Cancer Flashcards
(197 cards)
1
Q
What is the most common cancer in females?
A
Breast cancer
Incidence rate is over 21% of all female cancers in Australia with over 19,000 new cases annually.
2
Q
What is the second most common cancer in females?
A
Colorectal cancer
The number of females diagnosed with colorectal cancer is less than half that of breast cancer.
3
Q
What is the most commonly diagnosed cancer in males in Australia and New Zealand?
A
Prostate cancer
It accounts for more than 16% of all male cancers.
4
Q
What is the TMN classification system used for?
A
Staging breast cancer
It considers the size of the primary tumor (T), lymph node involvement (N), and distant metastases (M).
5
Q
What factors are associated with increased risk of breast cancer?
A
- Increasing age
- Inheritance of specific gene mutations (BRCA1, BRCA2, CHEK2)
- Exposure to female hormones
- Past exposure to radiation
- Obesity
- Dietary choices
- Lack of physical activity
- Excess alcohol consumption
These factors can be classified into reproductive, hormonal, lifestyle, and familial categories.
6
Q
What lifestyle factors influence breast cancer risk?
A
- Smoking
- Alcohol consumption
- Diet
- Physical activity
- Body mass index (BMI)
These factors are modifiable and can impact risk levels.
7
Q
What is the effect of early menarche on breast cancer risk?
A
Increases risk
Early menarche is defined as beginning menstrual cycles before age 12.
8
Q
What is the protective effect of breastfeeding on breast cancer risk?
A
Decreases risk
It is associated with a minimum of at least 12 months of total breastfeeding.
9
Q
What is Hormone Replacement Therapy (HRT) associated with?
A
Increased risk of breast cancer
HRT may provide protection against coronary heart disease and osteoporosis.
10
Q
What percentage of breast cancers arise from the epithelial linings of the lactiferous ducts?
A
70%
These tumors often metastasize early, contributing to higher mortality.
11
Q
What is ductal carcinoma in situ?
A
A clonal proliferation usually confined to a single ductal system
It consists of genetically identical cells that multiply rapidly.
12
Q
What role do hormones play in the development of breast cancer?
A
Hormones can act as accelerators and initiators of breast cancer
They influence the susceptibility of the breast epithelium to environmental carcinogens.
13
Q
What is the impact of obesity on breast cancer risk in post-menopausal women?
A
Increases risk
High BMI is linked to increased oestrogen levels, which may elevate breast cancer risk.
14
Q
What is the estimated lifetime risk of breast cancer for a female with a BRCA1 mutation?
A
60–85%
This risk is significantly higher compared to the general population.
15
Q
What are the three main genetic groups of breast cancer?
A
- Sporadic
- Inherited autosomal dominant cancer gene syndromes
- Polygenic
Each group has different inheritance patterns and risk factors.
16
Q
True or False: Exposure to high doses of ionizing radiation increases breast cancer risk.
A
True
Especially if exposure occurs during adolescence or pregnancy.
17
Q
What is the role of the p53 gene in breast cancer?
A
It helps regulate DNA repair and apoptosis
Mutation in p53 reduces tumor-suppressor activity, allowing tumor growth.
18
Q
During which phase do mammary epithelium stem cells show their greatest rate of division?
A
Luteal phase
This is due to increased progesterone levels during this phase.
19
Q
What is ductal carcinoma in situ?
A
A clonal proliferation confined to a single ductal system
It involves genetically identical cells that rapidly multiply.
20
Q
How does lobular carcinoma in situ differ from ductal carcinoma in situ?
A
Lobular carcinoma has a uniform appearance with non-cohesive clusters
It occurs in ducts and lobules, unlike ductal carcinoma.
21
Q
Are ductal and lobular carcinoma in situ considered invasive breast cancers?
A
No
They are abnormal changes in the cells and not invasive.
22
Q
Where do the majority of breast carcinomas occur?
A
Upper outer quadrant
This area contains most of the glandular tissue.
23
Q
What can cause the spread of breast cancer to the opposite breast?
A
Obstruction of normal lymphatic pathways or destruction of lymphatic vessels
This can be due to surgery or radiotherapy.
24
Q
What are common sites of metastasis for breast cancer?
A
- Internal mammary chain nodes
- Vertebrae
- Pelvic bones
- Ribs
- Lungs
- Liver
- Kidneys
- Adrenal glands
- Ovaries
- Pituitary gland
Metastases can also spread to lymph nodes in the neck and abdominal cavity.
25
What is usually the first sign of breast cancer?
A painless lump or thickening in the breast
## Footnote
Lumps do not have classic characteristics.
26
What is the pathophysiology behind local pain in breast cancer?
Local obstruction caused by the tumour
## Footnote
This is a common clinical manifestation.
27
What clinical manifestation is caused by invasion of the dermal lymphatics?
Dimpling of the skin
## Footnote
This occurs due to retraction of Cooper’s ligament.
28
What does nipple retraction indicate?
Shortening of the mammary ducts
## Footnote
It is a sign of potential breast cancer.
29
What is the definitive diagnostic test for breast cancer?
Biopsy
## Footnote
Other evaluation methods include mammography and ultrasound.
30
What hormone receptors are commonly present in breast cancers?
* Oestrogen (ER)
* Progesterone (PR)
* HER2
## Footnote
Their presence allows for targeted treatments.
31
What is triple negative breast cancer?
Tumours that do not express oestrogen, progesterone, or HER2 receptors
## Footnote
These cancers are more difficult to treat.
32
What type of therapy may be given after surgery for tumours at greater risk of recurrence?
Adjuvant therapy
## Footnote
This may include hormone therapy or chemotherapy.
33
What are the common chemotherapy drugs used for breast cancer?
* Anthracyclines
* Taxanes
## Footnote
These are often used in treatment regimens.
34
What is cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)?
The potentially premalignant transformation and abnormal growth of squamous cells on the cervix
## Footnote
It is more common than invasive cancer.
35
What virus is a precursor to the majority of cervical cancer cases?
Human papillomavirus (HPV)
## Footnote
Vaccination against HPV has reduced the risk of high-grade CIN.
36
What are some risk factors for developing cervical intraepithelial neoplasia (CIN)?
* Multiple sexual partners
* Higher risk types of HPV
* Smoking
* Immunodeficiency
## Footnote
Early sexual intercourse and partners with multiple partners also increase risk.
37
What are the most common symptoms of ovarian cancer?
* Pain
* Abdominal swelling
* Indigestion
* Altered bowel habits
* Urinary frequency
## Footnote
Advanced stages may cause vaginal bleeding.
38
What is the initial approach to treating ovarian cancer?
Surgery followed by chemotherapy
## Footnote
The surgery aims to stage the disease and remove as much tumor as possible.
39
What is the most common cancer in males?
Prostate cancer
## Footnote
It accounts for 20–30% of male cancers in Australia and New Zealand.
40
At what age does the risk of prostate cancer significantly increase?
After age 50
## Footnote
85% of cases are diagnosed in males over 65.
41
What dietary factors are associated with an increased risk of prostate cancer?
* High intake of fats (especially saturated fat)
* Low intake of fresh fruits and vegetables
## Footnote
Diet may affect hormone levels related to cancer development.
42
What is the association between tobacco smoking and prostate cancer?
Increased risk of recurrence and increased mortality compared to non-smokers
43
How does diet influence the development of prostate cancer?
High intake of fat, especially saturated fat, is a risk factor. Low intake of dietary fibre and complex carbohydrates increases risk
44
What role do lycopenes play in prostate cancer risk?
A diet rich in lycopenes may be preventative against prostate cancer
45
What is the effect of obesity on prostate cancer risk?
Overweight and obesity increase the risk of prostate cancer
46
What is the relationship between chronic inflammation and prostate cancer?
Chronic inflammation is strongly related to the development of prostate cancer
47
What percentage of prostate cancers may be due to genetic predisposition?
5–10% of prostate cancers may be due to familial predisposition
48
What are the grades of prostatic cancer?
Grade 1 to Grade 5, with Grade 1 being well differentiated and Grade 5 being undifferentiated
49
What are common sites for distant metastasis of prostate cancer?
Lymph nodes, bones, lungs, liver, and adrenal glands
50
What symptoms might indicate advanced prostatic cancer?
Bone pain, oedema, lymph node enlargement, liver enlargement, pathological fractures, mental confusion
51
What is the primary method for diagnosing prostate cancer?
Digital rectal examination and prostate-specific antigen (PSA) blood test
52
What treatments are available for localized prostate cancer?
Hormonal therapy, radiation therapy, chemotherapy, surgery, or surveillance
53
What side effects may result from prostate cancer treatment?
Impotence, incontinence, and changes in sexual functioning
54
What is the role of metformin in cancer treatment?
Metformin shows positive effects on proliferation of neoplastic cells in various malignancies, including prostate cancer
55
What is the most common age range for testicular cancer?
Ages 15 to 35 years
56
What percentage of testicular cancers include seminomas?
Approximately 90% of testicular cancers
57
What are common first signs of testicular cancer?
Painless testicular enlargement and a sensation of heaviness
58
What is the significance of epididymitis in testicular cancer?
10% of affected individuals may have epididymitis
59
What is the potential impact of trauma on testicular cancer risk?
A history of trauma or infection may be associated with the development of testicular neoplasms
60
Fill in the blank: Prostatic cancer often causes no symptoms until it is far ______.
advanced
61
True or False: Most males diagnosed with localized prostate cancer live beyond 5 years.
True
62
What is gynecomastia?
A condition characterized by enlarged breast tissue in males
## Footnote
It can be a symptom of various underlying health issues.
63
What percentage of individuals have symptoms related to metastases at the time of initial diagnosis?
Approximately 10%
## Footnote
Symptoms may include lumbar pain and respiratory issues.
64
What symptoms may indicate lung metastasis?
Cough, dyspnoea, and haemoptysis
## Footnote
Haemoptysis refers to coughing up blood.
65
What can supraclavicular node involvement cause?
Difficulty swallowing (dysphagia) and neck swelling
## Footnote
This can occur due to lymphatic spread of cancer.
66
What alterations may be experienced with central nervous system metastasis?
Alterations in vision or mental status and seizures
## Footnote
These symptoms indicate severe disease progression.
67
What is the first step in the evaluation of testicular cancer?
Careful physical examination, including palpation of the scrotal contents
## Footnote
This is done in both erect and supine positions.
68
What are signs of testicular cancer during examination?
Abnormal consistency, nodularity or irregularity of the testis
## Footnote
These findings warrant further investigation.
69
Why is testicular biopsy not recommended?
It may cause dissemination of the tumour and increase the risk of local recurrence
## Footnote
This is a significant concern in cancer management.
70
How can primary testicular cancer be assessed rapidly and accurately?
Scrotal ultrasonography
## Footnote
This imaging technique helps visualize testicular abnormalities.
71
Which tumour markers are usually elevated in testicular cancer?
* Alpha-fetoprotein
* Beta-gonadotrophin
* Lactate dehydrogenase
## Footnote
Elevated levels of these markers assist in diagnosis and monitoring.
72
What imaging techniques are used in the clinical staging of testicular cancer?
* Chest x-ray films
* Lymphangiograms
* Intravenous pyelograms
* Abdominal ultrasound or CT scan
* Measurement of blood markers
## Footnote
These tests help determine the extent of disease spread.
73
What treatments are involved in managing testicular cancer?
Surgery, radiation, and chemotherapy singly or in combination
## Footnote
Treatment plans are tailored to the individual's stage of disease.
74
What factors influence the prognosis of testicular cancer?
The stage of the disease and selection of appropriate treatment
## Footnote
Early detection and intervention improve outcomes.
75
What can most patients treated for testicular cancer expect?
A normal life span
## Footnote
Some may experience long-term effects like infertility.
76
How long must a person be disease-free to be considered cured?
3 years
## Footnote
This is a common benchmark in cancer survivorship.
77
Does orchiectomy affect sexual function?
No, it does not affect sexual function
## Footnote
This is an important consideration for patients undergoing surgery.
78
What is cancer?
Cancer is an uncontrolled proliferation of cells that can arise from any cell type in the body.
79
What leads to the development of cancer?
An accumulation of genetic alterations.
80
What factors can cause genetic changes that lead to cancer?
* Inherited from parents
* Exposure to environmental factors
81
How is cancer currently viewed in terms of patient prognosis?
As a chronic disease that people may live with for years.
82
What is the term for the disappearance of signs and symptoms of cancer?
Remission.
83
What is the term for the return of cancer signs and symptoms?
Relapse.
84
What is hypertrophy?
An increase in size of a cell or organ.
85
What is hyperplasia?
An increase in the number of cells.
86
What is dysplasia?
The initial stage where cells start becoming abnormal but are not yet cancerous.
87
What distinguishes malignant tumors from benign tumors?
* Rapid growth
* Invasion of adjacent tissues
* Metastasis
88
What suffix is commonly used for benign tumors?
—oma.
89
What are the three key events in carcinogenesis?
* Initiation
* Promotion
* Progression
90
What are carcinomas?
Cancers arising from epithelial tissue.
91
What are lymphomas?
Cancers of lymphatic tissue.
92
What are leukaemias?
Cancers of blood-forming cells.
93
What is a mutation?
A permanent change in the DNA sequence.
94
What is autocrine stimulation in cancer cells?
Cancer cells secrete growth factors that stimulate their own growth.
95
What is apoptosis?
The self-destruct mechanism of abnormal cells.
96
What is a key gene commonly mutated in cancers that allow cells to resist apoptosis?
p53 gene.
97
What is the role of telomerase in cancer cells?
Restores telomeres, allowing cancer cells to divide indefinitely.
98
What are proto-oncogenes?
Genes that code for proteins regulating normal cell growth.
99
What happens when a proto-oncogene is mutated?
It becomes an oncogene, leading to unregulated cell proliferation.
100
What are tumor-suppressor genes?
Genes that slow or stop cell division to repair faulty DNA or initiate apoptosis.
101
What happens when tumor-suppressor genes are mutated?
They lose the ability to control cell division, repair DNA, or signal apoptosis.
102
What is the characteristic of normal cells in terms of growth?
Predictable, controlled, and orderly.
103
What is the characteristic of cancer cells in terms of metabolism?
Uncontrolled and disorderly.
104
True or False: Benign tumors can invade adjacent tissues.
False.
105
Fill in the blank: Cancers arising from connective tissues are called _______.
Sarcomas.
106
What is the significance of telomeres in normal cell division?
They shorten with each division, leading to cell death when too short.
107
What is the term for the spread of cancer to distant locations?
Metastasis.
108
Give an example of a well-known tumour-suppressor gene.
p53 gene
109
What does the p53 gene code for?
A protein that regulates the cell cycle.
110
How many chromosomal copies, or alleles, do cells have of each gene?
Two
111
What can cause loss of tumour-suppressor gene function leading to cancer?
Point mutations and complete loss of an entire chromosomal region.
112
What is Lynch syndrome associated with?
High rate of colon cancer due to inherited defects in DNA repair genes.
113
What is the main role of DNA repair genes?
To encode proteins that repair damaged DNA.
114
What is a common outcome of mutations in DNA repair genes?
Increased mutation rates leading to cancer.
115
What type of genetic alteration is often inherited and can predispose individuals to cancer?
Mutations in tumour-suppressor and DNA repair genes.
116
True or False: Most genetic alterations causing cancer are inherited.
False
117
What is the significance of inherited mutations in cancer biology?
They reduce protection from cancer and can be passed to future generations.
118
What is the Gompertzian model of tumour growth?
It predicts that larger tumours have a smaller proportion of actively dividing cells.
119
What are the two important properties of cancer cells?
* Autonomy
* Anaplasia
120
What does autonomy in cancer cells refer to?
Independence from normal cellular controls, avoiding apoptosis.
121
What does anaplasia characterize in cancer cells?
Loss of differentiation and increase in nucleus size.
122
What is angiogenesis?
The development of new blood vessels.
123
What role does angiogenesis play in cancer?
It provides oxygen and nutrients necessary for continued cancer growth.
124
Name a common site of metastasis for breast cancer.
Lymph nodes and bones
125
What is the process called when cancer cells spread from the original tumour to distant organs?
Metastasis
126
What are secondary growths in cancer?
New tumours that develop from metastasis.
127
What happens to cancer cells as they travel through blood or lymphatic vessels?
Many die, but some establish new growths in other tissues.
128
What is a characteristic of advanced cancers?
They may contain cells that are undifferentiated and difficult to identify.
129
What is the most common site for metastases from gastrointestinal tumours?
Liver
130
What is the relationship between age and cancer incidence?
The incidence of cancer increases significantly with age.
131
What do benign intestinal polyps represent in the context of colon cancer?
The first stage in the development of colon cancer.
132
What is the significance of removing benign growths in relation to cancer?
It may prevent further mutations and the development of malignancy.
133
What type of cancer is associated with the APC gene mutation?
Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP)
134
What is the role of cancer screening for individuals with known mutations in tumour-suppressor genes?
To facilitate early cancer detection and therapy.
135
What are common sites of metastasis for lung cancer?
Multiple organs, including brain
## Footnote
Metastatic spread occurs via the pulmonary vein and left ventricle.
136
Which organ is the most common site for metastases from gastrointestinal tract tumors?
Liver
## Footnote
This is particularly seen with colorectal cancers.
137
What is a common site for metastases from prostate cancer?
Bones (especially lumbar spine), liver
## Footnote
Prostate cancer often spreads through regional lymphatics and veins.
138
What is the significance of the immune system in cancer prevention?
It recognizes early-stage cancers as foreign and suppresses or eliminates them
## Footnote
Key components include cytotoxic T cells and natural killer cells.
139
What are cytokines?
Chemical signals released by immune cells to signal between immune system processes
## Footnote
Examples include interleukin-1 (IL-1) and tumor necrosis factor-alpha (TNF-α).
140
True or False: Immunotherapy medications include monoclonal antibodies.
True
## Footnote
An example is bevacizumab.
141
What is the role of chronic inflammation in cancer development?
It promotes continued proliferation and can lead to mutations
## Footnote
Ulcerative colitis and chronic hepatitis are examples of conditions associated with increased cancer risk.
142
Fill in the blank: The majority of cervical cancer cases are due to infection with specific subtypes of _______.
HPV
## Footnote
Only a few types of HPV are implicated in cervical cancer development.
143
What bacterium is strongly linked to gastric carcinomas?
Helicobacter pylori
## Footnote
H. pylori alters the gastric epithelial cell cycle and can cause mutations.
144
What is a major environmental factor linked to cancer development?
Smoking
## Footnote
Tobacco smoke contains over 4000 chemicals, 60 of which are carcinogenic.
145
What is the relationship between age and cancer prevalence?
Cancers are more prevalent in older people due to accumulated genetic damage over time
## Footnote
Aging increases the likelihood of mutations and exposure to carcinogens.
146
What is the primary pathway for blood-borne metastases from tumors outside the spinal tract?
Lung
## Footnote
Mesenchymal tumors commonly spread to the lungs.
147
What is angiogenesis?
The formation of new blood vessels
## Footnote
It plays a critical role in tumor growth and metastasis.
148
What are the main types of cancer treatments that manipulate the immune system?
Monoclonal antibodies and nonspecific immunotherapies
## Footnote
Vaccines are also used to prevent infections linked to cancer risk.
149
What is the significance of the HPV vaccine Gardasil?
It prevents cervical cancer by protecting against certain HPV strains
## Footnote
Gardasil was developed in Australia and is part of the National Immunisation Program.
150
What is the impact of passive smoking?
It exposes non-smokers to carcinogenic smoke
## Footnote
This is particularly harmful to children living with smokers.
151
What is the role of the enzyme cyclo-oxygenase 2 (COX-2) in cancer?
It generates prostaglandins associated with cancer development
## Footnote
NSAIDs inhibit COX-2 and can protect against colon cancer.
152
How do genetic factors interact with environmental factors in cancer risk?
Cancer risk depends on a combination of genetic and environmental factors
## Footnote
Migrants often show cancer incidence similar to their new environment.
153
Which occupational groups have high smoking rates?
Manual labourers and individuals in lower socioeconomic groups
## Footnote
People in rural areas may also struggle to quit smoking.
154
What is the relationship between processed meats and cancer?
Strongly linked with cancers of the colorectum, oesophagus, and stomach
## Footnote
Well-done chargrilled beef has the greatest levels of carcinogens.
155
What is the impact of obesity on cancer risk?
Increased cancer incidence and mortality
## Footnote
BMI above 30 is considered a risk for cancer.
156
What role does adipose tissue play in cancer development?
Active endocrine and metabolic tissue that affects other tissues' physiology
## Footnote
Increased free fatty acids and TNF-α contribute to insulin resistance.
157
What type of radiation is known to cause cancer?
Ionising radiation
## Footnote
Has enough energy to damage DNA.
158
What is the main source of ultraviolet (UV) radiation?
Sunlight and tanning beds
## Footnote
Intensity, wavelength, and exposure duration affect skin damage.
159
What types of skin cancers are associated with UV exposure?
Melanoma and non-melanoma skin cancers
## Footnote
Non-melanoma includes basal cell and squamous cell carcinomas.
160
What occupational exposures are linked to cancer?
Diesel exhaust, asbestos, silica dust, arsenic, and benzene
## Footnote
Particularly strong risks for lung cancer.
161
What effect does physical activity have on cancer risk?
Reduces the risk of breast and colon cancers
## Footnote
May also decrease the risk of other cancers.
162
What can alter the genetic make-up of cells?
Certain chemicals and prolonged exposure to ultraviolet radiation
## Footnote
Examples include chemicals in tobacco and UV radiation that can cause genetic mutations and induce cancer development.
163
List three lifestyle factors that contribute to an increased risk of various cancers.
* Physical inactivity
* Obesity
* Excess energy intake
164
True or False: Environmental and adverse lifestyle factors can increase the growth of genetically altered cells without directly causing new mutations.
True
165
How does physical activity affect the risk of breast and colon cancers?
Reduces the risk of breast and colon cancers
## Footnote
Biological mechanisms include decreasing insulin levels, decreasing obesity, altering inflammatory mediators, and decreasing circulating levels of oestrogens and androgens.
166
Fill in the blank: Vigorous physical activity may decrease exposure of breast tissue to _______.
ovarian hormones
167
What is the proposed amount of moderate- to vigorous-intensity activity to decrease breast cancer risk?
30–60 minutes per day
168
What role do antioxidants play regarding cancer risk?
Protect against damage to DNA caused by reactive oxygen species
## Footnote
Antioxidants are substances that have shown a protective effect from cancer.
169
Name two types of substances with anticarcinogenic activity found in fruits and vegetables.
* Carotenoids (e.g., lycopene)
* Flavonoids
170
What is the relationship between physical activity and type 2 diabetes in the context of cancer risk?
Physical activity helps prevent type 2 diabetes, which is associated with a risk of cancer of the colon and pancreas.
171
How many hours of vigorous activity per week is suggested to optimize protection for colon cancer?
Between 3.5 and 4 hours
172
What characterizes the growth of normal inhabitants?
Predictable, controlled, and orderly growth
## Footnote
Normal cells die when damaged and are cleared away
173
What is the role of cells in recognizing other cells?
Cells recognize other cells like themselves, limiting growth when encountering dissimilar cells
## Footnote
This characteristic helps maintain tissue organization
174
What are the three main types of genes associated with the genetic basis of cancer?
* Proto-oncogene genes
* Tumour-suppressor genes
* DNA-repair genes
175
What features are common to benign skin lesions?
* Symmetry in shape, colour, and structure
* Stable or slowly evolving
* Absence of spontaneous bleeding
176
How can benign lesions be classified?
By their cellular origin: * melanocytic * keratinocytic * vascular * fibrous * fat
177
What defines malignant tumors?
Uncontrolled proliferation of skin cell types
## Footnote
Skin cancers differ from normal regeneration processes
178
What are the most common forms of skin cancer?
* Basal cell carcinoma (BCC)
* Squamous cell carcinoma (SCC), including keratoacanthoma
* Melanoma
179
What does the term 'non-melanoma skin cancer' refer to?
All types of skin cancer apart from melanoma, including BCC and SCC
## Footnote
BCC and SCC are also referred to as keratinocyte cancer
180
What are the three main types of cells found in the epidermis?
* Keratinocytes (skin cells)
* Melanocytes (pigment-producing cells)
* Langerhans cells (immune cells)
181
What is required to differentiate between melanocytes and Langerhans cells?
Special stains
## Footnote
This is important for accurate identification in histological studies
182
What are Merkel cells also known as?
Merkel-Ranvier cells or tactile epithelial cells
## Footnote
They are essential for light touch sensation
183
What is the function of Merkel cells?
Mechanoreceptors essential for light touch sensation
## Footnote
Found in the skin of vertebrates
184
What are the three main groups of skin cancers?
• Basal cell carcinoma
• Squamous cell carcinoma
• Malignant melanoma
## Footnote
These groups categorize the most common types of skin cancers.
185
What is the most common form of skin cancer?
Basal cell carcinoma (BCC)
## Footnote
BCC is a locally invasive keratinocyte cancer, also known as non-melanoma cancer.
186
From where does basal cell carcinoma arise?
Stem cells in the basal layer of the epidermis
## Footnote
This indicates its origin at the cellular level.
187
What are the risk factors for basal cell carcinoma?
• Age
• Sex
• Sun damage - repeated exposure to UVB radiation
## Footnote
These factors increase the likelihood of developing BCC.
188
Name a common treatment for basal cell carcinoma.
• Surgical excision
• Mohs surgery
• Cryotherapy
• Photodynamic therapy
• Imiquod cream
• Fluorouracil cream
• Radiotherapy
## Footnote
These treatments vary in approach and effectiveness based on the case.
189
What is Mohs micrographic surgery?
A precise surgical technique checked by microscopic margin control
## Footnote
It offers the highest cure rates while preserving healthy tissue.
190
Who developed the principles behind Mohs surgery?
Dr Frederic Mohs
## Footnote
This technique was developed in the 1930s.
191
What are the stages in the pathogenesis of melanoma?
• Change to melanocyte
• Melanocyte proliferation
• Dysplasia
• Melanoma
• Invasion and metastasis
## Footnote
These stages outline the progression of melanoma development.
192
What defines melanoma as 'in situ'?
A tumor confined to the epidermis
## Footnote
This indicates that the cancer has not invaded deeper tissues.
193
What characterizes superficial forms of melanoma?
Spreads out within the epidermis (in situ)
## Footnote
A pathologist may report this as the radial or horizontal growth phase.
194
What defines invasive melanoma?
A tumor that has spread into the dermis
## Footnote
This indicates a deeper penetration of cancerous cells.
195
What happens when melanoma becomes metastatic?
The tumor has spread to other tissues
## Footnote
This spread can occur via the lymphatic system or bloodstream.
196
How do melanoma cells spread to other organs?
Via the lymphatic system or bloodstream
## Footnote
This spread can lead to secondary disease in organs such as the lungs or brain.
197
What factors influence the chance of melanoma metastasis?
How deep the cells have penetrated the skin
## Footnote
Deeper penetration increases the risk of spreading to other tissues.
