Mock Questions Flashcards
(289 cards)
1
Q
What are 3 PY12 inhibitors?
A
Clopidogrel
Tricagrelor
Prasugrel
2
Q
what is the anti platelet therapy needed to treat MI?
A
Dual antiplatelets
Aspirin
P2Y12 inhibitors - tricagrelor/clopidagrel
3
Q
Are warfarin and dalteparin anti platelets?
A
NO - they’re anticoagulants
4
Q
what kind of drug is heparin?
A
Anti-coagulant
5
Q
What is the MOA of spironolactone?
A
inhibition of aldosterone receptors in the distal tubule
6
Q
what kind of drug is spironolactone?
A
a potassium sparing diuretic => retains K+ ions
7
Q
name 2 loop diuretics?
A
Frusemide
bumentanide
8
Q
what kind of calcium channels does amlodipine act on?
A
blocks L type voltage gated calcium channels in the nephron
9
Q
what is the mechanism of action of thiazide-like diuretics?
A
inhibit sodium chloride transporter in distal convoluted tubule
10
Q
what is the MOA of loop diuretics?
A
inhibition of Na/K/Cl symporter in loop of Henle and inhibit NKCC2 Chanels
11
Q
what is the murmur of mitral regurgitation?
A
pan-systolic apex murmur
12
Q
what is the murmur of aortic stenosis?
A
ejection systolic crescendo decrescendo murmur
13
Q
what is the murmur aortic regurgitation?
A
early diastolic decrescendo/Austin Flint murmur
14
Q
What is the murmur heard with mitral stenosis?
A
apical mid-diastolic murmur
15
Q
what is the presentation of tricuspid regurgitation?
A
R sided HF
pan-systolic murmur at L lower sternal edge
16
Q
what are the ECG changes in MI?
A
ST elevation/depression
T wave inversion
abnormal Q wave
17
Q
what conditions are absent P waves seen in on ECG?
A
Supraventricular tachycardia
atrial fibrillation
atrial flutter
18
Q
what are the ECG characteristics of hyperkalaemia?
A
tall tented T waves
wide/flat P waves and PR prolongation
wide QRS
conduction blocks and bradyrhythmias
19
Q
in which patients would you typically see wide QRS complexes?
A
ones with bundle branch blocks
20
Q
Over what ambulatory BP level requires pharmacological treatment?
A
135/85 mmHg
21
Q
what are 3 eponymous signs of infective endocarditis?
A
Janeway lesions - non tender small lesions on palms/soles
Osler’s nodes - painful red raised lesions on hands and feet
Roth spots - white centred retinal haemorrhages
22
Q
what is the ABCD2 score used for?
A
stroke risk after TIA
23
Q
what is the CHA2DS2-VASc score used for?
A
stroke risk in someone with AF
24
Q
what is the QRISK score used for?
A
heart attack risk
25
what is the Wells score used for?
DVT/PE risk
26
what are 3 key aspects of Conn syndrome?
Hypertension with hypOkalaemia
hypertension despite 3 antihypertensives
hypertension <40 years
27
what is the fasting plasma glucose for a diabetic diagnosis?
>7 mol/L
28
what is the HbA1c level needed for a diabetic diagnosis?
>48 mmol/mol
29
what is the random plasma glucose needed for a diabetic diagnosis?
>11 mmol/L + symptoms
30
what are the causes of hypercalcaemia?
```
CHIMPANZEES
calcium supplements
hydrochlorothiazide
iatrogenic
multiple myeloma/medication
parathyroid hyperplasia
alcohol
neoplasm
Zollinger Ellison syndrome
excessive Vit D/A
Sarcoidosis
```
31
what are the signs and symptoms of hypercalcaemia?
bones, stones, groans and psychic moans
32
what electrolyte disturbance causes U waves?
hypokalaemia
33
what is carcinoid syndrome?
paraneoplastic syndrome
| triad - cardiac involvement , diarrhoea, flushing
34
what are 2 serum tests for coeliac disease?
Tissue transglutaminase IgA
| anti-endomysial antibody test
35
what is Rovsing's sign?
pain in the R iliac fossa on palpation in the L due to appendicitis
36
What is the treatment for H pylori infection?
PPI + amoxicillin + clarithromycin OR metronidazole
37
what do enterochromaffin like cells secrete?
histamine - stimulates gastric acid secretion
38
what is the gold standard for renal colic?
non-contrast CT kidney, ureter and bladder
39
what is the most common composition of renal stones?
calcium oxalate
40
what is a side effect of tamulosin?
postural hypotension
41
what type of drug is tamsulosin?
selective alpha 1-adrenergic receptor antagonist => relaxes smooth muscle in bladder neck and prostate
42
what are the 5 most common causative agents of UTI?
```
Klebsiella
E. coli - most common
Enterococcus
Proteus/pseudomonas
Staphylococcus saprophytic
```
43
which electrolyte is most concerning for there to be a build up of?
potassium - can lead to heart attack
44
what is stage 1 CKD?
GFR > 90 + evidence of renal damage
45
what is stage 2 CKD?
GFR 60-89 + evidence of renal damage
46
what is stage 3a CKD?
45-59 ml/min with or without renal damage
47
what is stage 3b CKD?
30-44 ml/min with or without renal damage
48
what is stage 4 CKD?
15-29 ml/min with or without renal damage
49
what is stage 5 CKD?
<15 ml/min, established renal failure
50
what kind of presentation is there in Hodgkin's lymphoma?
bimodal - 20s and 60s
51
is there pain when drinking alcohol in Hodgkin's or non-hodgkins?
Hodgkin's
52
what age group does non-Hodgkins lymphoma present in?
elderly
53
what does Polycythaemia rub vera do?
increase blood viscosity
54
which leukaemia has Philadelphia chromosomes?
CML
55
which leukaemia has auer rods?
AML
56
What is the gold standard investigation for DVT?
Doppler ultrasound scan
57
what are 2 signs of iron deficiency anaemia?
brittle or spoon shaped (koilonychia) nails
58
what is a sign of hypothyroidism and B12 deficiency anaemia?
Reduced reflexes
59
what are 2 typical signs of anaemia?
pale skin and conjunctiva
| systolic flow murmur
60
what are 4 causes of iron deficiency anaemia?
Chronic kidney disease
GI bleed
NSAIDS
Pregnancy
61
what is phamacodynamics?
the action of a drug on the body
62
what is pharmacokinetics?
the action of the body on a drug
63
what is amitriptyline and what is it used to treat?
an ANTICHOLINERGIC antidepressant also used to treat migraine, tension headache and fibromyalgia
64
what are some side effects of anticholinergics?
blurred vision
confusion
dry mouth
urinary retention
65
what are 2 examples of glycopeptide antibiotics?
vancomycin
| teicoplainin
66
what are 2 examples of cephalosporins?
cephalexin
| cefuroxime
67
what is an example of a carbapenem antibiotic?
imipenem
68
what are the 4 classes of antibiotics that inhibit cell wall synthesis?
penicillins
glycopeptides
cephalosporins
carbapenems
69
what 3 classes of antibiotics inhibit bacterial protein synthesis?
macrolides
tetracyclines
aminoglycosides
70
what is it and what is the MOA of sildenafil?
VIAGRA!!!
| inhibits phosphhodiesterase type 5
71
what are examples of 2 macrolides?
clarithromycin
| vancomycin
72
what are 2 examples of tetracyclines?
tetracycline
| doxycycline
73
How does warfarin work?
it is a vitamin K inhibitor => Vitamin K needed to synthesis clotting factors
74
what is pseudomembranous colitis?
inflammation of colon due to C. diff overgrowth
75
what is a common causative organism of diverticulitis?
E. coli
76
What are the 4 drugs used to treat TB?
RIPE
Rifampicin
Isoniazid
Pyrazinamide
Ethambutol
77
what are the side effects of the 4 TB drugs?
Rifampicin - red/orange secretions
Isoniazid - peripheral neuropathy
Pyrazinamide - high uric acid
Ethambutol - colour blindness and reduced visual acuity
78
what heart valve is most commonly affected in infective endocarditis?
Tricuspid
79
what is the CURB-65 criteria for?
to assess severity of CA pneumonia
80
what does CURB-65 stand for?
```
Confusion
Urea > 7 mol/L
Resp rat > 30/min
Blood pressure < 90/60
> 65 years
```
a score over 2 requires hospital admission
81
what are Bouchard nodules usually found in?
osteoarthritis
82
what are 4 deformities seen in RhA?
ulnar deviation
swan neck deformity
Boutonniere
Z thumb
83
what are the first line treatments for osteoporosis?
oral bisphosphonate - Aledronic acid
84
what is the second line treatment for osteoporosis?
densumab - monoclonal antibody to rank that inhibits osteoclast activity and bone resorption
85
what is the MOA for bisphosphonates?
inhibit bone resorption through the inhibition of enzyme (Farnesyl Pyrophosphate synthase) which reduces osteoclast activity
86
what are 2 preventative gout drugs?
allopurinol and febuxostat
87
one drug used to treat acute gout attack?
Colchicine
88
what is the most specific investigation for rheumatoid arthritis?
anti-citrullinated peptide antibody
89
what is the 1st line treatment for acute migraines?
NSAIDs - ibruprofen, naproxen
90
what is the 1st line prophylactic treatment of migraines?
topiramate
91
what is the most common cause of infection following hospital admission > 1 week?
pseudomonas aeruginosa
92
what age group does strep agalactiae cause meningitis in?
neonates
93
what is the most common cause of meningitis overall?
Strep pneumonia
94
what nerve does carpel tunnel involve?
the median
95
MS symptoms mnemonic?
DEMYELINATION
```
Diploplia
Eye movement painful
Motor: weakness and spasticity
nYstagmus
Elevated temperature
Lhermitte’s phenomenon
Neuropathic pain
Ataxia
Talking slurred
Impotence
Overactive bladder
Numbness
```
96
are fasciculations a UMN or LMN sign?
LMN
97
what medication is used to treat chorea and aggression in Huntingtons?
risperidone => dopamine receptor antagonist
98
what medication is used to treat psychosis in Huntingtons?
haloperidol
99
what is the 1st line treatment for Guillaine Barre syndrome?
IV immunoglobulins
100
what is the causative agent of an AIDs defining pneumonia?
Pneumocystis Jiroveci - fungi
101
what kind of pneumonia does legionella pneumophila cause?
atypical
associated with infected water and air conditioners
can cause SIADH
102
what is the first line treatment for PE and DVT?
start DOAC - apixiban, riveroxiban
103
what is the second line treatment of PE and DVT?
start LMWHs - dalteparin
104
what are 5 causes of raised D dimmer?
```
pneumonia
malignancy
pregnancy
surgery
heart failure
```
105
how to differentiate between metabolic and respiratory alkalosis/acidosis?
if CO2 in same direction as pH => metabolic
| if CO2 in opposite direction to pH => respiratory
106
what are key features in the diagnosis of sarcoidosis?
non-caeseating granulomas
hypercalcaemia
rash - erythema nodosum
107
what is good pastures disease?
autoimmune disease attacking glomerular and pulmonary basement membranes => AKI and haemoptysis
108
what are the antibodies in Hashimoto's disease?
anti-TPO (thyroid peroxidase)
109
what diseases does the 6 in 1 vaccination cover?
given at 8, 12, 16 weeks
```
diptheria
tetanus
pertussis
polio
Hib
Hep B
```
110
what are the components of the CHA2DS-VASc score?
```
Congestive HF
Hypertension
Age (>75 =2)
Diabetes
Stroke (or TIA or Thromboembolism)
Vascular disease
Age (65-74 = 1)
Sex category (F = 1)
```
111
what kind of pulse is there in AF?
irregularly irregular
112
what is a collapsing pulse indicative of?
aortic regurgitation
113
what is a pulsus paradox? what is it indicative of?
when BP drops significantly during inspiration
severe asthma, COPD, blood loss, cardiac conditions
114
what is radio radial delay? what is it indicative of?
pulse significantly stronger in one arm than the other
coarctation of the aorta
115
what is a slow rising narrow pulse pressure indicative of?
aortic stenosis
116
what kind of murmur does pulmonary stenosis produce?
ejection systolic murmur head loudest on inspiration
117
what are 3 signs on examination of someone with heart failure?
3rd and 4th heart sounds
displaced apex beat
murmurs and bibasal crackles
118
what letter does an R wave on an ECG look like?
M
119
what letter does a slurred S wave look like on an ECG?
W
120
what does the ECG look like in RBBB?
MaRRoW
lead V1 - R wave (looks like an M)
Lead V6 - Slurred S wave (looks like a W)
121
what does LBBB look like on an ECG?
WiLLiaM
lead V1 - Slurred S wave (looks like a W)
Lead V6 - R wave (looks like an M)
122
what is wide QRS and an abnormal pattern on an ECG indicative of?
complete heart Block
123
what are the 6 Ps of critical ischaemia?
```
Pain
Pallor
Paralysis
Paraesthesia
Perishingly cold
Pulseless
```
124
what are the 4 features of the tetralogy of fallout?
ventricular septal defect
pulmonary stenosis
RV hypertrophy
overriding aorta
125
what is stage 1 hypertension?
clinical - 140/90-160/100
| ambulatory - 135/85+
126
what is stage 2 hypertension?
clinical - 160/100-180/120
| ambulatory - 150/95+
127
what is stage 3 hypertension?
180/120+
128
what is xanthelasma?
cholesterol deposits around eyes due to hyperlipidaemia/liver disease
129
what is progressive difficulty swallowing from solids to liquids indicative of?
oesophageal malignancy
130
what is achalasia?
loss of oesophageal peristalsis and failure of the lower oesophageal sphincter to relax in response to swallowing
causes dysphagia to BOTH liquids and solids
131
can autoimmune gastritis cause peptic ulcers?
NO
132
what is sulfasalazine used to treat?
```
ulcerative colitis
rheumatoid arthritis (DMARD)
```
133
what is ranitidine?
a H2 antagonist - NOT FIRST LINE but can be used in GORD
134
what is the first line medication in GORD?
PPI - omeprazole
135
what is the 1st line investigation for bowel obstruction?
abdominal X-ray
136
what are the typical symptoms of duodenal ulcers?
cause pain several hours after eating, pain gets better when eating
137
what condition is smoking protective against?
Ulcerative colitis
138
what are 4 risk factors for oesophageal cancer?
achalasia
alcohol
obesity (GORD)
smoking
139
what is the gold standard investigation for bowel cancer?
colonoscopy
140
what is the 2nd line investigation for bowel cancer?
double contrast barium enema
141
where is most colon cancer found?
distal colon - can be detected by DRE
142
what is refectory coeliac disease?
coeliac disease where symptoms persist even after gluten free diet => treat with steroids (prednisolone)
143
what are 4 causes of diverticulum?
low fibre diet
obesity
NSAIDs
smoking
144
what is pANCA positive for?
ulcerative colitis
| NEGATIVE in chron's
145
what are 4 risk factors for CKD?
diabetes
FHx
old age
recurrent UTIs
146
what is a nucleic acid amplification test commonly used to test for?
chlamydia
147
what is the full name of the chlamydia bacteria?
Chlamydia trachomatis
148
what is another name for reactive arthritis?
Reiter's syndrome
149
what is Budd chairi syndrome?
hepatic vein stenosis
abdominal pain
ascites
hepatomegaly
150
what is Charcot's triad?
Acute cholangitis
fever
RUQ pain
jaundice
151
what is the inheritance pattern for haemophilia?
X-linked recessive
152
what is alport syndrome?
X-linked dominant kidney disease causing glomerular damage as well as hearing loss and eye problems
153
what are 4 complications of PKD?
CVD (due to hypertension)
kidney stones
polycystic liver diseasse
subarachnoid haemorrhage
154
what condition are reed-sternberg cells seen in?
Hodgkin's lymphoma
155
what do reed-sternberg cells look like?
they have mirror-image nuclei
156
what condition are auer rods seen in?
acute myeloid leukaemia - AML
157
what Protozoa causes sleeping sickness?
trypanosoma brucei gambiese
158
what are cats in pregnancy a risk factor for?
toxoplasma gondii
causes miscarriage, hydrocephalus, anencephaly
159
what is the gold standard treatment for thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura?
plasma exchange
160
what is thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura?
rare disorder causing thrombi to form in small blood vessels
161
what are the signs and symptoms of thrombotic thrombocytopenia purpura?
```
microangiopathic haemolytic anaemia
reduced platelets
AKI
neurological symptoms
fever
RBC fragments on film (schitocytes)
```
162
what is the treatment of DVT?
maintenance dose oral anticoagulant (opixiban/riveroxiban/warfarin)
163
what is FRAX?
10 year fracture probability score
164
what is the HAS-BLED score?
estimates risk of major bleed for anticoagulant use in those with AF
165
what are 3 short term effects of chemo?
neutropenia
alopecia
nausea and vomiting
166
what are 3 long term adverse effects of chemo?
infertility
secondary malignancies
cognitive problems
167
what is the management of venous thromboembolism in post-hip replacement patients?
dalteparin (LMWH) acutely then maintenance treatment with apixaban/riveroxaban/low dose aspirin
168
what is the name of the drug that increases foetal haemoglobin in the treatment of sickle cell disease?
hydroxycarbamide
169
what is hydroxycarbamide used to treat?
sickle cell disease
| increases foetal haemoglobin
170
what is the protein target of rituximab?
CD20 on B cells
171
what is rituximab used to treat?
non-hodgkin's lymphoma and chromic lymphocytic leukaemia
172
name 1 TNF-alpha inhibitor and what it's used to treat
adalimumab
| rheumatoid and psoriatic arthritis and ankylosing spondylitis
173
what is the 1st line treatment for severe malaria?
IV artesunate
174
what is the treatment of uncomplicated malaria?
oral chloroquine
175
is malaria a notifiable disease?
YES
176
what is hyperplasia?
increased size of a tissue due to increase in number of constituent cells
177
what is hypertrophy?
increase in size of tissue due to increase in size of constituent cells
178
what is metaplasia?
Change in differentiation of a cell from one fully differentiated type to a different
fully differentiated type
179
what is neoplasia?
persistent abnormal new growth
180
what is apoptosis?
decreased size of tissue due to programmed cell death
181
what are 7 constituents of atherosclerotic plaques?
```
connective tissue
foam cells - lipid laden macrophages
T lymphocytes
smooth muscles cells
cholesterol
lipid deposits
fragments of internal elastic lamina
```
182
what drug reverses a opiate overdose?
naloxone
183
what is given 1st line treatment of alcohol withdrawal?
chlordiazepoxide
184
what is the treatment for iron overdose?
desferroxamine
185
what is the treatment of benzodiazepine overdose?
flumezanil
186
what is the antidote to paracetamol?
N-acetyl cystine
187
what is dupuytren's contractures?
progressive shortening and thickening of palmar fascia causing finger contractures associated with liver failure and alcohol abuse
188
what is primary biliary cholangitis?
autoimmune condition which slowly damages the interlobular ducts in the liver causing raised ALP
189
what are 3 antibodies which are raises in SLE?
ANA
anti-dsDNA
antiphospholipid antibodies
190
what are the 10 causes of pancreatitis?
```
GET SMASHED
Gall stones
Ethanol
Trauma
Steroids
MUMPs
Autoimmune
Scorpion venom
Hyperlipidaemia/calcaemia
ERCP/emboli
Drugs
```
191
what is Wernicke's encephalopathy?
confusion, ataxia and ocular abnormalities caused by vitamin B1 (thiamine) deficiency in alcoholics
192
what is alendronic acid?
bisphosphonate
193
what is an adverse effect of bisphosphonates?
oesophagitis
194
what 2 drugs can precipitate gout?
methotrexate
| thiazide and loop diuretics
195
what is an adverse affect of sulphasalazine?
haemolytic anaemia
196
what is Sjogren's syndrome?
autoimmune destruction of exocrine glands often presenting with arthritis, dry eyes and mouth
197
what is the schirmer's test?
placing a small strip of paper in the eye to measure tear production in sjorgren's syndrome
198
what X-ray sign is seen in severe psoriatic arthritis?
pencil in cup sign
199
what are 2 risk factors for pseudogout?
parathyroidectomy (neck surgery)
| IV fluids
200
what is the T score range for osteopenia?
-1 to -2.5
201
what is the T score for osteoporosis?
< -2.5
202
what is optic neuritis? what condition is it seen in?
painful blurry vision seen in MS
203
what medication is the first line (in men/post-menopausal women) for generalised seizures?
sodium valproate
204
what treatment is first line for generalised seizures in women of childbearing age?
lamotrigine
205
what is the 1st line treatment for focal seizures?
carbamazepine
206
what kind of tremor is there in Parkinson's disease?
RESTING tremor
207
what are the 6 focal neurological signs seen in brain tumour?
DANISH
```
Dysdiadokinesis
Ataxia
Nystagmus
Intention tremor
slurred/staccato speech
hypotonia
```
208
what is the treatment for giant cell arteritis?
oral prednisolone
209
what are the clinical features of caudal equine?
unable to open bowels/urinate
reduced anal tone
safe anaesthesia
210
what class of drugs are used to treat myasthenia Gravis?
acetylcholinesterase inhibitors
211
how long do you have to give altplase in ischaemic strokes?
4.5 hours
212
what is the most common bacteria to cause pneumonia in COPD?
haemophilius influenzae
213
what are 2 adverse effects of SABAs?
fine tremor
| tachycardia
214
what is the most common lung cancer in non-smokers?
Adenocarcinoma
215
what is the most common lung cancer in smokers?
small cell lung carcinoma
216
what cancer is strongly associated with asbestos exposure?
mesothelioma
217
what layer of bowel is inflamed in UC?
mucosa
218
what are 3 histological signs seen in ulcerative colitis?
ulceration!!!
increased plasma cells in lamina propria
crypt distortion
219
what kind of bacteria causes meningococcal disease?
N. meningitidis
gram negative diplococci
220
what are 5 differentials for a treat lump?
```
breast carcinoma
cyst
fibroadenoma
lipoma
abscess
```
221
what is the 1st line treatment or breast cancer with HER2?
chemotherapy with trastuzumab (Herceptin)
222
what is the 2nd line treatment of HER2 breast cancer?
second line chemo
anti-oestrogen therapy
radiotherapy
223
what are 4 signs of parkinsons?
resting tremmor
bradykinesis
rigidity
start hesitation
224
what are 2 histological features of Parkinson's?
loss of dopaminergic neurones in substantial nigra
| Lewy bodies
225
can you see Parkinson's on CT?
NO
226
name a dopamine agonist?
cabergoline
227
what is anaemia?
low Hb concentration due to either reduced cell mass or increased plasma volume
228
what is the cause of CML?
translocation of a gene between chromosome 9 and chromosome 22 leading to a Philadelphia chromosome
229
what are 4 signs of tumour lysis syndrome?
hyperkalaemia
hyperuricemia
hyperphosphatemia
hypocalcaemia
230
what is the management of tumour lysis syndrome?
IV fluids
allopurinol - to decrease uric acid
dialysis
231
what are the 2 features required for febrile neutropenia diagnosis?
fever over 38 degrees c
| absolut neutrophil count <1
232
why does multiple myeloma cause bone loss?
myeloma leads to cytokines stimulating osteoclasts and inhibiting osteoblasts
233
what kind of drug is Rituximab? how does it work?
monoclonal antibody
| targets CD40 receptors on the surface of B cells
234
what if found in the urine of multiple myeloma patients?
Bence-Jones proteins
235
what is a histological sign of multiple myeloma and what does it look like?
rouleaux formation
stack of coins
236
where is folate absorbed?
jejunum
237
where is B12 absorbed?
ileum
238
what can trigger a vaso-occlusive crisis in sickle cell?
STRESS
dehydration, illness
239
what is the treatment of a vast-occlusive crisis?
treat underlying infection
keep warm
IV fluids
simple analgesia - paracetamol/ibuprofen
240
what are the 4 sickle cell disease crises?
vaso-occlusive
splenic sequestration
aplastic crisis
acute chest syndrome
241
what are the parasympathetic CNs?
10, 9, 7, 3
242
what is haemocromatosis?
a genetic disorder that causes the body to absorb an excessive amount of iron from the diet
243
what is the first line investigation for DVT?
Well's score
244
rupture of which artery most commonly causes SAH?
anterior communicating
245
what cancer is myasthenia gravis linked to?
thymomas
246
what chromosome is Huntington's on?
chromosome 4
247
what drug is first line in MND?
riluzole
248
what is pyridostigmine used to treat?
myasthenia gravis
| acetylcholinesterase inhibitor
249
what is the most common electrolyte deficiency in Addisons?
hyponatremia
250
what is the first line Pharma treatment for Grave's?
carbimazole - interrupts thyroid hormone production through inhibiting thyroid peroxidase
251
what is the treatment for an addisonian crisis?
IV hydrocortisone
252
what hormone negatively feeds back high GH?
somatostatin
253
what is the 1st line investigation for pheochromocytoma?
plasma metanephrines or 24 hour urine catecholamines
254
what kind of reaction if a type II hypersensitivity reaction?
autoimmune
255
which TLR is responsible for detecting flagellated bacteria?
TLR-5
F-lagella F-ive
256
what is secreted by virally infected cells as part of cell signalling?
interferon-alpha
257
when is TNF-alpha released?
in systemic inflammation
258
what infection is the most common presentation of AIDs?
pneumocystis jirovecii
259
what is the most common cause of travellers diarrhoea?
ETEC
260
what is the treatment for travellers diarrhoea?
Quinolones
261
what are stag horn colliculi made of?
ammonium sulphate
262
what is the most common cause of diarrhoea in HIV?
cryptosporidium
263
what are 2 symptoms of inflammatory diarrhoea?
blood in stool
| tenesmus
264
what are the red flags of diarrhoea?
```
abdominal mass
FHx
anawmia
unintentional weight loss
60+
change in bowel habit
```
265
what is radiological sign of small bowel obstruction?
dilated jejunum
| absence of gas in bowel distal to obstruction
266
what is a complication of small bowel obstruction?
bowel ischemia/strangulation
267
what are 3 differentials for gastritis?
peptic ulcer
GORD
gastric cancer - carcinoma/lymphoma
268
what are the two types of haemorrhoids?
internal and external
269
what is the treatment of haemorrhoids?
non-surgical - stool softener, high fibre diet, hydration, topical analgesia, topical hydrocortisone
surgical - band ligation, haemorrhoidectomy
270
what are 4 types of hernia?
femoral
inguinal - direct/indirect
umbilical
incisional
271
what are 7 side effects of steroids?
```
thin skin
osteoporosis
immunosuppression
weight gain
hypercalcaemia
stunted growth - kids
oedema
```
272
what is Reynolds pentad?
for ascending cholangitis
```
Jaundice
RUQ pain
fever
confusion
low BP
```
273
what enzyme is secreted in hepatocellular carcinoma?
alpha-fetoprotein
274
what cancer is CA 19-9 a marker for?
pancreatic cancer
275
what cancer is lactate dehydrogenase a marker for?
testicular cancer
276
what are the risk factors for osteoporosis?
SHATTERED
```
Steroids
Hyperthyroidism/para/claciuria
Alcohol and tobacco
Thin
Testosterone Low
Early menopause (<45)
Renal/liver failure
Errosive/inflammatory bone disease
dietary calcium low/malabsorption
```
277
what is the gold standard for portal hypertension?
hepatic venous pressure gradient
278
what immunoglobulin is a pentanemer?
IgM
279
what is the karyotype in turners syndrome?
45 XO
280
what is the karyotype for klinefelters syndrome?
47XXY
281
which measurement gives information into the function of the intrinsic pathway?
aPTT
282
which measurement gives insight into the functioning of the extrinsic and common pathways?
PT/INR
283
what diuretic can cause under excretion of urate?
thiazide diuretics
284
what classes as white coat syndrome?
change in BP 20/10 or higher between average daytime and clinical BP
285
what is the 1st line investigation for renal cell carcinoma?
CT urogram
286
what is phenoxybenzamine used to treat?
phaeochromacytoma
287
what is the treatment for bacterial tonsillitis?
phenocymethylpenicillin 4x a day for 10 days
288
what is the treatment for alcohol withdraw?
clordiazepoxide
289
what is a treatment that a GP can give for meningococcal septicaemia?
IM benzylpenicillin
