Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

ccfp > ccfp prac test 3 > Flashcards

ccfp prac test 3 Flashcards

1
Q

what are two POC tests for GAS for sore throat?

A

-rapid antigen test
-nucleic acid detection test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are three benefits to treating a group A strep infection?

A

-reduce risk of peritonsillar abcess
-reduce risk of rheumatic fever
-less sore throat at day 3
-reduces duration of illness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the criteria of subclinical hypothyroidism?

A

TSH between 4-10 mIU/L
Normal T3
Normal T4
No symptoms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

should you treat subclinical hypothyroidim?

A

NO
Unless symptomatic or pregnant

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

is acupuncture effective for low back pain?

A

yes, for non-radicular low back pain, (chronic more responsive than acute)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what percentage of patients with autism spectrum disorder suffer with sleep disturbances?

A

60-80%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Name four common sleep disturbances in patients with autism

A

-early morning awakenings
-poor sleep efficiency
-prolonged sleep onset-latency
-somnambulism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the recommended sleep interventions for patients with autism and sleeping disorders?

A

-behaviour modification therapy
-melatonin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

signs of wernickes encephalopathy

A

-opthalmoplegia
-mental stages changes
-ataxia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

treatment of wernickes encaphalopathy?

A

thiamine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the three syndromes associated with thiamine deficiency?

A

-wernickes encephalopathy
-korsakoffs
-beri beri

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

is taking gabapentin and opioids together safe?

A

-concurrent use of gabapentin wiht opioids increases risk of opioid over x2
-benzo use concurrent also increases risk x 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

who should receive the pneumococcal 23 valent polysacharide vaccine?

A

all adults 65 +

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

how does estrogen effect valproate

A

it increases the breakdown rate of valproate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the recommended dose of folic acid during pregnancy if NOT high risk?

A

minimum of 0.4 mg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what are the fetal effects of antiepileptic meds in pregnancy?

A
  • neural tube defects
  • lower IQ scores
  • heart malformations
  • cleft lip and palate
  • low birth weight
  • urogenital defects
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how much folic acid is recommended in those high risk for neural tube defects in pregnancy?

A

up to 5 mg per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

how long should someone ideally be seizure free before pregnancy?

A

9 mo

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what stool test can help you identify IBD?

A

fecal calprotectin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what meds have been found to be effective at treating IBS?

A

SSRIs (constipation predominant)
TCAs (diarrhea predominant)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the four types of fecal incontinence?

A

urge
passive
involuntary
seepage

20
Q

what are the effects of the ketogenic diet on diabetes?

A

-weight loss
-reduced need for insulin therapy
-lowers a1c

21
Q

what are some common side effects of the ketogenic diet?

A

-nausea
-GERD
-constipation
-diarrhea
-hypoglycemia
-dyslipidemia

22
Q

what effect does the ketogenic diet have on epilepsy?

A

reduces incidence of seizures in refractory epilepsy

23
Q

which medication is association with reduced spread of breast ca to bone?

A

bisphosphonates

24
Q

what is a main adverse effect of aromatase inhibitors?

A

osteoporosis

25
Q

which two diabetes medications are most associated with hypoglycemic events?

A

sulfonylureas and insulin

26
Q

-list three criteria to be diagnosed with familial hypercholesteremia

A
  • LDL-C ≥ 5.0 mmol/L in patients ≥ 40 years of
    age
  • LDL-C ≥ 4.5 mmol/L in patients 18 to 39 years of
    age
  • LDL-C ≥ 4.0 mmol/L in < 18 years
27
Q

what is a recommended treatment for IBS-diarrhea dominant?

A

eluxadoline (mu opioid agonist receptor in gut)

28
Q

which pregnant patients should take aspirin?

A

patients with BMI > 30 and 1 additional risk factor for preeclampsia

29
Q

when should aspirin be commenced during pregnancy for patients high risk for preeclampsia?

A

before 16 weeks

29
Q

list five effective treatments for IBS

A

-peppermint oil
-SSRIs / TCAs
-CBT
-soluble fiber
-low FODMAP diet
-antispasmodics

30
Q

what are the risk factors for preeclampsia?

A

-Nulliparity
-obesity
-family history of preeclampsia
-age 35 years and older
-sociodemographic risk factors (low socioeconomic status, etc),
-or personal history factors (fetus is small for gestational age, previous adverse pregnancy outcomes, etc).

31
Q

when should patients with BMI 40 or above deliver their baby by?

A

39-40 weeks

32
Q

at which points do patients with obesity require extra pregnancy growth scans?

A

To accurately monitor fetal growth, ultrasounds should be done at 28, 32, and 36 weeks’ gestational age and then weekly after 37 weeks instead of a symphysis fundal height measurement.

33
Q

list 6 conditions associated with kussmaul breathing in children

A

-metabolic acidosis
-sepsis
-raised ICP
-head trauma
-croup
-pneumonia
-uncontrolled asthma
-cardiogenic shock
-airway obstruction

34
Q

what virus causes molluscum contagiosum

A

poxvirus

35
Q

how does poxvirus spread within 1 person?

A

autoinnoculation

36
Q

name 4 treatment options for molluscum contagiosum

A

-imiquimod
-silver nitrite
-curettage
-expectant
-liquid nitrogen

37
Q

what are the treatment options for alopecia areata?

A
  • topical midoxinil
  • topical bimatoprost
  • azathioprine
  • cyclosporine
  • topical immunotherapy
  • platelet-rich plasma (PRP) injections
38
Q

what are the steroid options to inject into a joint?

A
  • 40mg triamcinolone
  • 40mg methylprednisolone
  • 3mg betamethasone
39
Q

what is the name of the tool that determine OA severity?

A

Lesquesne index

40
Q

is there any steroid that is best for joint injection?

A

no theyre the same

41
Q

what is the prognosis of shuddering attacks?

A

decline with age

42
Q

are children conscious during shuddering attacks?

A

yes

43
Q

do shuddering attacks increase your risk of epilepsy?

A

no

44
Q

what is the most common hematological disorder associated with epistaxis in children?

A

von willebrands

44
Q

are males or females more likely to get afib?

A

males

45
Q

what is the recommended weight gain for pregnancy in an obese woman?

A

5-9kg

46
Q

exam findings in testicular torsion (list 4)

A

-absent cremasteric reflex
-testicular swelling
-hard testicle
-high riding testicle

47
Q

what is a non-surgical mangement option of compartment syndrome?

A

hyperbaric oxygen therapy (while awaiting decompression)

48
Q

what is the name of the criteria for IBS

A

Rome IV criteria

ccfp (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions