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1
Q

what is acute cystitis?

A

Infection of urinary bladder

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2
Q

what is the most common infection?

A

Cystitis

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3
Q

what are the top 3 causative organisms for cystitis?

A

E.Coli - most common
Staph saprophyticus
Klebsiella pneumoniae

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4
Q

what are 3 risk factors for cystitis?

A

frequent sexual intercourse
Diabetes
congenital abnormalities

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5
Q

what are 5 manifestations of cystitis?

A 
Frequency
urgency 
dysuria (painful pee)
suprapubic pain
changes in urine appearance
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6
Q

what are 3 investigations for cystitis?

A

Urinalysis dipstick - +++ leukocyte/nitrates and Hb
Urine microscopy, culture and sensitivity - RBCs, WBCs, bacteria - GOLD
Bladder ultrasound

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7
Q

what are 3 differentials for cystitis?

A

pyelonephritis
urethritis
chlamydia urethritis

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8
Q

what is the management for cystitis?

A

1st - nitrofurantoin/trimethoprim - 3 days in uncomplicated and 7 in complicated

DO NOT GIVE TRIMETHOPRIM IN PREGNANCY OR G6PD DEFICIENCY

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9
Q

what are 3 complications of cystitis?

A

pyelonephritis
renal failure
urosepsis

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10
Q

what is acute kidney injury?

A

an acute decline in kidney function, leading to a rise in serum creatinine and/or a fall in urine output

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11
Q

What is the KDIGO criteria for AKI?

A

increase in urine creatinine by
>26.5 micro mol/L in 48 hours

Increase in serum creatinine to >1.5x baseline in prior 7 days

urine volume <0.5ml/Kg/hour for 6 hours

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12
Q

what are the 3 different broad category causes of AKI?

A

Pre-renal
Renal
Post-renal

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13
Q

what are pre-renal causes of AKI?

A 
Caused by renal  hypoperfusion
e.g.
hypotension
hypovolaemia 
Hypoalbuminaemia

most common cause AKI

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14
Q

what are renal causes of AKI?

A 
caused by damage to kidneys themselves 
e.g.
atubular necrosis 
renal artery stenosis
glomerular problems
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15
Q

what are post-renal causes of AKI?

A 
caused by renal outflow obstruction 
e.g.
kidney stones
malignancy
strictures
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16
Q

What are 3 risk factors for AKI?

A

Age >65
underlying CKD
Diabetes Melitus

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17
Q

What are 5 clinical manifestations of AKI?

A 
Hypo/hypertension
Kidney insult
Reduced urine production
LUTS
symptoms of volume overload/pulmonary oedema
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18
Q

What are 3 investigations for AKI?

A

basic metabolic profile - U+E+C, LFTs
serum potassium - may be elevated
FBC - signs of infection, low platelets, anaemia

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19
Q

what are 3 differentials for AKI?

A

CKD
increased muscle mass
drug side affects

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20
Q

what is the management of AKI?

A 
balance fluids (depending on in hyper/hypovolaemic)
if obstructive - insert catheter
STOP nephrotoxic drugs
treat metabolic acidosis
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21
Q

what are 3 complications of AKI?

A

metabolic acidosis
uraemia - encephalopathy and pericarditis
hyperkalaemia

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22
Q

What are 6 voiding LUTS?

A 
weak stream
splitting or spraying, intermittency
hesitancy
straining
Terminal dribbling 
incomplete emptying
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23
Q

What are 6 storage LUTS?

A 
Frequency 
Urgency
Nocturia 
Urge incontinence 
stress incontinence
leaking
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24
Q

what are 3 risk factors for BPE?

A

50+
FHx
obesity

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25
what are 3 manifestations of BPE?
Voiding LUTS urinary retention - requires catheterisation, usually painful enlarged bladder
26
what are 4 investigation of BPE?
Urinalysis - normal if uncomplicated PSA - may be present International prostate symptom score DRE - smooth, enlarged, non-tender
27
what are 3 differentials for BPE?
UTI prostatitis prostate cancer
28
what 3 pharmacological managements of BPE?
alpha blocker - oral tamsulosin (for symptoms) 5-alpha reductase inhibitor - oral finasteride (for disease) phosphodiesterase-5 inhibitor
29
What are 3 surgical managements of BPE?
transurethral resection of prostate - gold transurethral incision of prostate prostatectomy
30
what are 3 complications of BPE?
urinary retention UTIs bladder stones
31
What hormone does the prostate secrete?
Dihydrotestosterone
32
What is the most common type of bladder cancer?
90% transitional cell (urothelial) carcinoma
33
what kind of cancer does schistosomiasis cause?
bladder cancer - squamous cell carcinoma usually | common in Egypt
34
what are 5 risk factors for bladder cancer?
``` smoking working in the dye/rubber/textile industries - aromatic amines painters and hairdressers male aluminium, coal and roofing ```
35
what are 4 clinical manifestations of bladder cancer?
painless haematuria - 85% LUTS - urgency, nocturia, frequency recurrent UTIs suprapubic masses
36
what are 3 investigations for bladder cancer?
flexible cystoscopy + biopsy - GOLD bloods - FBC (anaemia), U+E, LFTs
37
what are 3 differentials for bladder cancer?
BPH renal stones haemorrhage cystitis
38
what is the management for non-muscle invasive bladder cancer?
Transurethral resection of bladder tumour + mitomycin C (chemo)
39
what is cancer grading?
histological - how differentiated from original tissue is it?
40
what is cancer staging?
size and metastasis?
41
What is CKD?
abnormalities of kidney structure or function, present for ≥3 months, with implications for health
42
what is the GFR value for CKD?
<60 ml/min/1.73 m2
43
what are 3 common causes of CKD?
DM - 1/3rd of people with DM hypertension cystic disorders of kidney
44
what are 3 risk factors for CKD?
DM glomerulonephritis smoking
45
What are 5 manifestations of CKD?
asymptomatic in early stages ``` oedema nausea +/- vomiting foamy/cola coloured urine SOB and fatigue muscle cramps and arthralgia ```
46
what are 3 investigations for CKD?
U+E+C - elevated creatinine and abnormal electrolytes - eGFR, severity of CKD urine albumin:creatinine ratio - >3mg/mol = proteinuria Urinalysis - haematuria/ proteinuria
47
what are 3 differentials for CKD?
diabetic kidney disease hypertension nephrosclerosis nephrotic syndromes
48
what is the management for CKD?
Lifestyle advice - smoking, exercise, nephrotoxins, low salt and potassium diet anti-hypertensives ACEi (ramipril)/ARBs (losartan), Ca-channel blockers Diabetic control dialysis kidney transplant
49
what are 3 complications of CKD?
anaemia - normochromic, normocytic CKD metabolic bone disease cardiovascular disease - leading cause of death
50
what percentage of CO do the kidneys receive?
25% | - 1000 ml/min
51
What is an epididymal cyst?
smooth, extratesticular spherical cyst in head of epididymus
52
what do epididymal cysts look like?
Contain clear and milky (spermatocele) fluid - translumate Lie above and behind the testis testis palpable and separate from cyst
53
what are 3 differentials for epididymal cyst?
spermatocele hydrocele varicocele
54
what is nephrotic syndrome?
the presence of proteinuria, hypoalbuminaemia, and peripheral oedema often caused by sclerosis of the podocytes
55
what are the 4 different nephrotic syndromes?
minimal change disease focal segmental glomerulosclerosis membranous nephropathy Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis
56
what are the 5 features of nephrotic syndromes?
1. Proteinuria (> 3.5 g/day) 2. Hypoalbuminemia(< 30 g/L) which leads to oedema 3. Hyperlipidaemia as the liver increases synthesis of lipids in response to low albumin 4. Hypogammaglobulinemia: due to loss of immunoglobulin in the urine 5. Hypercoagulability: due to loss of antithrombin III, and protein C and S in the urine
57
what is there not in nephrotic syndromes?
HAEMATURIA
58
what are 5 general manifestations of nephrotic syndromes?
``` hypertension frothy urine (lipids) facial and peripheral oedema recurrent infections predisposition to thrombotic events ```
59
what are 4 investigations for nephrotic syndromes?
Urinalysis:** proteinuria > haematuria, lipid casts 24-hour urine protein collection -  > 3.5 g protein Urine albumin-creatinine ratio (ACR) - raised due to proteinuria U&Es - monitor eGFR and creatinine to assess for renal failure
60
what is the most common nephrotic syndrome affecting children?
Minimal change disease | M>F
61
what might minimal change disease be preceded by?
a upper respiratory tract infection
62
what cancer is associated with minimal change disease?
Hodgkin's lymphoma
63
what 3 things can trigger minimal change disease?
recent infection recent vaccination immune stimulus
64
what are 3 risk factors for minimal change disease?
Hodgkin's lymphoma leukaemia Hep B/C
65
what is the pathophysiology of minimal change?
T cells release cytokines-glomerular-permeability factor => flattens out podocytes (effacement) so they fuse together => allow albumin (but not immunoglobulins) into nephron => selective proteinuria
66
what are 3 investigations of minimal change disease?
urinalysis - red cast and oval bodies 24-hour urine protein - high serum albumin - low
67
what are 3 differentials for minimal change?
acute glomerulonephritis focal segmental glomerulosclerosis congestive HF
68
what is the management for minimal change disease?
corticosteroids - prednisolone!!! fluid restriction and low salt diet immunosuppressants
69
what are 3 complications of minimal change disease?
spontaneous peritonitis thrombosis relapse in adulthood
70
what is the most common cause of nephrotic syndrome is adults of African or hispanic descent?
Focal segmental glomerulosclerosis
71
what are 4 potential causes of focal segmental glomerulosclerosis?
heroine use HIV infection sickle cell disease SLE
72
what is seen on light microscopy in focal segmental glomerulosclerosis?
sclerosis and hyalinosis | only parts of some glomeruli are affected
73
what are 4 causes of membranous nephropathy?
SLE Drugs - NSAIDS, gold infection - Hep B/C, syphilis tumours
74
is focal segmental glomerulosclerosis a nephrotic or Nephritic?
nephrOtic
75
is minimal change disease nephrotic or nephritic?
nephrOtic
76
what is seen histologically in membranous nephropathy?
diffuse capillary and basement membrane thickening due to immune complex deposition spike and dome pattern of basement membrane
77
what are two conditions that can cause nephropathy?
amyloidosis | diabetes
78
what is nephrolithiasis?
kidney stones | presence of crystalline stones (calculi) within the urinary system (kidneys and ureter).
79
who are most likely to get nephrolithiasis?
M>W 30-60 year olds typically 50% recurrence risk
80
what is the most common composition of renal stones?
calcium oxalate - black/dark brown stones, more likely to form in acidic urine - radiopaque
81
what are 3 risk factors for nephrolithiasis?
chronic dehydration PHx of kidney stones obesity
82
what are 5 manifestations of nephrolithiasis?
severe flank pain - can radiate to ipsilateral groin haematuria fever, tachycardia, hypotension (sepsis?) nausea and vomiting frequency and urgency haematuria
83
what are 3 investigations for nephrolithiasis?
non-contrast CT kidney, ureter and bladder - GOLD urinalysis - haematuria U+Es - raised creatinine - AKI due to obstruction
84
what are 4 differentials for nephrolithiasis?
Appendicitis ectopic pregnancy ovarian cyst bowel obstruction
85
what is the management of nephrolithiasis
IV fluids anti-emetics analgesia - NSAIDs antibiotics - if infection watchful waiting if small tamsulosin to help pass - only in men
86
what are 3 complications of nephrolithiasis?
obstruction and hydronephrosis ureteric stricture urosepsis
87
what is prostate cancer?
A malignant tumour of glandular origin, situated in the prostate most commonly adenocarcinoma
88
where are prostate cancers situated?
Peripheral zone of prostate gland | 85% are multifocal, spreads locally through prostate capsule, lymphatic metastasizes
89
what is the most common cancer of men?
prostate cancer
90
what are 3 risk factors for prostate cancer?
older age genetics/FHx - BRACA2, HOXB13 high levels of dietary fat + obesity
91
what are 5 manifestations of prostate cancer?
``` elevated PSA LUTS - frequency, hesitance, terminal dribbling, nocturia haematuria or haematospermia weight loss, lethargy, bone pain lymphadenopathy ```
92
what re 3 investigations for prostate cancer?
DRE - asymmetrical/nodular/hard serum PSA - raised Multriparametric MRI - 1st line transrectal ultrasound guide core-needle biopsy - gold
93
what are 2 differentials for prostate cancer?
benign prostatic enlargement | chronic prostatitis
94
what is the management for prostate cancer?
``` observation if low risk radiation therapy radial prostatectomy androgen deprivation therapy Docetaxel chemo ```
95
what are 3 complications of prostate cancer?
radiation/surgery induced erectile dysfunction urinary strictures gynaecomastia
96
what grading is used n prostate cancer?
Gleason scale
97
what are the 4 red flags for kidney cancer?
loin pain haematuria masses metastatic disease symptoms
98
what is testicular cancer?
The most common malignancy of young adult men (20-45), neoplasm of testes
99
what are 4 risk factors for testicular cancer?
FHx white undescended testes HIV
100
where does testicular cancer usually spread to?
lung liver bones - back lymph nodes - chest, pelvis, neck
101
what are 5 manifestations of testicular cancer?
``` usually painless lump weight loss + fatigue cough + SOB back/bone pain gynaecomastia/loss of libido/erectile dysfunction ```
102
what are 4 investigations for testicular cancer?
testicular doppler ultrasound - 1st line tumour markers - AFP, beta-HcG, LDH CT chest, abdomen and pelvis radical inguinal orchidectomy + histology - gold
103
what is the management of testicular cancer?
radical inguinal orchidectomy platinum based chemo - carboplatin retroperitoneal lymph node dissection
104
what are 3 complications of testicular cancer?
infertility treatment related nausea treatment related neutropenia
105
what is testicular torsion?
a urological emergency caused by the twisting of the testicle on the spermatic cord leading to constriction of the vascular supply, time-sensitive ischaemia, and/or necrosis of testicular tissue.
106
what deformity makes testicular torsion more likely?
Bell clapper - sideways balls
107
what are 4 risk factors for testicular torsion?
under 25/neonates trauma/exercise undescended testicles
108
what are 5 manifestations of testicular torsion?
``` severe testicular pain no relieve upon scrotal elevation scrotal swelling or oedema scrotal erythema absent cremasteric reflex ```
109
what are 4 investigations for testicular torsion?
grey-scale ultrasound - fluid and whirlpool sign power doppler ultrasound - decreased blood flow colour doppler ultrasound - decreased blood flow surgical exploration - gold
110
what are 3 differentials for testicular torsion?
testicular appendix torsion epididymitis hydrocele
111
what is the management for testicular torsion?
manual de-torsion scrotal explore morphine sulfate
112
what is urethritis?
inflamation of the urethra - usually a sexually transmitted disease that typically presents with dysuria, urethral discharge, and/or pruritus at the end of the urethra
113
what are the 2 most common causative organisms of urethritis?
N. gonorrhoea - gram -ve diplococci | Chlamydia trachomatis - gram -ve - most common
114
what are 3 risk factors for urethritis?
15-24 years multiple sexual partners/new sexual partner unprotected sex
115
what are 5 manifestations of urethritis?
many asymptomatic ``` acute urethral discharge following unprotected sex irritation/itching dysuria orchalgia/pelvic pain no rash or arthritis ```
116
what are 3 investigations for urethritis?
gram stain, microscopy and culture of urethral discharge/urine sediment nucleic acid amplification test blood cultures
117
what are 3 differentials for urethritis?
UTI candid balnitis/vaginitis epididymitis
118
what is the 1st and 2nd line treatment for chlamydia ?
1 - Doxycycline 2 - Azithromycine
119
what are 3 complications of urethritis?
reactive arthritis gonococcal conjunctivitis prostatitis
120
what is UTI?
an infection of the kidneys, bladder, or urethra | the inflammatory response of the urothelium to bacterial invasion
121
what is the most common causative organism of uncomplicated UTIs?
E. Coli
122
what are the 5 organisms that most often cause UTIs?
``` KEEPS klebsiella pneumoniae E. coli Enterococci Proteus aprophyticus Staphylococcus saprophytic - coagulase -ve ```
123
what are 3 risk factors for UTIs?
sexual activity spermicide use post-menopausal
124
what are 5 manifestations of UTIs?
``` dysuria new nocturia cloudy urine fever visible haematuria ```
125
what are 3 investigations for UTI?
urine dipstick - + nitrate and leukocytes urine culture and sensitivity - always in complicated patients urine microscopy
126
what are 3 differentials for UTI?
overactive bladder urothelial carcinoma of the bladder non-infectious urethritis
127
what is the management of UTI?
nitrofurantoin, trimethoprim - uncomplicated | ciprofloxacin/levofloxacin - complicated
128
what are 3 complications of UTI?
pyelonephritis sepsis renal and peri-renal abcesss
129
what is varicocele?
the abnormal dilation of the internal spermatic veins and pampiniform plexus that drain blood from the testis caused be venous reflux
130
which teste is varicocele most common in?
left
131
what are 2 risk factors for varicocele?
somatic factors - tall/ low BMI | FHx
132
what are 5 manifestations of varicocele?
``` painless scrotal mass L sided small testicles infertility 12+ years ```
133
what are 3 investigations for varicocele?
scrotal ultrasound with doppler clinical diagnosis - bag of worms semen analysis
134
what are 3 differentials for varicocele?
paratesticular mass cord hydrocele spermatocele
135
what are 3 complications of varicocele?
post-surgical coil migration post-operative hydrocele post-surgical bleeding
136
what is nephritic syndrome?
inflammation of the glomerular basement membrane leading to haematuria and limited proteinuria
137
what are the 6 different types of nephritic syndromes?
``` post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis IgA nephropathy diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis rapidly progressing glomerulonephritis alport syndrome ```
138
which 3 nephritic syndromes are caused by type III hypersensitivity?
post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis IgA nephropathy Diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis
139
what are 5 manifestations of nephritic syndromes?
``` haematuria proteinuria < 3.5g/day arterial hypertension peripheral and peri-orbital oedema decreased urine output ```
140
what are 3 investigations for nephritic syndromes?
bloods - increased creatinine and blood urea nitrogen urinalysis - haematuria, RBC cast, proteinuria <3.5g/day renal biopsy
141
what is the management for nephritic syndromes?
immunosuppression - steroids blood pressure control - ACEi/ARB (furosemide) statins omega-3 fatty acids
142
what are 2 complications of nephritic syndromes?
AKI | CKD
143
what is post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
nephritic syndrome occurring after pharyngitis or skin infection caused by streptococcus pyogenes infection
144
what are 3 investigations of post-streptococcal glomerulonephritis?
bloods - low levels of C3 and CH50 positive streptozyme test kidney biopsy
145
what is IgA nephropathy?
an autoimmune nephritic syndrome caused by mesangial IgA immune deposits age 16-35 most commonly
146
what is the most common nephritis?
IgA nephropathy
147
what are 4 risk factors for IgA nephropathy?
male HIV FHx ethnicity - asian
148
what usually precedes IgA nephropathy?
upper respiratory tract infection (or less usually gastroenteritis)
149
what is the most common form of lupus nephritis?
diffuse proliferative glomerulonephritis - also worst prognosis
150
what are 4 risk factors for membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis?
age 8-16 infections CLL acquired partial lipodystrophy
151
what can cause rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis?
goodpasture's syndrome
152
what is Aport syndrome?
An X-linked genetic disease in which there’s a mutation in the gene that codes for type IV collagen - can cause nephritic syndrome due to glomerular basement membrane destruction
153
what are 5 manifestations of Aport syndrome?
``` hearing loss in late childhood/adolesence retinopathy and lens dislocation learning disability haematuria proteiuria hypertension oedema fatigue and dyspnoea ```
154
what is a fungi that can cause cystitis in the immunosuppressed and those with indwelling catheters?
Candida
155
what is the surgical management for nephrolithiasis?
uteroscopy extracorporeal shock wave lithotripsy Percutaneous nephtolithotomy
156
What drug is given to protect the myocardium in hyperkalaemia?
calcium glutinate - 10ml at 10%
157
what drugs are given to drive potassium into the cells in hyperkalaemia?
Insulin + glucose | beta agonist - salbutamol
158
what genetic condition can give rise to renal cell carcinoma?
Von Hippel-Lindau syndrome
159
what is the gold standard investigation for renal cell carcinoma?
CT abdomen/pelvis with contrast
160
what is the most common site of metastasis for kidney cancer?
lung - cannonball metasteses
161
what is the treatment for metastatic kidney cancer?
molecular therapy - sunitinib
162
what is Wilms' tumour?
a specific type of tumour affecting the kidney in children, typically under the age of 5 years
163
what do renal adenocarcinomas cause that isn't seen in other renal cancers?
musucuria - mucus in urine
164
what is the treatment for muscle invasive bladder cancer?
radical cystectomy with chemo | radical radiotherapy
165
what kind of anaemia can CKD causes?
normocytic normochronic | due to low EPO
166
what are 4 manifestations of pyelonephritis?
tender loin high fever and rigors dysuria and urinary frequency haematuria
167
what is xanthogranulomatous pyelonephritis?
a chronic pyelonephritis caused by an infected kidney stone causing obstruction
168
what is the most common causative pathogen of prostatitis?
E. coli
169
what is the treatment for bacterial prostatitis?
14 days oral ciprofloxacin
170
what are 3 complications of prostatitis?
acute urinary retention chronic prostatitis prostatic abscess
171
what is prehn's sign and what conditions is it positive in?
pain relief with lifting affected testicle positive in orchitis and epididymitis NEGATIVE IN TORSION
172
is autosomal dominant or recessive polycystic kidney disease more common?
dominant | recessive - more severe
173
what is the inheritance of Von Hippel Lindau disease?
autosomal dominant
174
what is Von Hippel Lindau disease?
rare autosomal dominant disorder caused by mutation in tumour suppressor gene leading to cysts and benign tumours in various parts of body => eyes, CNS, kidneys, adrenals, pancreas
175
what is the primary cause of death in patients with Von Hippel Lindau disease?
renal cell carcinoma
176
where in the brain is the micturition centre?
the pons
177
what is urge incontinence?
overactive bladder due to uninhibited detrusor muscle
178
what is stress incontinence?
urine leaks out due to high abdominal pressure
179
what are 3 causes of incontinence?
diabetes bladder cancer MS
180
berry aneurysms are a complication of what renal disease?
autosomal dominant polycystic kidney disease
181
what is the pharmacological management of stress incontinance?
Duloxetine
182
What is the treatment for syphilis?
Benzanthine Penicillin and Azithromycin
183
when is trimethoprim most teratogenic?
1st trimester
184
when is nitrofurantoin not recomended in pregnancy?
3rd trimester
185
what is a key feature of a testicular seminoma?
secretes ALP
186
what is a key feature of a testicular teratoma?
many different cells
187
what is a key feature of a testicular choriocarcinoma?
secretes hCG
188
what is a key feature of a testicular endodermal yolk sac tumour?
Alph fetoprotein
189
what do magnesium and calcium renal stones look like on X-ray?
radiopaque/dense
190
what do urate stones look like on X-ray?
radiolucent
191
what s oxybutynin used for?
overactive bladder
192
is there hyperlipidaemia in nephritic syndromes?
NO!!! only nephrotic
193
what condition can cause muddy brown casts on urinalysis?
acute tubular necrosis
194
what is the 1st line treatment for Gonorrhoea?
cefriaxone IM 250mg
195
what is the 1st line treatment for pyelonephritis is pregnancy?
cefelaxin
196
what is the second most common type of renal stone?
Uric acid stones - radiolucent
197
what are the 5 functions of the kidney?
``` fluid volume management waste excretion RBC production Vitamin D metabolism Acid-base regulation ```
198
what is glomerulonephritis?
any of a group of diseases that injure the part of the kidney that filters blood (the glomeruli).
199
what are the characteristic finding is nephritic syndromes?
oedema proteinuria decreased protein and increased lipids in blood
200
what are the characteristic features of nephritic syndromes?
blood in the urine (especially Red blood cell casts with dysmorphic red blood cells) and a decrease in the amount of urine in the presence of hypertension
201
what are the 3rd most common renal stones?
struvate (staghorn) stones - magnesium amonium phosphate => radiopaque
202
what are the 4th most common renal stones?
cysteine (pink) - radiopaque
203
what are the criteria for the 2 week wait for bladder cancer?
45+ with unexplained visible haematuria without UTI 60+ with unexplained non-visible haematuria and either dysuria or a raised WCC
204
what percentage of men with raised PSA will not have prostate cancer?
specificity = 30%
205
what percentage of men with normal PSA will have prostate cancer?
sensitivity = 94%
206
what are 5 medical conditions associated with erectile dysfunction?
``` DM CVD liver failure renal failure trauma ```
207
what is the 1st line treatment for erectile dysfunction?
phsophodistesterase 5 inhibiters SILDENAFIL
208
what is a UTI?
bacteria in the urine combined with clinical features
209
when would you refer someone with UTIs for a bladder cancer review?
60+ with recurrent/persistent UTIs
210
what is the triad of pyelonephritis?
loin pain fecer pyuria (WBC in urine)
211
what is the 1st line management of pyelonephritis?
co-amoxiclav
212
what is the 1st line pyelonephritis management in someone with a penicillin allergy?
cefalexin
213
what is the most common type of renal cell carcinoma?
clear cell carcinoma

Phase 2A :!: (14 decks)

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