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Phase 2A :!: > Haematology > Flashcards

Haematology Flashcards

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1
Q

What is acute lymphoblastic leukaemia?

A

malignant clonal proliferation of lymphoblastic cells (most commonly B cells)

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2
Q

What is the most common childhood cancer?

A

ALL

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3
Q

what age range is ALL most common in ?

A

<20 => children

bimodal age peaks - 4-5 year and 50+

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4
Q

What are 4 risk factors for ALL?

A

Age (child, 50+)
genetics
Hx of malignancy
Down’s (AML more common)

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5
Q

what is the pathophysiology of ALL?

A

Genetic mutations => uncontrolled proliferation and clonal expansion of lymphoid progenitor cells => leukemic blasts infiltrate the bone marrow and other organs, which disrupts their normal function.
CNS involvement common

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6
Q

What are 6 manifestations of ALL?

A 
lymphadenopathy 
hepatosplenomegally
fever, fatigue, pallor
dizziness, palpitations, SOB
bleeding - anaemia, infection, epistaxis, bruising, petechia
bone/abdo pain
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7
Q

what are 3 investigations for ALL?

A

FBC with differential - anaemia, leukocytosis, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia

Peripheral blood smear - leukaemia lymphoblasts

immunophenotyping

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8
Q

what is the gold standard investigation for ALL/AML?

A

bone marrow aspiration and biopsy

>20% lymphoblasts/myeloblasts in bone marrow is diagnostic

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9
Q

what are 3 differentials for Leukaemias?

A

meningococcal septicaemia
idiopathic thrombocytopenia purpura
vasculitis

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10
Q

what is the treatment for ALL?

A

Chemo - vincristine + corticosteroids
imatinib - if Philadelphia +ve
mercaptopurine + methotrexate => 2 years maintenance

bone marrow transplant

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11
Q

What are 3 complications of ALL?

A

stunted growth and development in children
tumour lysis syndrome
infertility

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12
Q

What is acute myeloid leukaemia?

A

the clonal expansion of myeloid blasts in the bone marrow, peripheral blood, or extramedullary tissues.

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13
Q

what age group is AML more common in?

A

anywhere about 45 - most common 65+

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14
Q

what are 5 risk factors for AML?

A 
65+
previous chemo/radiation
Down's syndrome
benzene - painters, petroleum, rubber
myelodysplastic/proliferative syndromes
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15
Q

what is the pathophysiology of AML?

A

Accumulation of myeloid blasts unable to differentiate into mature neutrophils, RBCs or platelets resulting in bone marrow failure

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16
Q

what are 6 presentations of AML?

A 
pallor 
bruising (ecchymoses + petechia) and bleeding
infections 
lymphadenopathy 
hepatosplenomegaly 
fatigue, dizziness, palpitations
bone/abdo pain
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17
Q

what are 3 investigations of AML?

A

FBC with differential - anaemia, macrocytosis, leukocytosis, neutropenia, thrombocytopenia

peripheral blood smear - blasts, Auer rods

coagulation pannel - may be normal, if abnormal suspect DIC

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18
Q

what is the treatment of AML?

A

Chemo - cytarabine and an anthracycline (tretinoin)
All-trans retinoid acid

stem cell transplant

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19
Q

what are 3 complications of AML?

A

tumour lysis syndrome
Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
infection

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20
Q

what is the prognosis for AML?

A

high incidence of relapse

5 year survival - 25%

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21
Q

what is reticulocyte count?

A

measure of immature RBCs

shows if production or removal is cause of anaemia

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22
Q

What are 5 causes of microcytic anaemia?

A

TAILS

Thalassaemia 
Anaemia of chronic disease
Iron deficiency
Lead Poisoning 
Sideroblastic anaemia
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23
Q

what are 5 causes of normocytic anaemia?

A

AAAHH

Acute blood loss
Anaemia of chronic disease
Aplastic anaemia - CKD, bone marrow suppression
Haemolytic anaemia
Hypothyroidism
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24
Q

what are 7 causes of macrocytic anaemias?

A

Megaloblastic:
B12/folate deficiency

Normoblastic: 
alcohol 
reticulocytosis - haemolytic anaemia/blood loss
Hypothyroidism 
liver disease
drugs
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25
what are 5 symptoms of anaemia?
often asymptomatic ``` fatigue/faintness headache, confusion SOB angina/palpitations/claudication Pica - abnormal cravings ```
26
where is B12 found?
``` Meat fish dairy eggs NO PLANTS ```
27
how long do B12 stores last?
4 years
28
what are 3 causes of B12 deficiency anaemia?
diet malabsorption pernicious anaemia (most common)
29
How is B12 absorbed?
combines with intrinsic factor secreted from parietal cells in stomach and absorbed in terminal ileum
30
why is B12 necessary?
needed for DNA and thymine synthesis
31
what is pernicious anaemia?
autoimmune destruction of parietal cells leading to B12 deficiency anaemia
32
what are 3 risk factors for B12 anaemia?
vegan history of GI surgery H.pylori infection
33
What are 4 manifestations of B12 anaemia?
insidious onset of anaemia symptoms decreased vibration sense glossitis psychiatric problems/cognitive impairment
34
what are 3 differentials for B12 anaemia?
B9 deficiency myelodysplatic syndrome alcoholic liver disease
35
what is the treatment for B12 anaemia?
oral cyanocobalamin IV hydroxocobalamin FOLIC ACID
36
what are 3 complications of B12 anaemia?
neurological deficits haematological deficits gastric cancer
37
What is chronic lymphocytic leukaemia?
a malignant monoclonal proliferation of B lymphocytes
38
what is the most common leukaemia?
CLL
39
what are 3 risk factors for CLL?
70+ male FHx
40
what are 6 manifestations of CLL?
often asymptomatic ``` SOB + fatigue lymphadenopathy hepatosplenomegally B symptoms recurrent infections easy bruising and bleeding ```
41
what are B symptoms?
``` fever chills night sweats weight loss fatigue ```
42
What are 4 investigations for CLL?
FBC - lymphocytosis Blood film - smudge cells, spherocytes and polychromasia immunophenotyping
43
what are 3 treatment options for CLL?
monitoring - early stage chemo - FCR, chlorambucil and rituxibam stem cell transplant
44
what are 3 complications of CLL?
``` Richter transformation (to non-hodgkins lymphoma) tumour lysis syndrome autoimmune haemolytic anaemia ```
45
what is the rule of 3s in CLL?
1/3 don't progress 1/3 progress slowly 1/3 progress actively
46
what is chronic myeloid leukaemia?
the malignant proliferation of partially mature myeloid cells (especially granulocytes) in bone marrow and blood
47
what gene is related to CML??
the Philadelphia gene | BCR-ABL fusion gene
48
what leukaemia is the Philadelphia gene related to? and what percentage have it?
CML | 80%
49
when is the peak incidence of CML?
65-75 | almost exclusively in adults
50
what is a known risk factor for CML?
ionising radiation
51
what are 7 presentations of CML?
``` hepatosplenomegaly SOB easy bruising and bleeding - epistaxis bone pain - sternum pallor and pyrexia recurrent infections B symptoms ``` also may be symptoms of gout due to purine breakdown
52
what are 3 investigations for CML?
FBC - elevates WBCs, anaemia, normal platelets, thrombocytosis/thrombocytopenia peripheral blood smear - mature/maturing myeloid cells, elevated basophils and eosinophils bone marrow biopsy - granulocytic hyperplasia
53
what is the gold standard for CML?
presence of Philadelphia chromosome - cytogenetics/FISH
54
what is the treatment for CML?
tyrosine kinase inhibitors - imatinib!! chemo + stem cell transplant if refractory
55
what are 3 complications of CML?
Gout Tumour lysis syndrome blast crisis
56
what is the prognosis for CML?
75% 5 year survival
57
what is Virchow's triad?
blood constituents blood flow endothelial injury
58
What are 5 risk factors for DVT?
``` bedridden airplane active cancer pregnancy trauma/surgery ```
59
where are DVTs most likely to embolism to lungs from?
ABOVE knee
60
what are 5 manifestations of DVT?
``` calf swelling (unilateral) localised deep leg pain redness and warmth/coolness asymmetrical oedema cyanosis ```
61
what are 2 blood tests for DVT?
D dimmer - elevated (tests for protein fragments in blood) | FBC/U+E/LFTs
62
what is the gold standard for DVT?
venous ultrasound - duplex ultrasonography
63
what are 3 differentials for DVT?
cellulitis calf muscle/achillies tear calf muscle haematoma
64
what is he treatment for DVT?
1st - apixiban (no renal probs) OR LMWH and warfarin physical activity compression stocking
65
what are 3 complications of DVT?
pulmonary embolism anticoagulant induced bleeding embolic stroke
66
what is folate (B9) present in?
``` green vegetables legumes some fruits yeast liver nuts ```
67
how long do folate stores last?
4 months
68
where in folate absorbed?
proximal jejunum/duodenum
69
what are 4 risk factors for folate deficiency?
elderly/young poverty chron's/coeliac pregnant
70
what is folate needed for?
DNA synthesis and repair
71
what are 5 manifestations of folate deficiency?
may be asymptomatic ``` anaemia symptoms tachycardia signs of heart failure glossitis/painful swallow prolonged diarrhoea ```
72
What is the management of folate deficiency anaemia?
oral folic acid + B12 ALWAYS
73
what are 3 differentials of folate deficiency?
B12 deficiency hypothyroidism alcoholic liver disease
74
what are 2 complications of folate deficiency?
``` pregnancy complications (neural tube defects, spina bifida) heart conditions ```
75
what is G6PD?
X-linked condition causing haemolytic anaemia due to susceptibility to free radicals common in Kurdish jews and sub-saharan Africa
76
what are 5 causes of haemolytic anaemia?
``` RBC membrane defects (spherocytosis) enzyme defects (G6PD) haemoglobinopathies (thalassaemia, sickle cell) autoimmune infection/trauma ```
77
what are 4 risk factors for haemolytic anaemia?
autoimmune disorders FHx drugs prosthetic heart valves
78
what are 4 manifestations of haemolytic anaemia?
pallor, fatigue, dizzy, SOB jaundice dark urine splenomegaly
79
what is the gold standard for haemolytic anaemia?
``` Coombs test (direct antiglobulin test - for autoimmune peripheral smear ```
80
what are 3 differentials for haemolytic anaemia?
blood loss anaemia underproduction anaemia transfusion reaction
81
what is the treatment for haemolytic anaemia?
``` corticosteroids stop causative drugs splenectomy plasma exchange anticoagulation avoidance of triggers ```
82
What is Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Uncommon haematological malignancy arising from mature B cells (lymphocytes) Characterised by the presence of Hodgkin's cells and Reed-Sternberg cells.
83
what are 4 risk factors for Hodgkin's lymphoma?
EBV infection FHx Bimodal age - 15-35 and 60+ autoimmune conditions
84
what are 7 manifestations of Hodgkin's lymphoma?
``` lymphadenopathy hepatosplenomegally (less common than in NHL) B symptoms dyspnoea Pel-Ebstein fever - intermittent pruritus Alcohol induced lymph node pain ```
85
what are 3 investigations for Hodgkin's lymphoma?
FBC with differential - low Hb, high/low WBCs Lactate dehydrogenase - elevated immunophenotyping
86
what is the gold standard for Hodgkin's lymphoma?
exicisional lymph node biopsy
87
what are 3 differentials for Hodgkin's lymphoma?
non-hodgkin's lymphadenopathy from other malignancy infectious mononucleosis
88
what is the treatment for Hodgkin's lymphoma?
chemo - ABVD (Adriamyacin, Bleomycin, Vinblastine, Dacarbazine) radiotherapy Rituximab marrow transplant
89
what are 3 complications for Hodgkin's lymphoma?
radiotherapy related thyroid abnormalities chemo related cardio disease pulmonary toxicity
90
what staging is used in Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Ann Arbor classification
91
what are the Ann Arbor classification stages?
``` I - single lymph node II - 2+ lymph nodes one side of diaphragm III - nodes on both sides of diaphragm IV - spread beyond lymph nodes A/B => presence of B symptoms or not ```
92
what is the most common type of anaemia?
iron deficiency
93
what percentage of menstruating women have iron deficiency anaemia?
14%
94
what are 4 causes of iron deficiency?
low dietary iron impaired absorption (coeliac) increased iron loss (bleeding) increased iron required (children, pregnant, lactating)
95
what are 6 risk factors for Iron deficiency anaemia?
``` pregnancy veggie/vegan diet mennhoragia hook worms CKD gasterectomy/NSAIDs ```
96
what are 6 manifestations of iron deficiency anaemia?
``` anaemia symtoms restless leg syndrome nail changes - thin, flat, spoon dysphagia/dyspepsia glossitis heart failure ```
97
where is iron absorbed?
duodenum
98
what are 5 causes of microcytic anaemia?
TAILS ``` Thallasaemia Anaemia of chronic disease Iron deficiency Lead poisoning Sideroblastic anaemia ```
99
what is the treatment of iron deficiency anaemia?
oral iron replacement - ferrous sulphate absorbic acid IV iron RBC replacement
100
what are 3 complications of iron deficiency anaemia?
cognitive impairment impaired muscular performance high output heart failure
101
what is the top cause of iron deficiency worldwide?
hook worms
102
what is malaria?
a parasitic infection caused by protozoa of the genus Plasmodium which is transmitted to humans by the bite of an anopheles mosquito.
103
what plasmid of malaria causes the most deaths?
Plasmodium falciparum
104
what are 6 manifestations of malaria infection?
``` fever and headache myalgia/weakness seizures jaundice/pallor/anaemia hepatosplenomegaly influenza like resp symptoms ```
105
what are 4 investigations for malaria?
Giemsa stain blood film - gold FBC, U+E, LFTs rapid diagnostic test thin and thick blood smear
106
what are 3 differentials for malaria?
Dengue fever (headache, retrobulbar pain worsening with eye movement) Zika virus Yellow fever
107
what is the management of uncomplicated malaria?
arthemether + lumefantrine malarone quinine sulphate doxycycline
108
what are 3 complications of malaria?
AKI cerebral malaria severe haemolytic anaemia
109
what is multiple myeloma?
cancer of differentiated B lymphocytes (plasma cells)
110
what are 5 risk factors for multiple myeloma?
``` MGUS - monoclonal gamopathy of undetermined significance Increasing age FHx radiation/petroleum exposure Black African ```
111
what is the most common Ig produced in multiple myeloma?
IgG - 55%
112
what are 6 manifestation of multiple myeloma?
Old CRAB - Age 65+ - Calcium - high - Renal failure - Anaemia - Bone pain infections fatigue
113
what are 3 investigations for multiple myeloma?
urine electrophoresis serum electrophoresis bone marrow aspirate and biopsy >10%
114
what is the gold standard for multiple myeloma?
serum and urine protein electrophoresis | bone marrow examination and imaging
115
what are 3 differentials for multiple myeloma?
MGUS smoldering myeloma amyloidosis
116
what is the treatment for multiple myeloma?
chemo - bortezomib + dexamethasone/prednisolone (70+) bone marrow transplant bisphosphonates - zoledronate
117
what are 3 complications of multiple myeloma?
recurrent infections Al amyloidosis pathological fractures
118
is multiple myeloma curable?
NO | - relapse in 2-5 years
119
what is non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?
Malignant proliferations of lymphocytes without reed-Sternberg cells
120
What are 5 risk factors for non-Hodgkin's lymphoma?
``` FHx 50+ male EBV/HHV-8 autoimmune disease ```
121
are non-hodgkin's lymphomas more commonly of T or B cell origin?
B cell - 80% | T cell - 20%
122
what are 6 presentations of non-hodgkin's?
``` B symtoms lymphadenopathy hepato/splenomegaly chest/bone/back pain SOB/cough neuronal abnormalities - weakness in legs ```
123
what are 3 investigations of nom-hodgkin's lymphoma?
FBC with differential - thrombocytopenia, pancytopenia, lymphocytosis blood smear excision lymph node biopsy
124
what are 3 differentials for non-hodgkin's lymphoma?
Hodgkin's lymphoma ALL infectious mononucleosis
125
what is the management of non-hodgkin's lymphoma?
chemo radiotherapy rituximab stem cell transplant
126
what are 3 complications of non-hodgkin's lymphoma?
impaired immunity myelosuppresion and neutropenic sepsis tumour lysis syndrome
127
what is Polycythaemia vera?
a malignant clonal proliferation of erythrocytes
128
what genetic mutation if associated with Polycythaemia vera?
JAK2 V617F
129
what are 6 presentations of Polycythaemia vera?
``` splenomegaly conjunctival prethora hypertension headache, fatigue, dizziness pruritus erythromelalgia (red painful palms and soles) ```
130
what are 4 investigations of Polycythaemia vera?
FBC - elevated Hb + haematocrit U+E +LFTS EPO - distinguish primary from secondary JAK2 mutation
131
what are 3 differentials for Polycythaemia vera?
CML essential thrombocythaemia congenital Polycythaemia
132
what are 4 treatments of Polycythaemia vera?
venesection hydroxycarbamide aspirin ruxolitinib
133
what is pulmonary embolism?
a life-threatening condition due to dislodged thrombi occluding the pulmonary vasculature
134
what percentage of DVTs embolize?
51%
135
what are 5 risk factors for PE?
``` age DVT obesity surgery malignancy ```
136
what are 6 presentations of PE?
``` dyspnoea pleuritic chest pain hyperaemia signs of DVT fever and cough haemoptysis ```
137
what are 3 investigations for PE?
CT pulmonary angiography - gold ECHO d-dimmer
138
what are 3 differentials for PE?
unstable angina MI pneumonia
139
what is the management of PE?
anticoagulation - apixiban (1) or LMWH (2) thrombolysis
140
what are 3 complications of PE?
acute bleeding during treatment pulmonary infarction cardiac arrest/death
141
what is sickle cell anaemia?
a disease of red blood cells caused by an autosomal recessive single gene defect in the beta chain of haemoglobin, which results in production of sickle cell haemoglobin (HbS) which can obstruct blood flow and break down prematurely
142
what triggers sickling in sickle cell disease?
hypoxia, acidosis, dehydration, cold temperatures, extreme exercise, stress, and infections can precipitate sickling
143
when does sickle cell disease manifest and why?
6 months | before that point there is foetal haemoglobin
144
what is foetal haemoglobin made up of?
2 alpha chains and 2 gamma chains
145
what are 6 presentations of sickle cell?
``` parent with sickle cell/trait persistent skeletal pain (chest, abdomen) dactylitis high temperature pneumonia like syndrome failure to thrive ```
146
what are 3 investigations for sickle cell?
blood film Hb isoelectric focusing peripheral blood smear Newborn Guthrie heel prick test (5 days)
147
what are 3 differentials of sickle cell?
gout septic arthritis connective tissue disorders
148
what is the management of sickle cell?
``` analgesia oral hydroxycarbamide (increase foetal haem) blood transfusion stem cell transplant antibiotics and antihistamine ```
149
what is acute chest syndrome?
complication of sickle cell - chest pain, cough, SOB, fever, hypoxia (low oxygen level) and lung infiltrates
150
what are 3 complications of sickle cell?
anaemia opioid dependance iron overload (chronic transfusion)
151
what is deltaparin and how does it work?
anticoagulant | inhibits factor Xa and thrombin by antithrombin
152
what is riveroxiban and how does it work?
DOAC anticoagulant | factor Xa inhibitor
153
what is warfarin's MOA?
competitively inhibits vitamin K epoxide reductase
154
what are the vitamin K dependant clotting factors?
X, IX, VII, II - 1972
155
what is heparin's MOA?
binds to antithrombin III which then inactivates factors Xa and IIa (thrombin)
156
can warfarin be used in pregnancy?
no it's teratogenic
157
what is the name of the histological feature that appears like stacked coins?
Rouleaux formation
158
what disease do you see rouleaux formation in?
multiple myeloma stacked coin appearance of RBCs due to high levels of immunoglobulins causing cells to stick together
159
what are 5 generic signs of anaemia?
``` pale skin and conjunctiva tachycardia bounding pulse raised resp rate postural hypotension ```
160
what are 4 signs of iron deficiency anaemia?
koilonychia - spoon shaped nails angular chelitis atrophic glossitis Brittle hair and nails
161
what is a sign of haemolytic anaemias?
jaundice
162
what is a sign of thalassaemia?
bone deformities
163
what are 3 signs of CKD anaemia?
oedema hypertension excoriations on skin
164
what are 8 investigations for anaemia?
``` FBC - Hb and MCV Blood film Reticulocyte count Ferritin B12 and folate Bilirubin - up in haemolysis Direct Coombs test - autoimmune haemolytic Haemoglobin electrophoresis ```
165
what are the 4 iron studies?
serum iron serum ferritin total iron binding capacity (increased in anaemia) transferrin saturation
166
what is the inheritance pattern of hereditary spherocytosis?
majority autosomal dominant
167
what is the management of hereditary spherocytosis?
phototherapy or exchange transfusion - neonates with jaundice folic acid supplementation Splenectomy phenoxymethylpenicillin
168
what are 3 complications of hereditary spherocytosis?
gallstones aplastic crisis bone marrow expansion
169
what are 4 precipitators of G6PD deficiency?
Fava beans soy red wine infections
170
what does the urine look like in G6PD deficiency?
tea coloured
171
what is aplastic anaemia?
stem cell disorder characterised by pancytopenia
172
what are 4 causes of aplastic anaemia?
radiation and toxins drugs infections fanconi's anaemia
173
what condition are Howell-jolly bodies seen in?
Sickle cell
174
what is a histological sign go sickle cell disease?
Howell-jolly bodies
175
what is the most common cause of osteomyelitis in sickle cell crisis?
salmonella
176
what are the components of the wells score?
``` active cancer bedridden/major surgery calf welling >3cm superficial veins present entire leg swollen tenderness along veins pitting oedema of one leg immobility of affected leg previous DVT ``` alternative diagnosis likely? => -2
177
what do Reed-Sternberg cells look like?
owl eye nuclei
178
what is found in the urine in multiple myeloma?
bench-jones proteins - Ig light chains
179
what is found on the serum electrophoresis in multiple myeloma?
monoclonal paraprotein band
180
what is the treatment of severe malaria?
Artemisinin combination therapy (ACT) | quinine
181
what is the inheritance pattern for haemophilia?
X-linked recessive
182
which factor is there a deficiency in in haemophilia A?
VIII
183
which factor is there a deficiency in in haemophilia B?
IX
184
what are 3 aquired causes of haemophilia?
liver failure vitamin K deficiency autoimmunity against clotting factors
185
what are 6 clinical manifestations of haemophilia?
``` abnormal bleeding excessive bleeding easy bruising spontaneous haemorrhage haematomas joint pain ```
186
what are 2 differentials for haemophilia?
Von Willebrand disease | platelet dysfunctions
187
what is the management for haemophilia?
avoid contact sport IV infusion of clotting factor desmopressin antifibronolytics
188
what are 2 complications of haemophilia?
bleeds into brain | haemarthrosis
189
what chromosome codes for von willebrand factor?
chromosome 12
190
what does von willebrand factor do?
attaches to collagen fibres allowing platelets to adhere
191
what is the most common bleeding disorder?
Von Willebrand disease
192
what is disseminated intravascular coagulation?
an acquired syndrome characterised by activation of coagulation pathways resulting in intravascular thrombi and depletion of platelets and coagulation factors
193
what are 5 manifestations of DIC?
``` shock bleeding confusion bruising thrombotic events ```
194
what is the treatment of DIC?
platelet transfusion fresh frozen plasma RBC transfusion
195
what is thalassaemia
autosomal recessive haemoglobinopathy which causes microcytic anaemia
196
what demographic is alpha thalassaemia most common in?
asian and African descent
197
what demographic is beta thalassaemia most common in?
SE asian, Mediterranean and Middle Eastern descent
198
what can be given to thalassaemia patients to prevent iron overload?
deferoxamine
199
what can reverse heparin overdose?
protamine sulphate
200
what is the antidote to warfarin?
vitamin K1
201
What is the Philadelphia chromosome?
Translocation of a part of chromosome 9 to chromosome 22
202
what is immune thrombocytopenia purpura?
a blood disorder characterized by a decrease in the number of platelets in the blood. bleeding, recent Hx of infection/immunisation, autoimmune disorders
203
what is the management of immune thrombocytopenia purpura?
1 - corticosteroids (prednisolone) and IV IgG 2 - splenectomy, immunosuppreion (azathioprine)
204
is primaquine safe in pregnancy?
NO
205
what is the most common chromosome abnormality in myeloma?
t(11;14)
206
what is given as tumour lysis prophylaxis in AML?
allopurinol
207
what electrolyte imbalanced does tumour lysis syndrome cause?
hyperkalemia, hypocalcemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hyperuricemia.
208
what are the histological signs of G6PD?
bite cells Heinz bodies reticulocytes
209
what antibiotic is contraindicated in G6PD?
trimethoprim
210
what are the 6 Ps of critical ischaemia?
``` pale pulseless perishingly cold painful parasethesis paralysis ```
211
what is Disseminated intravascular coagulation?
n acquired syndrome characterised by activation of coagulation pathways, resulting in formation of intravascular thrombi and depletion of platelets and coagulation factors.
212
what is the sepsis 6?
Give: Fluids, Broad spectrum Abx, Administer O2 if required Take: Bloods, Urine Output, Lactate levels
213
What leukaemia is tumour lysis syndrome most common in?
AML
214
what cells are seen in CLL?
smudge cells
215
what cells are seen in AML?
Auer rods
216
what cells are seen in ALL?
blast cells
217
what is antiphospholipid syndrome?
autoimmune disease that causes blood to be hypercoagulable. increases risk of PE, DVT, Stroke, MI and MISCARRIAGE
218
what antibodies cause antiphospholipid syndrome?
antiphospholipid antibodies

Phase 2A :!: (14 decks)

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