Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM


Top Flashcards (Certified)
All Flashcards

Phase 2A :!: > Cardio > Flashcards

Cardio Flashcards

(243 cards)

Start Studying
1
Q

What is an abdominal aortic aneurysm?

A

a permanent pathological dilation of the aorta (>1.5 times the expected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Are heart conditions generally more common in men or women?

A

men

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

where are AAAs most common?

A

90% below the renal arteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are 5 risk factors for AAA?

A 
smoking 
genetics/FHx 
connective tissue disorders 
Atherosclerosis 
hypertension
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what are 3 presentations of AAA?

A

Usually asymptomatic until rupture/near rupture

palpable pulsate abdominal mass
tachycardia + hypotension
flank/back/abdominal pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the 1st line investigation of AAA?

A

abdominal ultrasound

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are 3 differentials for AAA?

A

diverticulitis
IBS
appendicitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the management for AAA?

A

urgent surgical repair - EVAR

surveillance - if <5.5cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what are 3 complications of AAA?

A

AAA rupture
thromboembolism
ureteric obstruction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is acute coronary syndrome?

A

a spectrum of conditions that includes unstable angina (UA), non-ST-elevation myocardial infarction (non-STEMI), and ST-elevation myocardial infarction (STEMI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is the number one cause of death globally?

A

cardiovascular disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what is the underlying cause of most acute coronary syndromes?

A

coronary artery disease

rare - coronary artery spasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are 4 non-modifiable risk factors for ACS?

A

Age (>65)
Male
FHx
Premature menopause

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the 3 pathophysiological origins of ACS?

A

increased myocardial O2 demand (exercise, infection)
reduced coronary blood flow (atherosclerosis)
Reduced myocardial oxygen delivery (anaemia, hypoxaemia)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what are 4 symptoms of ACS?

A

crushing centralised chest pain not relieved by rest >20 mins
sweating and clammy
SOB
nausea and vomiting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what are 2 primary investigations for ACS?

A

ECG - within 10 minutes!

high sensitivity Troponin levels - rises after 4-6 hours and stays elevated for 10 days (only in STEMI and NSTEMI)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are 3 differentials for ACS?

A

stable angina
acute pericarditis
pneumothorax

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is the immediate management for ACS?

A

MONA

Morphine
Oxygen (if needed)
Nitrates
Aspirin

P2Y12 inhibitor - clopidogrel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

What alleviates stable angina?

A

rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What are 3 differentials for angina?

A

prinzmetal angina
STEMI/NSTEMI
aortic dissection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is the symptomatic relief for angina?

A

GTN spray/tablet - vasodilator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are 3 complications of angina?

A

MI
Chronic HF
Stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is aortic dissection?

A

a separation in the aortic wall intima, causing blood flow into a new false channel composed of the tunica intima and media

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the peak age range for aortic dissection?

A

50-70 years

rare <40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what are 5 risk factors for aortic dissection?
``` connective tissue disorders bicuspid aortic valve smoking FHx hypertension ```
26
What is the pathophysiology for aortic dissection?
There is a tear in the intimal lining of the aorta => blood to enters the aortic wall under pressure forming a haematoma which separates intima from adventitia and creates a false lumen
27
What are 6 manifestations of aortic dissection?
tearing pain in chest from front to back or inter scapular pain L/R BP differential pulse deficit syncope hypertension/tachycardia and hypotension later on
28
What are 3 investigations that can be done for aortic dissection?
ECG CXR - widened mediasteinem contrast enhanced CT angiogram - GOLD
29
what are 3 differentials for aortic dissection?
ACS pericarditis aortic aneurysm
30
What is the management of aortic dissection?
Beta blocker - IV labetalol | urgent surgical repair
31
what are 3 complications of aortic dissection?
cardiac tamponade aortic regurgitation MI
32
what is aortic regurgitation?
the diastolic leakage of blood from the aorta into the left ventricle due to inadequate coaptation of valve leaflets
33
when does aortic regurgitation usually become symptomatic?
when the ejection fraction <50%
34
what are 5 risk factors for aortic regurgitation?
``` bicuspid aortic valves rheumatic fever endocarditis connective tissue disorders Aortic dissection/anyeurysm ```
35
what is the pathophysiology of aortic regurgitation?
There is reflux of blood from the aorta to the L ventricle in diastole => increased LV preload => LV hypertrophy and dilation => eventual heart failure
36
what are 4 signs of aortic regurgitation?
``` early diastolic decrescendo murmur displaced apex beat wide pulse pressure bounding pulse de Musset's head bobbing with pulse Quincke's sign - nail capillaries pulsing Traube's pistol shot femoral pulse raised JVP ```
37
what are 4 investigations of aortic regurgitation?
ECHO - gold ECG CXR (pos cardiomegaly) colour flow/pulsed wave doppler
38
what ECG changes can be seen with aortic regurgitation?
LV hypertrophy tall R waves deep inverted T waves in L side chest leads and deep S waves in R sides chest leads L axis deviation
39
what are 3 differentials for aortic regurgitation?
mitral regurgitation mitral stenosis aortic stenosis
40
what is the management for aortic regurgitation?
acute - ianotropes (digoxin), vasodilators (nifedipine), aortic valve replacement chronic - reassurance, nifedipine, ACEi, transcatheter aortic valve implantation
41
what is the most common valvular disease?
Aortic stenosis
42
what are 6 risk factors for aortic stenosis?
``` smoking 60+ bicuspid aortic valve rheumatic heart disease hypertension/lipidaemia CKD ```
43
what are 6 manifestations of aortic stenosis?
``` crescendo derescendo systolic murmur chest pain fatigue carotid parvus et tardes (slow rising carotid pulse) S2 diminished and single, S4 sound SOB ```
44
what are 4 investigations for aortic stenosis?
Transthoracic ECHO - GOLD ECG CXR Doppler ECHO
45
what are 3 differentials for aortic stenosis?
Aortic sclerosis ischaemic heart disease hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
46
what are 3 management options for aortic stenosis?
aortic valcoplasty/valvotomy valve replacement transcutaneous aortic valve implantation
47
what are 3 complications of aortic stenosis?
LV outflow tract obstruction Heart failure Infective endocarditis
48
What is atrial fibrillation?
a supraventricular tachyarrhythmia with uncoordinated atrial electrical activation and consequently ineffective atrial contraction
49
what is the most common cardiac arrhythmias?
atrial fibrillation
50
what are 7 causes of atrial fibrillation?
PIRATES ``` Pulmonary - COPD Rheumatic HD (valvular disease) Anaemia, alcohol Thyroid disease Electrolyte disturbance Sepsis/Sleep apnoea ```
51
What are 6 risk factors for atrial fibrillation?
``` increasing age DM hyperthyroidism Hypertension valvular heart disease diet and lifestyle factors (caffeine, alcohol, etc) ```
52
What are 5 presentations of atrial fibrillation?
``` irregularly irregular pulse Palpitations SOB hypotension/dizziness/fainting - RED FLAG chest pain - RED FLAG ```
53
what are 3 investigations for atrial fibrillation?
ECG - irregularly irregular QRS complexes with absent P waves and chaotic baseline serum electrolytes Thyroid function tests
54
what are 3 differentials for atrial fibrillation?
atrial flutter wolff-pankinson-white syndrome atrial tachycardia
55
what are the 1st line rhythm control treatments for atrial fibrillation?
beta blocker - bisoprolol OR rate limiting CCB - verapamil
56
what are 3 complications for atrial fibrillation?
acute stroke, MI, congestive HF
57
what are the ECG characteristics of Atrial fibrillation?
regularly irregular R-R interval absence of distinctive repeating P waves irregular atrial activations
58
What is cardia tamponade?
raised intra-pericardial pressure due to pericardial effusion which restricts cardiac filling and decreasing cardiac output.
59
what are 5 causes of cardiac tamponade?
``` iatrogenic (surgery/trauma) pericarditis malignancy trauma aortic dissection ```
60
What are 6 manifestations of cardiac tamponade?
``` dyspnoea and chest pain elevated jugular venous pressure pulses paradoxus hypotension tachycardia pericardial rub ```
61
what are 6 investigations of cardiac tamponade?
``` ECG - electrical alternans Transthoracic ECHO (gold) CXR FBC - raised WBCs, low Hb ESR - elevated Troponin - elevated ```
62
what are 3 differentials of cardiac tamponade?
constrictive pericarditis, pericardiocentesis, fluid for culture and cytology
63
what are 3 treatments for cardiac tamponade?
effusion only - anti-inflammatories - ibuprofen, aspirin, colchicine acute - urgent pericardiocentesis or surgical drain
64
what are 2 complications of cardiac tamponade?
constrictive pericarditis | cardiac arrest
65
what is congestive heart failure?
when cardiac output cannot meet metabolic demands | L and R ventricular failure
66
what can cause congestive heart failure?
``` Ischaemic heart disease cardiomyopathy valvular heart disease Cor pulmonale hypertension alcohol excess anaemia arrythmias hyperthyroidism pregnancy obesity ```
67
what are 5 risk factors of heart failure?
``` 65+ African descent male obesity MI ```
68
what are 4 investigations for heart failure?
NT-proBNP ECG - broad QRS complexes CXR Transthoracic ECHO
69
what is the gold standard for heart failure?
B-type natriuretic peptide
70
what are 3 differentials for heart failure?
angina COPD pulmonary embolism
71
what is the 1st line treatment for heart failure?
Beta blocker - Bisoprolol AND ACEi - Ramipril
72
what are 3 complications of heart failure?
pleural effusion acute renal failure (due to reduced CO) acute decompensation of chronic heart failure
73
What is hypertension?
Persistent elevation of arterial blood pressure | BP ≥140/90 mmHg
74
what are 4 causes of hypertension?
excess sodium intake renal sodium retention RAAS dysfunction increased peripheral resistance
75
what are 4 risk factors for hypertension?
obesity sedentary lifestyle high alcohol intake DM
76
BP =
CO X TPR
77
what are 3 presentations of hypertension?
dyspnoea retinopathy headaches
78
what are 5 causes of hypertension?
``` drug induced renal artery stenosis/kidney disease pregnancy Conn's syndrome Cushing's syndrome ```
79
what is the management of hypertension?
55+/black - CCB - amlodipine <55 - ACEi or ARB (ramipril or cadesartan) CCB + ACEI + thiazide diuretics Resistant hypertension not controllable by 3 drugs
80
what are some side effects of calcium channel blockers?
``` Constipation Dizziness Fast heartbeat (palpitations) Fatigue Flushing Headache Nausea Rash ```
81
what are some side effects of ACEi?
Dry cough. Increased potassium levels in the blood (hyperkalemia) Fatigue. Dizziness from blood pressure going too low. Headaches. Loss of taste.
82
what are 3 complications of hypertension?
coronary artery disease stroke CKD
83
what is infective endocarditis?
an infection involving the endocardial surface of the heart (valves, Chordae tendonae, septal defects etc)
84
why is IE more common in developing countries?
increased prevalence of rheumatic fever
85
what are 5 risk factors for IE?
``` Hx of endocarditis prosthetic valves congenital heart diseases IVDU poor dental hygiene ```
86
what are 5 manifestations for IE?
``` fever/chills new cardiac murmur night sweats, fatigue, weightloss headaches joint pain (can be caused by septic emboli) ```
87
what are 3 clinical signs for IE?
Roth spots - retina Janeway lesions - palms and soles Osler nodes - painful nodules on fingertips
88
what are 3 investigations for IE?
blood cultures X3 SETS ECHO - vegetations CRP/ESR - raised
89
how should blood cultures for IE be taken?
BEFORE antibiotics | 3 x at 30min intervals
90
what are 3 differentials for IE?
rheumatic feer atrial myxoma non-bacterial thrombotic endocarditis
91
what criteria is used to diagnose IE?
Duke's criteria
92
what are the major criteria for dukes criteria?
2 positive blood cultures of typical organisms | ECHO
93
What is ischaemic heart disease?
Ischaemic heart disease, an inability to provide adequate blood supply to the myocardium
94
what is the primary cause of ischaemic heart disease?
atherosclerosis
95
what are 4 risk factors for ischaemic heart disease?
smoking hypertension hyperlipidaemia diabetes
96
what is the pathophysiology of atherosclerosis?
Endothelial cell injury due to change in Virchow’s triad causes sticky endothelial cells => fatty streak => macrophages ingest lipids and become foam cells => collagen, fibrin, smooth muscle, LDLs and WBCs make up plaque => plaque grows and obstructs lumen
97
what is a manifestations of ischaemic heart disease?
chest pressure/squeezing provoked by exercise/emotional stress
98
what are 3 investigations for IHD?
ECG FBC lipid profile
99
what are 3 differentials for IHD?
aortic dissection pericarditis pulmonary embolism
100
what is the management of IHD?
``` lifestyle management antiplatelet therapy (clopidogrel) statin (atorvastatin) GTN spray beta blocker calcium channel blocker ```
101
what are 3 complications of IHD?
heart failure MI sudden cardiac death
102
What is mitral regurgitation?
Backflow from the left ventricle to the left atrium in systole due to dysfunctios of the mitral valve apparatus
103
what are 4 causes of mitral regurgitation?
IE ischaemic papillary dysfunction acute rheumatic fever L ventricular dilation
104
what are 3 risk factors for mitral regurgitation?
Hx MI/IE congenital heart disease mitral valve prolapse
105
what are 5 signs of mitral regurgitation?
mid-systolic click and pan systolic murmur soft S1 additional S3 displaced apex beat laterally
106
what are 3 investigations of mitral regurgitation?
Transthoracic ECHO ECG - underlying arrythmias CXR - LA enlargement
107
what are 3 differentials of mitral valve regurgitation?
acute coronary syndrome IE mitral stenosis
108
what is the management of mitral valve regurgitation?
surgery (valvulopathy) ACEi - ramipril beta blockers diuretics - furosemide
109
what are 3 complications of mitral valve regurgitation?
atrial fibrillation pulmonary hypertension cardiogenic shock
110
what is mitral stenosis?
narrowing of the mitral valve orifice preventing proper filling of the LV during diastole
111
what historically is the most common causes of mitral stenosis?
rheumatic fever
112
what are 4 risk factors for mitral stenosis?
streptococcal infection female SLE amyloidosis
113
What are 5 presentations of mitral stenosis?
``` loud S1 snap mid-diastolic murmur AF malar flush Dysphagia if dilated atria press on oesophagus ```
114
what are 3 investigations for mitral stenosis?
ECG - AF, LA enlargement, RV hypertrophy CXR Transthoracic ECHO - GOLD
115
what are 2 differentials of mitral stenosis?
L atrial myxoma | unexplained AF
116
what is the management of mitral stenosis?
beta blockers - atenolol and digoxin valve replacement/repair diuretics anticoagulants
117
what are 3 complications of mitral stenosis?
AF stroke thrombus formation
118
what is myocardial infarction?
myocardial cell death that occurs because of a prolonged mismatch between perfusion and demand
119
what are 4 risk factors for MI?
smoking hypertension diabetes obesity
120
what are 6 presentations of MI?
``` chest pain sweating and looking grey acute heart failure arrhythmia nausea + vomiting SOB ```
121
what are 3 investigations for MI?
ECG - gold high sensitivity troponin - gold CXR
122
what are 3 differentials for MI?
angina aortic dissection pulmonary embolism
123
what is management for MI?
``` aspirin GNT O2 - if hypoxic opioids angiography/surgery ``` anti-emetics anticoagulants beta blockers ACEi
124
what are 3 complications of MI?
arrhythmia heart failure cariogenic shock
125
what is a STEMI?
caused predominantly by COMPLETE atherothrombotic occlusion of a coronary artery ST elevation
126
what is an NSTEMI?
usually a result of a transient or near-complete occlusion of a coronary artery or acute factor that deprives myocardium of oxygen no ST elevation
127
What is pericardial effusion?
when the fluid in the pericardial space exceeds its physiological amount (>50 mL).
128
what are 3 causes of pericardial effusion?
malignancy infection - EBV. CMV, S.aurea TB
129
what is the investigation for pericardial effusion?
chest imaging
130
what are 3 differentials for pericardial effusion?
malignancy viral pericarditis congestive heart failure
131
how long does acute pericarditis last?
<6 weeks
132
what are the most common causes of pericarditis?
90% idiopathic or viral - coxsackie virus, mumps, EBV, CMV, VZV, HV rare - fungi and drugs
133
what are 5 risk factors for pericarditis?
``` male 20-50 years previous MI neoplasm infection ```
134
what are 4 presentations of pericarditis?
sharp, severe retrosternal chest pain, worse with inspiration, relieved leaning forward low grade fever pericardial rub hiccups (phrenic involvement)
135
what are 4 investigations for pericarditis?
ECG - saddle shaped upward ST elevation and PR depression, T wave flattening TT ECHO CXR - water bottle heart ESR and CRP
136
what are 3 differentials for pericarditis?
pulmonary embolism MI Pneumonia
137
what is the 1st line treatment for pericarditis?
NSAIDs and colchicine + prednisolone (2nd line)
138
what are 3 complications of pericarditis?
pericardial effusion with/without tamponade chronic constructive pericarditis myocarditis
139
what is peripheral arterial disease?
a range of arterial syndromes that are caused by atherosclerotic obstruction of the lower-extremity arteries.
140
what is the most common cause of PAD?
atherosclerosis - most common
141
what are 4 risk factors for PAD?
smoking DM hypertension male
142
what are 7 presentations of PAD?
most asymptomatic ``` intermittent claudication paleness/cold legs gangrene muscle atrophy loss of dorsal foot hair erectile dysfunction non-healing wound ```
143
what are 3 investigations for PAD?
ankle-brachial pressure index doppler ultrasound CT angiography
144
What are 3 differentials for PAD?
spinal stenosis arthritis venous claudication
145
what is the treatment of PAD?
exercise therapy surgery - stents, angioplasty, bypass vasodilators - nadtidrofuryl oxalate
146
what are 3 complications of PAD?
critical limb ischaemia gangrene and ulceration amputation
147
what is the 1st step of atherogenesis?
endothelial dysfunction
148
what is the 2nd step of atherogenesis?
formation of lipid layer of fatty streak within intima
149
what is the 3rd step of atherogenesis?
migration of leukocyte and smooth muscle cells into the vessel wall
150
what is the 4th step of atherogenesis?
foam cell formation
151
what is the 5th step of atherogenesis?
degradation of the extracellular matrix
152
what is the 1st line anti-anginal medication?
B blocker - Bisoprolol OR CCB - verapamil 2nd line - BB AND CCB (nifedipine!!!)
153
what is the preventative treatment for angina?
Lifestyle changes aspirin statin ACEI
154
what are 4 modifiable risk factors for ACS?
Smoking DM Hyperlipidaemia Hypertension
155
what are 3 signs of ACS?
hypo/hypertension reduced 4th heat sound signs of heart failure - increased JVP, oedema, etc
156
what are the primary investigations for angina?
ECG - 1st line functional imaging - stress echo transcatheter angiography
157
what is the GRACE score for?
estimates 6 month mortality in people with NSTEMI or unstable angina
158
what are 3 early complications of ACS?
post-MI pericarditis Cardiac arrest bradyarrythmias
159
what are 3 late complications of ACS?
Dressler's syndrome Heart failure LV aneurysm
160
what is Dressler's syndrome?
presents 2-8 weeks post MI | autoimmune pericarditis against Neo-antigens formed by heart causing
161
what are 4 signs of L sided HF?
cool peripheries and cyanosis bibasal crackles S3 Displaced Apex beat
162
what are 4 symptoms of LSHF?
SOB Orthopnoea (SOB lying down) Weakness and fatigue cough with pink frothy sputum
163
what are 4 signs of RSHF?
raised JVP peripheral pitting oedema hepatospleomegaly Ascites
164
what are 3 symptoms of RSHF?
fatigue and weakness oedema in legs distended abdomen (ascites)
165
what are 5 signs of heart failure of CXR?
``` A - alveolar oedema B - Kelley B lines C - cardiomegaly D - Dilated upper lobe vesels E - pleural Effusion ```
166
what is the second line management for heart failure?
Potassium sparing diuretic - spironolactone (aldosterone antagonist)
167
what is the management of decompensated heart failure?
fluid restriction IV diuretics Inotropes or vasopressors NIV
168
what is stage 1 hypertension?
clinical - >140/90 | ambulatory - >135/85
169
what is stage 2 hypertension?
clinical - >160/100 | ambulatory - >150/95
170
what is stage 3 hypertension?
>180/120
171
what are the 2 shockable Nadia arrhythmia?
ventricular tachycardia | ventricular fibrillation
172
what are 2 non-shockable rhythms?
pulseless electrical activity | asystole
173
what is the 1st line treatment for AF with HF?
digoxin
174
what is the treatment for haemodynamically unstable AF?
DC cardioversion
175
what does CHA2DS2-VASc calculate?
stroke risk for AF when considering anticoagulation
176
what does HAS-BLED calculate?
the risk of major bleeding for patients on anticoagulants
177
what does CHA2DS2-VASc stand for?
``` Congestive HF Hypertension Age >75 = 2 points Diabetes Stroke/TIA/thromboembolism Vascular disease Age <65 = 1 point Sc - Sex category (+2 women) ```
178
what does HAS-BLED stand for?
``` Hypertension Abnormal liver/renal function Stroke Bleeding Labile INRs Elderly >65 Drugs + Alcohol ```
179
what are 3 causes of atrial flutter?
idiopathic - 30% CHD obesity
180
what is bradycardia?
HR < 50 BPM
181
what is 1st degree AV block?
delay in AV conduction but every atrial impulse leads to a ventricular contraction
182
what is Mobitz type 1 2nd degree heart block?
AV conductions get longer (PR interval) until there is no ventricular contraction then are a normal length again in a cycle
183
what is Mobitz type II 2nd degree heart block?
intermittent failure of AV conduction resulting in a ratio of missing to normal QRS complexes
184
what is 3rd degree heart block?
complete heart block - no relationship between P waves and QRS complexes
185
what are cannon A waves seen in?
JVP in complete heart block
186
what is the 1st line management of unstable heart block?
IV atropine
187
what are 3 causes of RBBB?
pulmonary embolism cor Pulmonale ischaemic heart disease
188
what are 3 causes of LBBB?
ischaemic heart disease hypertension cardiomyopathy
189
what sound is there in RBBB?
wide splitting of second heart sound
190
what sound is there is LBBB?
reverse splitting of second heart sound
191
what does the ECG look like in RBBB?
MaRRoW V1 - R wave looks like an M V6 - Slurred S wave looks like a W
192
what does the ECG look like in LBBB?
WiLLiaM V1 - slurred S wave looks like a W V6 - R wave looks like an M
193
what sex if AF more common in?
women
194
What is Wolff Parkinson White syndrome?
extra connections between the atria and ventricles causing tachycardia
195
what does the ECG look like in Wolff parkinson white?
``` short PR interval slurred upstroke (DELTA WAVES) wide QRS ```
196
what are 2 complications of Wolff Parkinson White?
prone to AF | sudden death
197
what are 2 eponymous signs for AAA?
Grey-Turner's sign - flank bruising secondary to rupture Cullen's sign - peri-umbilical bruising
198
what are the 2 Stanford types of Aortic dissection?
A - ascending aorta involved | B - descending aorta only
199
what are the DeBakey Aortic dissection types?
I - ascending aorta + arch II - just ascending aorta III - descending aorta
200
what is the overall most common causative organism for IE?
S. Aureus
201
what demographics are staph epidermis IE infections associated with?
indwelling lines and prosthetic valves
202
what is the second most common causative pathogen in IE?
Viridans (group B) strep
203
what is the most common pathogen in IE after dental work?
veridans (group B) strep
204
what kind of strep is veridans group strep?
Alpha haemolytic on BA, optochin resistant => group B
205
what is the treatment for veridans group IE?
IV Benzylpenicillin +/- gentamicin (veridans group) | 4-6 weeks
206
what kind of bacteria is gentamicin useful against?
gram negs
207
what does S. Aureus look like on blood agar?
coagulase +ve, gram +ve cocci in clusters growing golden colonies on BA
208
is S. Aureus coagular +ve or -ve?
+ve
209
is S. epidermis gram +ve or -ve?
+ve
210
what pathogens can cause IE in immunosuppressed people?
FUNGAl IE
211
what is the treatment for enterococci IE?
amoxicillin + gentamicin | 4-6 weeks
212
what is the treatment for S. aureus/epidermis IE?
flucloxacillin + gentamicin (or vancomycin if MRSA) 4-6 weeks
213
what are 2 risk factors for atrial septal defects?
foetal alcohol syndrome | Down syndrome
214
what is the most common congenital heart defect?
ventral septal defect
215
what is patent ductus arteriosus?
when the ductus arteriosus (the shunt to avoid the lungs in foetal circulation) fails to close upon birth
216
what is the most common form of congenital cyanotic heart disease?
tetralogy of Fallot
217
what are 3 risk factors for tetralogy of Fallot?
FHx Rubella infection increased maternal age
218
what are the 4 malformations in tetralogy of Fallot?
pulmonary stenosis RV hypertrophy Ventricular septal defect overriding aorta
219
what are 6 signs of tetralogy of fallot?
``` ejection systolic murmur reduced SpO2 respiratory distress cyanosis clubbing failure to thrive ```
220
what is the most common cause of sudden cardiac death in young people?
hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
221
what is the inheritance pattern for hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?
autosomal dominant
222
what is rheumatic fever?
autoimmune condition triggered by streptococcus bacteria
223
what bacteria is in rheumatic fever?
group A beta-haemolytic strep - Strep pyogenes | usually follows strep throat
224
what criteria is used to diagnose rheumatic fever?
Jones criteria
225
what does jones criteria stand for?
``` Joint arthritis Organ inflammation Nodules Erythema marginatum rash Sydenham chorea ```
226
what are the ECG signs of an MI days later?
T wave inversion | pathological Q waves
227
what are 5 X-ray indications of heart failure?
ABCDE ``` Alveolar Oedema Kerley B lines cardiomegaly Dilation of upper lobe vessels pleural effusion ```
228
what are the 5 types of shock?
``` anaphylactic septic cariogenic haemoragic neurogenic ```
229
is ascites a feature of R heart failure?
NO
230
where is BNP released from?
the ventricles of the brain
231
what are delta waves on an ECG?
seen in Wolff Parkinson white syndrome => due to accessory conduction pathways
232
what is the 1st line investigation in stable angina?
CT coronary angiography
233
what is an embolism?
a blocked vessel caused by a foreign body
234
what is a thrombosis?
the formation of a solid mass of blood constituents within an intact vessel is the living
235
are there B lymphocytes in atherosclerosis/
NO ONLY T
236
what is the MRC scale for?
Dyspnoea
237
what is the MRC scale?
0 - not breathless unless strenuous exercise 1 - SOB hurrying/up slight hill 2 - has to walk slower then normal or stop 3 - stops walking after 100m/few mins 4 - too breathless to leave house/gets breathless doing normal tasks
238
what does the ECG look like in pericarditis?
PeRicariTiS Saddle shaped upward ST elevation PR depression T wave flattening Low QRS amplitude
239
what is the gold standard investigation for unstable angina?
angiography
240
what are the 3 features of a total anterior circulation stroke?
``` Unilateral weakness (and/or sensory deficit) of the face, arm and leg Homonymous hemianopia Higher cerebral dysfunction ```
241
what score is used for stroke risk after a TIA?
ABCD2
242
what is the ABCD2 score?
``` Age > 60 BP > 140/90 Clinical features - sensory (1), weakness (2) Diabetes Duration - <1 hour (1), >1 hour (2) ```
243
what is the CHA2DS2-VASC score?
``` Congestive Heart failure Hypertension Age >75 (2) Age >65 (1) Diabetes Stroke/TIA (2) ``` Vascular disease Sex category - Female (+1)

Phase 2A :!: (14 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2025 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions