest rise and fall.

While assessing the airway of a pediatric patent, you will notice that it is different than that of an adult. Which of the following is one of those differences? A) The chest wall is softer, making it easier for the chest to expand. B) The tongue Is smaller, taking up less room in the mouth and allowing larger objects to occlude the airway. C) The cricoid cartilage is less developed, reducing the possibility that it can be completely occluded. D) The trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible, allowing it to be more easily obstructed.

D) The trachea is smaller, softer, and more flexible, allowing it to be more easily obstructed.

You are called to a 72-year-old patient with weakness and headache and an initial blood pressure of 140/92. Her repeat blood pressure at 5 minutes is unchanged. Her condition is called: A) hypotension. B) hypertension. C) stroke. D) prehypertension.

B) hypertension.

______ is not typically used in the prehospital setting for oxygen administration. A) regulator B) partial rebreather mask C) tracheostomy mask D) nasal cannula

B) partial rebreather mask

A 21-year-old patient presents with labored breathing and audible wheezes, heart rate of 124, respiration 36; he has significantly altered mentation. What is the treatment for this patient? A) Use a pocket mask, which will provide adequate oxygen to improve the patient's condition. B) Ventilate with a bag-valve mask with high oxygen or FROPVD. C) Supplement the breaths with high-concentration oxygen through a nonrebreather mask. D) Give mouth-to-mouth breathing with a nasal cannula, providing the patient with an increase of oxygen.

B) Ventilate with a bag-valve mask with high oxygen or FROPVD.

46) The normal urge to breathe is stimulated by chemoreceptors that measure changing levels of what two gases? A) Carbon dioxide and oxygen B) Hydrogen and carbon monoxide C) Hydrogen and carbon dioxide D) Carbon monoxide and oxygen

A) Carbon dioxide and oxygen

What Is the percentage of oxygen provided by connecting a high flow of oxygen to the oxygen inlet found on a pocket mask? A) 21% B) 100% C) 16% D) 50%

D) 50%

Which of the following is an important early indicator of hypoperfusion? A) Delayed capillary refill B) Increased heart rate C) Dilation of the pupils D) Altered mental status

D) Altered mental status

Which of the following is NOT recommended when controlling epistaxis? A) Keeping the patient calm and quiet B) Placing the unconscious patient in the recovery position C) Pinching the nostrils together D) Having the patient tilt the head backward to elevate the nose

D) Having the patient tilt the head backward to elevate the nose

Which of the following is the most important reason for controlling external bleeding? A) To make clean-up of the ambulance and your equipment easier after the call B) To prevent the patient from becoming upset at the sight of blood C) To prevent the spread of infectious diseases D) To prevent and manage hypoperfusion

D) To prevent and manage hypoperfusion

Which of the following statements about the application of a tourniquet is incorrect? A) The tourniquet should be placed approximately 2 to 3 inches above the bleeding. B) Commercial tourniquets are preferable to improvised tourniquets. C) I f possible, the tourniquet should be placed o n a joint. D) The tourniquet should be at least 2 inches wide.

C) I f possible, the tourniquet should be placed on a joint.

When deciding where to transport a patient who has internal bleeding or who has the potential for internal bleeding, which of the following is the most important service to be provided by the receiving hospital? A) Critical-care nursing C) Availability of a chaplain B) Rehabilitation services D) Immediate surgical capabilities

D) Immediate surgical capabilities

Which of the following is not a purpose for making airway management the highest priority in shock patients with nonmassive bleeding? A) It allows for improved elimination of carbon dioxide. B) I t promotes bronchoconstriction of the smaller airways. C) It minimizes the chances of aspiration of blood or vomit. D) It allows for oxygenation of the lungs.

B) it promotes bronchoconstriction of the smaller airways.

Which of the following statements about neurogenic shock is true? A) Neurogenic shock is the most common type of shock. B) Neurogenic shock is the result of the blood vessels decreasing in size. C) Neurogenic shock is caused by the blood vessels overfilling with blood, causing leaking into the nerves. D) Neurogenic shock is sometimes caused by spinal injuries.

Neurogenic shock is sometimes caused by spinal injuries.

Which of the following is not a consequence of hypoperfusion? A) Acid buildup decreases and body pH increases. B) Cellular waste products are not removed. C) Cells are not supplied with oxygen. D) Cells are not supplied with nutrients.

A) Acid buildup decreases and body pH increases.

Your patient is a 28-year-old male who cut his thigh with a chain saw. It appears that he has lost about 600 cc of blood. Which of the following is not part of the proper management of this patient? A) Administering oxygen B) Using direct pressure to control the bleeding C) Replacing fluid level by giving the patient adequate amounts of water D) Using a tourniquet

C) Replacing fluid level by giving the patient adequate amounts of water

When you give patients nitroglycerin, they sometimes develop a headache. This would be called a(n): A) untoward effect. B) side effect. C) indication. D) contraindication.

B) side effect.

An EMT is on the scene of a 48-year-old male patient complaining of chest pain. He has nitroglycerin prescribed and available. After performing the primary and secondary assessments, the EMT assists the patient in taking his nitroglycerin. Carefully, the EMT performs the medication rights including the expiration before administering the medication. The patient states the medicine is not helping his pain. The patient also states he does not have a headache. Reassessment of the patient's vital signs shows no change in blood pressure. The EMT suspects the nitro is not working because the: A) medication is expired. B) medication was somehow rendered inert C) medication is not nitroglycerin. D) EMT only gave one tablet instead of two.

B) medication was somehow rendered inert

Nitroglycerin (Nitro) is used for patients with recurrent chest pain or a history of heart attack. Nitro is most commonly supplied in what two forms? A) Ointment and pills B) Pills and spray C) Aerosol and spray D) Pills and injectable

B) Pills and spray

On which of the following types of calls should you bring your portable suction unit to the patient's side upon arrival on the scene? A) Cardiac arrest B) Seizure C) Motor vehicle collision D) all of the above

D) all of the above

Perhaps the simplest way to determine if a patient has a patent airway is to: A) determine the respiratory rate. B) auscultate for breath sounds. C) check for appropriate chest rise. D) say "Hello my name is _ , can you tell me your name?"

D) say "Hello my name is _ , can you tell me your name?"

The jaw-thrust maneuver is the only _ __airway procedure for an unconscious patient with possible head, neck, or spine injury or an unknown mechanism of injury A) required B) recommended C) prohibited D) discouraged

B) recommended

To be effective, a suction unit must be able to generate air flow of at least ______liter per min and create a vacuum of no less than ____ mmHg. A) 300:330 B) 30:300 C) 300:30 D) 30:30

B) 30:300

All of the following can result in airway obstructions except: A) facial trauma . B) the tongue. C) burns. D) infections

B) the tongue.

Which of the following is a disadvantage of oropharyngeal airways (OPAs)? A) They do not come in pediatric sizes. B) They cannot be used in patients with a suspected skull fracture. C) They require the use of a water-soluble lubricant. D) They cannot be used i n a patient with a gag reflex.

D) They cannot be used i n a patient with a gag reflex.

You are ventilating a cardiac arrest patient when he begins to vomit copious amounts of large pieces of undigested food. Which of the following would be most effective in clearing the airway? A) Irrigating the mouth with sterile water to dilute the material before suctioning B) Using a rigid pharyngeal suction tip C) Using a 14 French suction catheter D) Using large bore suction tubing without a tip or catheter attached

D) Using large bore suction tubing without a tip or catheter attached

Which of the following patients should not have their airway opened using a head-tilt, chin- lift maneuver ? A) A homeless person of undetermined age found lying unresponsive in an alley with no bystanders. B) A 35-year-old diabetic woman in the driver's seat of the car in her driveway who becomes unresponsive while speaking to her husband. C) A 50-year-old woman who choked on a piece of food while dining in a restaurant and was lowered to the floor by a waiter. D) A 25-year-old man who is still unresponsive after a grand mal seizure.

A) A homeless person of undetermined age found lying unresponsive in an alley with no bystander

Which of the following is the correct method of suctioning? A) Suction continuously, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter. B) Suction intermittently, both while inserting and withdrawing the suction tip or catheter. C) Insert the catheter or tip to the desired depth prior to applying suction. D) Begin suctioning as you insert the suction tip or catheter into the mouth.

C) Insert the catheter or tip to the desired depth prior to applying suction.

You have performed a head tilt-chin lift maneuver on a 17-month-old boy and are attempting to ventilate him with a bag-valve mask. You are experiencing a lot of resistance with each breath and the chest is barely rising. Prior to attempting ventilations again, you should: A) tilt the head back further. B) perform chest thrusts. C) ease the head forward a little. D) finger sweep the airway

C) ease the head forward a little.

The high-pitched sound caused by an upper airway obstruction is known as: A) snoring. B) gurgling. C) hoarseness. D) stridor.

D) stridor.

Which of the following is an advantage of using a nasopharyngeal airway (NPA)? A) It is ideal for patients with a suspected skull fracture. B) It eliminates the need for manual positioning of the patient's head to keep the airway open. C) It may be tolerated by many patients with a gag reflex. D) All of the above

C) It may be tolerated by many patients with a gag reflex.

When suctioning the airway, you should try to limit suctioning to no longer than ____ seconds at a time A ) 45-50 B) 10-15 C) 30 -45 D ) 60-90

B) 10-15

The trachea branches at the ____ and forms two mainstem bronchi. A) bronchioles B) glottic opening C) carina D) alveoli

C) carina

Which of the following is a sign of an inadequate airway? A) Nasal flaring B) movement of air around the mouth and the nose C) Equal expansion of both sides of the chest on inhalation D) Regular chest movements

A) Nasal flaring

Your patient is breathing 4 shallow breaths per minute due to overdosing on his pain medication but he has a palpable radial pulse. He vomited prior to your arrival and is choking. You should: A) roll him onto his side to clear the airway. B) move the patient to the ambulance and suction. C) insert an oropharyngeal airway and ventilate. D) perform chest thrusts to clear the lungs.

A) roll him onto his side to clear the airway.

You are ventilating an 85-year-old male without difficulty. A nurse tells you that the patient has dentures. To ensure a good mask seal, you should: A) remove the dentures. B) tape the dentures in place. C) use an infant mask over the nose. D) leave the dentures in place

D) leave the dentures in place

When inserting an oropharyngeal airway, how many degrees do you need to rotate the airway so the tip is pointing down into the patient's pharynx? A) 45 B) 270 C) 180 D) 90

C) 180

Once you have reached a possible diagnosis for a patient, you should: A) continue to look for data that will help rule in or rule out other conditions. B) aggressively treat the patient for that condition only. C) assume your diagnosis is wrong and start your assessment over from the beginning D) stop looking for other causes for the patient's signs and symptoms.

A) continue to look for data that will help rule in or rule out other conditions.

Your patient is a 14-year-old male who was run over by a tractor and is now unresponsive. During the rapid assessment, you should look for clear drainage coming from the patient's ______ indicating a serious injury. A) ears B) mouth C) rectum D) eyes

A) ears

When assessing a 14-year-old male patient that has been involved in a bicycle accident, you notice that he has a small amount of blood coming from his left forearm. This EMT's observation is known as which of the following? A) Symptom B) Indication C) Sign D ) Clue

C) Sign

Which term refers to the EMT's initial sense of the patient's condition, based on immediate assessment of the patient's environment, appearance, and chief complaint? A) Secondary assessment B) General impression C) Primary assessment D) Scene size - up

B) General impression

Which of the following techniques is used when formulating the general impression? A) Listening for unusual sounds B) Determining patients approximate age C) Looking at patients posture D ) All of the above

D ) All of the above

Which of the following is the purpose of the primary assessment? A) To detect dangers to the patient and/or EMS crew B) To detect and treat immediately life-threatening problems C) To discover trends of improvement or deterioration in the patient's condition D) To find all of the patient's signs and symptoms

B) To detect and treat immediately life-threatening problems

Which of the following is true concerning the primary assessment? A) Bleeding will be obvious as you enter the room and initially see the patient. B) The primary assessment begins by just observing the patient as you enter the room. C) Manual airway maneuvers must be performed on all patients. D) The EMT should perform a sternal rub on all patients to test for response to painful stimuli.

B) The primary assessment begins by just observing the patient as you enter the room.

You find a teenage male lying supine in his bedroom. You hear gurgling sounds from the patient's mouth and see vomit with pill fragments on the floor. You should: A) perform chest thrusts. B) ventilate with oxygen. C) identify the pills. D) suction the airway.

D) suction the airway.

Which of the following is not performed during the airway phase of the primary assessment? A) Head-tilt, chin-lift maneuver B) suctioning C) Obtaining the respiratory rate D) Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway

C) Obtalning the respiratory rate

Which of the following findings is generally not used to assess an adult's circulation? A) Patient's capillary refill time B) Patient's skin color, temperature, and condition C) Evaluation for bleeding D) Patient's distal pulse rate

A) Patient's capillary refill time

Which of the following indicates a possible circulatory problem? A) Rapid pulse B) Weak, thready pulse that is normal in rate C) Slow pulse D) All of the above

D) All of the above

In EMS, which of the following best describes the term intervention? A) Determining If there is a problem B) Decreasing the EMT's lability for negligence C) Taking steps to correct a problem D) Creating a permanent record of patient care

C) Taking steps to correct a problem

As you approach the scene of a motorcycle accident, you see an EMR trying to stop the bleeding on the patient's left arm. You notice that the EMR has blood covering the front of his shirt and running down his arms. What Standard Precautions are needed? A) There is no need for Standard Precautions because you have no open injuries. B) Gloves, gown, eye protection, and an N-95 or HEPA respirator are needed. C) Gloves, gown, and face mask with eye shield are needed. D) Gloves and gown only are needed.

C) Gloves, gown, and face mask with eye shield are needed.

You and your partner are en route t o a motor vehicle crash involving a tanker truck on a rural road. Dispatch informs you that fluid is leaking from the truck, that there are several bystanders passed out on the ground near the cab of the truck, and that a caller has reported the code that appears on a placard attached to the tanker truck. You should: A) consult the Emergency Response Guidebook. B) remove the bystanders from the scene. C) park downwind from the tanker truck. D) park about 50 feet from the truck.

A) consult the Emergency Response Guidebook.

W h e n should t h e E M T evaluate the n e e d for Standard Precautions? A) No evaluation is ever needed, since the precautions are the same for every call. B) An evaluation should be made once a general impression of the patient has been formed. C) An evaluation should be made throughout the call. D) A n evaluation should be made before arrival on-scene.

C) An evaluation should be made throughout the call.

Your patient fell out of a tree while putting the roof on a tree house. A 15-foot ladder is required to enter the tree house and there is enough room for an adult to stand up inside. Your patient should be transported to: A) the closest hospital. B) a neurosurgery center. C) a trauma center. D) a n urgent care center.

C) a trauma center.

Which of the folowing is the correct position of an EMT's feet when lifting? A) Two feet apart B) As wide apart as possible C) Shoulder- width apart D) As close together as possible

C) Shoulder- width apart

What system is composed of organs, tissues, and vessels that help maintain the fluid balance of the body and contribute to the body's immune system? A) Endocrine system B) Digestive system C) Respiratory system D) Lymphatic system

D) Lymphatic system

What type of blood vessels surround the alveoli? A) Arteries B) Capillaries C) Veins D) Arterioles

B) Capillaries

What is the larger bone of the lower leg? A) Patella B) Femur C) Tibia D) Fibula

C) Tibia

What two body systems are critical for the life support chain? A) Cardiovascular and lymphatic systems B) Respiratory and endocrine systems C) Cardiopulmonary and digestive systems D) Respiratory and cardiovascular system

D) Respiratory and cardiovascular system

Which of the following describes the midline of the body? A) An Imaginary line dividing the body into a top and bottam portion B) The Intersection of two imaginary lines crossing at the umbilicus C) An Imaginary line dividing the body Into a front and a back portion D) An Imaginary line dividing the body Into equal right and left halves

D) An Imaginary line dividing the body Into equal right and left halves

With regard to medical terminology, a prefix is: A) the combination of any two or more whole words. B) added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning. C a modifier that indicates if a term is singular or plural. D) the foundation of a word or term.

B) added to the beginnings of roots or words to modify or qualify their meaning.