Captain Upgrade - GOM Flashcards
(111 cards)
1
Q
What are you initial operating experience (IOE) requirements?
A
Group II aircraft - 25 hours and 4 cycles (At least 2 as flying pilot)
1
Q
How much fuel must be carried for a 121 flight?
A
Enough to fly to the destination, the nearest alternate and 45 minutes of reserve at normal cruise
2
Q
Does 3585 apply to Wx at ETA or +/- 1 hour?
A
- ETA
- Decreasing remarks begin at the first minute of the becoming period
- Improvements do not begin until the last minute of the becoming period
2
Q
What is required to proceed past the FAF?
A
- Visibility at least equal to the minimums for the approach in use
- High mins Captain mins apply
- Must have additional 15% runway length available for vis
3
Q
What are the MEL time limits by category?
A
- A - Per the remarks
- B - 72 hours
- C - 240 hours
- D - 120 days
- M - 30 days
3
Q
How much additional runway length is required for IMC approaches and what are the weather minimums for this situation?
A
- 15%
- Any time the weather is below 3/4 mile or RVR 4000
- Aerodata low visibility data ensures compliance
3
Q
What is windshear?
A
Sudden wind speed or direction changes over short distances
4
Q
What are the circle to land minimums
A
1,000’ + 3 miles vis
4
Q
What is the purpose of the Exemption 3585
A
To allow dispatch of aircraft to destinations and alternates with acceptable forecast mins when conditional phrases in the remarks section are less than mins at eta
4
Q
What items are considered assistive devices?
A
Items which assist with life activity such as walkers, inhalers, canes, etc.
6
Q
When can accident aircraft be ferried?
A
Not before being released by the NTSB
7
Q
When must an alternate be filed?
A
Whenever the weather forecast for arrival time +/- one hour is less than 2000’ and 3 miles visibility
8
Q
What are the conditions for severe icing?
A
Freezing rain, SLD icing, or freezing drizzle
8
Q
What is required to fuel with passengers onboard?
A
- Door remains open
- Passengers MUST be **TOLD **“No Smoking”
- No smoking signs on
- No smoking within 50’
- No radar within 100’
- Crew member onboard
- Extinguisher available
10
Q
What is show time?
A
45 minutes prior to departure time
11
Q
What does an “O” MEL indicate?
A
Procedures in the remarks section do not require special training (pilots)
11
Q
What are the lowest remarks for the first alternate?
A
Not less than 1/2 the derived minimums for the ceiling and visibility
12
Q
What are the IFR takeoff minimums?
A
- Standard takeoff mins are 1 statue mile
- RVR, when available will be used
- Lower than standard mins are authorized when published in the Jepps
- Lower than standard mins require runway centerline lights and markings and/or adequate visual reference
- When using lower than standard RVR mins, TDZ RVR is controlling
- In no case will lower than published mins be used
14
Q
When must a crew do the “First Flight Of the Day Checks?”
A
First flight of the day or when the aircraft has been sitting over 4 hours
14
Q
What are the derived alternate weather minimums?
A
- One NAVAID rule:
- Add 400 + 1 to the lowest Category 1 minimums
- Two NAVAID rule:
- Add 200 + 1/2 to the lowest Category 1 minimums of the two approaches
- Must be straight in approach
- Must use different runways
- Must be suitable runways
- Must have different NAVAID identifiers
15
Q
What documents are required for a test flight?
A
- Authorization stapled to the correct AFML page
- Release for airworthiness and/or MX performed
- PIC must make an entry in the AFML post flight stating: “Test flight satisfactory” with sign off or “Test flight unsatisfactory”, stating why and with a new AFML write-up
15
Q
What paperwork is required for a ferry flight?
A
- Ferry permit stapled to the appropriate AFML page
- Release for airworthiness in the AFML corrective action block
15
Q
How do de-ice/anti ice fluids work?
A
- Type I heated - Lowers freezing point and the heat melts snow and ice
- Type II S/A but provides coating to prevent accumulation
- Type IV - Same as Type II with better holdover times
15
Q
What is a pre-takeoff check? When is it done? Can it be done from the cockpit?
A
Pre-takeoff check in an inspection of the wings and representative surfaces for frost, ice, or snow. It should be done within the holdover time and should be done from the cabin where adequate visual reference to the surfaces is allowed, but can be done from the cockpit if it can be safely determined
16
When can you leave the DA?
* When aircraft is in a position to make a normal approach to landing
And
* When at least one of the following is visible
* Runway, runway markings, runway lights
* Approach lights
* Threshold, threshold lights, threshold markings
* Touchdown zone, touchdown zone lights, touchdown zone markings
* VASI/PAPI
* REIL
17
What should you do if the Wx radar fails enroute?
If IMC in area of thunderstorm cells:
* Approaching cell, divert to alternate or return to departure airport
* If already in cells, request ATC assistance in detection/avoidance. Request shortest route through to destination, alternate or return as appropriate. Change in destination should be coordinated with SOC
* Past cells, continue to destination acceptable
18
What are the lowest Wx for the second alternate
Not less than the lowest alternate minimums for ceiling and vis
19
What Takeoff limitations exist for high mins Captains?
Lower than standard minimums can be used, but the requirement for a takeoff alternate is predicated on the category minimums +100 and 1/2
## Footnote
\*\*\* GOM 6.20 \*\*\* \*\*\* Op specs C054 \*\*\*
20
Which Mx categories can be extended? How much?
* B - 3 days
* C - 10 days
21
How is a write-up properly cleared or deferred?
* Cleared by Mx (Corrective action performed and signed off)
* Deferred by MEL procedures and transcribed to the DDL
22
What kinds of flying are First Officers prohibited from performing?
* Takeoffs with prevailing visibility less than 1 mile or 5000 rvr
* FO's are not trained to takeoff with \< 1 mile or 5000 RVR
23
What is the release void time?
2 hours after proposed departure time
24
What does an "M" MEL indicate?
Procedures in the remarks section require specific training
(Mx personnel)
26
When is a release considered to be late?
30 minutes prior to departure
27
What must be added to the release for Exemption 3585?
A remark must be added that the flight is dispatched under the exemption
28
Do we preboard disabled passengers?
Only with their concurrence
29
Do marginal conditions apply to ETA or ETA +/- one hour?
+ / - one hour
30
What is the policy regarding disabled passengers?
Mesa does not discriminate against disabled passengers
31
What happens if holdover times are exceeded?
## Footnote
**Only a consideration during active precipitation**
* Type I must de-ice again. Consider using fluid with better hold over times
* Type II Must de-ice then reapply anti ice fluid
* Type IV - Same as with Type II
32
What are disqualified passengers?
* Infants \< 7 days without accompanying medical person
* Infants requiring incubators or life support
* UMs \< 5 online, \< 8 off line
* Pregnant and due w/in 7 days
* Pregnant and without Dr.note w/in 72 hours
* Pax req Oxygen
* Pax unable to sit upright
* barefoot, except infants
* Intoxicated
* High risk prisoners
* Firearms without authorization
* Pax unable to use seatbelt with one extension
32
What additional briefing is required for visually or hearing impaired Pax?
* Visual - One on one briefing counting seats rows to exits or place their hands
* Hearing - Provide written briefing card
33
At non tower airports, when must you monitor CTAF?
* Nominally within 10 minutes of anticipated landing
* Anytime you would otherwise be in contact with an operating tower
* When not being provided radar services from ATC and in a VFR environment where you can provide your own seperation
34
Can you continue to an airport when the weather drops below 2000/3 without an alternate?
Yes, at least until you contact dispatch to ensure adequate alternate available, and adequate fuel onboard. Otherwise you need to divert.
35
How intoxicated must a passenger be to be denied?
Enough to be helpless, objectionable, or dangerous
36
How does a First Officer maintain currency for Part 121 ground training, proficiency check, landings?
* Annual RGS
* Line checks not required
* Annual PC/PT
* 3 takeoffs/landings within 90 days
37
How does a Captain maintain currency under Part 121 operations for ground training, proficiency check, line check, and landings?
* Annual RGS
* Semi-annual PC/PT
* Annual Line Check
* 3 takeoffs and landings in 90 days
## Footnote
\*\*\* Any recurrent event has a base month, early, and late grace month\*\*\*
39
What documents and equipment are required to be onboard for revenue flights?
* All required emergency equipment within inspection limits
* Airworthiness Cert
* Registration
* RTO
* MEL/CDL
* AFML
* Checklists
* Headsets
* GOM/CFM
* Jepps
40
Who can carry firearms?
Employees of a municipality, state, or the United States authorized to carry them in the performance of their duties
41
Can aircraft be de-iced with engines running?
* Yes, use extreme caution. Avoid spraying fluid into intakes
* GOM prefers that APU be off and engines running
42
What should be done with an engine failiure enroute?
* Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time
* Advise SOC of your intentions
43
Charter flights differ from revenue flights, how?
* Required to have an alternate
* May have to weigh passengers
45
What are "High Mins" Captains?
\< 100 hours in type (IOE does not count) during part 121
46
What must be done if Type IV is applied unevenly?
Reapply evenly. The thick agent will significantly alter the load on the wings
47
Do we accept guide/service animals?
Yes, as long as they do not obstruct the isle or emergency exit
48
What if another crewmember is not at the gate 10 minutes after show time?
Contact crew tracking to locate missing crew member
49
Is it possible to lose instrument currency under 121?
Captain won't with training events every 6 months, F.O.'s can, but highly unlikely.
49
What are the requirements for takeoff with less than 1 mile vis down to ¼ or 1600 RVR?
* TDZ RVR, if available, is controlling
* At least one of the following:
* HIRL
* CL
* RCLM
* **Adequate visual reference**
49
What must be repported by AWOS before it can be used for an approach?
Visibility
51
When is a second alternate required under marginal conditions?
* When **BOTH **the destination **AND **first alternate are marginal
* The marginal rule applies to **both** ceiling and visibility and the weather must be less than the marginal values to require a second alternate
* High mins CA mins must be added to the approach and alternate mins
52
Do we carry Pax with communicable diseases?
Yes, but only if they pose no health risks
53
Can you continue to an airport when the weather for your alternate drops below the derived alternate minimums?
Yes, as long as the weather reporting at the destination is adequate, otherwise you need to contact dispatch for a revised alternate
54
When is a 3585 second alternate required?
* When either the destination or first alternate has remarks below mins(but not less than 50% of published mins)
* A second alternate will be used when dispatched under 3585
56
How does Mesa define Marginal?
Marginal is the lowest approach mins expected plus 500 + 1 at both the destination and alternate
57
If you cannot land within 60% of the most suitable runway at your destination, can you takeoff?
No, but Aerodata should ensure compliance
59
What are the procedures for Exemption 5487?
1. Immediately contact SOC with some one who can verify identity
2. SOC will fax temporary license / medical (good for 7 days)
3. Pilot must request FAA fax within 72 hour (good for 60 days)
4. Pilot must fax copy of temporary certificate to Crew Quals within 24 hrs of receipt
5. Good only in contiguous 48 states
61
When using a round trip release, what must be done at the intermediate airport?
Contact dispatch for updated information
62
What factors determine effectiveness of fluid?
Concentration and type of fluid
63
What should you do if the weather falls below mins?
* Inside the FAF: continue
* Contact SOC to coordinate divert / hold fuel status and obtain weather
* Outside the FAF, determine fuel status and request from ATC expected delay information and holding or divert as required
65
How is a crew member SARA qualified?
* One or both pilots did a takeoff and landing from the SARA field within 12 months
* Pictorial Jepps for Captains only (Exemption 4416)
\*\*\* GOM 4.13 \*\*\*
66
Who cannot sit in an emergency exit row?
* Persons without sufficient balance, mobility, or strength to exit or assist
* Less than 15 years old
* Unable to read or understand English
* Unable to see w/out contacts or glasses
* Unable to hear w/out hearing aid
* Unable to communicate instructions to others
* Having conditions in which performing duties would harm them
* Passengers with animals
* Passengers caring for small children or infants
* Prisoners under escort
* Unwilling
68
What are the lowest remarks allowable for destination?
Not less than 1/2 for the lowest visibility for the expected approach
70
A First Officer has flown a total of 70 hours under Part 121 in Mesa aircraft. What limitations must this First Officer comply with?
* No pairings with Captains with less than 75 hours
* unless a check airman, captain does takeoffs and landings
* SARA airports
* Visibility \< 3/4 mile or RVR 4000
* Contaminated runways
* Braking action \< good
* X-wind \> 15 knots
* Windshear
* CA discretion
71
What is sterile cockpit?
* Critical phases of flight when crewmembers cannot engage in activity not essential to safe flight
* Begins when cockpit door is secure until reaching cruise altitude
* Starts again on descent below 10,000 until parking brakes set at the gate
72
What is the clean aircraft concept?
* Aircraft is required to be free of any contaminants which would degrade aircraft performance
* CA is responsible to visually inspect aircraft adequately deicied for takeoff
* CA will ensure free from ice, snow, or frost contamination
* Only approved fluids used
73
What is the minimum info required for release?
* Ship #
* Flight #
* Departure / Intermediate / Destination / Alternate airports
* Min fuel - Fly to dest, most distant, alt, +45 min at normal cruise
* Type of operation
* WX
* Flight Plan
73
When must a departure alternate be filed?
* When the visibility at the departure airport is less than the lowest category 1 minimums for the runway in use
* High mins captains add 100 + 1/2
73
Under what conditions can live animals be carried?
* Other than service animals, only one per cabin
* No snakes, bees, toxic, or venomous animals
* Must be small enough to fit under seat or in overhead
* Must be carried in an approved carrier
* NOT ON CRJ 200 in cargo
* Not in cargo with dry ice
* PIC must be notified
74
What are the requirements for takeoff with less than 1600 RVR down to 1200 touchdown / 1000 rollout RVR?
* TDZ RVR, if available, is controlling
* The following:
* CL
* Two RVR systems both of which are controlling
* **Adequate visual reference**
76
When using a round trip release, when will you need a new or amended release?
* Change in flight information
* Change in minimum fuel
* If the flight is delayed an hour or more
77
What braking action report is unacceptable?
Nil
78
What HAZMAT can we take onboard?
* Gas cylinders (Empty and demonstrated depleated)
* Dry Ice (5lbs or 4.4 off line per container - 50lbs max, vented)
* Ammo (11 lbs/person, 110lbs/plane)
* Sealed oil
* Serviceable tires or unserviceable and depleted tires
* Wheelchair batteries
* Toiletries ?
79
What are some of the considerations to carrying UM's?
* They must remain in the custody of an FA or gate agent who signs for them
* They must wear a red and white UM badge
* Not less than 5 years old for online travel
* Not less than 8 years old for interline travel
80
Describe Type I, II, and IV fluid
* Type I Ethylene glycol and heated water. De-ice only
* Type II - Glycol with thickener. Anti ice
* Type IV Glycol with thickener. Anti ice, better hold over times
81
Can dispatch occur with only one set of Jepps onboard?
Complete plates must be on board. Copies of missing plates is permissable
82
What landing limitations exist for high mins Captains?
* Landing: MDA/DH add 100ft, 1/2 or RVR equivalent
* Alternate: No changes, but not less than 300 - 1
## Footnote
\*\*\* GOM 6.20 \*\*\* \*\*\*Op specs C054\*\*\*
83
On a test flight, can flight attendants be onboard?
No, only required crew
84
What conditions are conducive to windshear?
* Thunderstorms accompanied by heavy rain
* Virga
* Frontal activity
* low level jet stream
* Temperature inversions
86
Can the doors be closed prior to exit row seat verification?
Yes, during cold or noisy conditions
87
Must the PIC be made aware for the reason of the test flight?
Yes
88
What documents and equipment are required in a crewmembers flight kit?
* GOM
* CFM
* Medical
* License
* RTO
* Passport
* Jepps
* Headset
* Pen
* Logbook
* Flashlight
90
When can you cancel IFR?
Preferably on the ground with ATC, but just prior to landing is acceptable
91
What type of icing is unacceptable?
Severe
92
Can flight attendants be on a ferry flight?
Yes, but no passengers
92
Where can carry on baggage be stowed?
* Overhead
* Under seat
* In a non-emergency exit seat(or row fore or aft of an emergency exit row) w/seatbelt and adjacent to bulkhead
* In aft cargo
93
What are the requirements for takeoff with less than 1200 touchdown / 1000 rollout RVR down to 600/600/600 RVR?
* TDZ RVR, if available, is controlling
* The following:
* CL
* RCLM
* TDZ and rollout RVR both of which are controlling
* Three RVR systems all of which are controlling
* Three RVR systems, with at least 2 operational and reporting \> 600
* **Adequate visual reference**
95
When must carry on baggage be stowed?
Prior to door closure
96
When does holdover time begin?
At the start of the final application
97
If you can see through the rainfall on the other side of a thunderstorm, is it ok to fly underneath?
No, there may be significant convective activity beneath
99
What are the effects of snow, ice, or slush on the ground?
* They can adhere to flight control surfaces and/or gear and doors
* De-ice these areas as required
* Contaminates affect ground handling and braking action
* Use CFM procedures for onboard anti-icing systems
100
Do you add 500 + 1 to the derived alternate minimums or the approach minimums?
Approach minimums
101
What should you do for inadvertant CB penetration?
* Alert Cabin
* Tighten belts
* Choose shortest route, don't turn back in middle
* Request altitude below freezing level
* Reduce speed
* Do not attempt to maintain altitude. Advise ATC
* Turn up lights, keep eyes on instruments
* Consider disengaging altitude hold/speed modes on auto pilot
102
What should you do for severe icing condition?
* Ensure wing/cowl de-icers are on
* Exit immediately
* Request priority handling from ATC as required
* Avoid abrupt maneuvering
* Do not engage auto pilot
* Reduce angle of attack
103
What should you do for an expired MEL?
Contact Mx control for an extension or have Mx performed prior to flight
104
What is the procedure for making changes to the release
* Pen and ink changes are authorized for anything except the Captains name
* Record the new information, the dispatchers initials, and Zulu time of the change
105
When must the release be revalidated?
* After 2 hours; Get a new one printed for significant changes
* Return to the airport / gate
* Altimeter changes by more than 0.1
106
By how far should thunderstorms be avoided?
20 NM
107
What % do you need to land within at your alternate?
Is this only for preflight planning?
* 60%
* Yes, based on anticipated runway in use considering forecast weather
108
What is consolidation?
* 100 hours within 120 days of initial check ride
* Can have a line check to extend 30 days
* IOE counts towards everything except high mins captains
109
Does the marginal rule apply to the remarks section?
No
110
What criteria must be met for a legal takeoff alternate?
* Must be an authorized alternate airport(not NA on Jepps)
* Must conform to the derived alternate airport minimums
* Must be within one hour at normal cruise with one engine inop
* High Mins Captain Mins apply
111
What is exemption 5487?
Waiver for flight without license and/or medical
