Certification Preparation Flashcards
Last 10 questions from each chapter (232 cards)
1
Q
During which period in a child’s life do they gain weight the fastest
A
first 6 months
2
Q
In which illness or condition are dehydration and electrolyte imbalance of particular concern when the disorder occurs in children
A
diarrhea
3
Q
The first dose of MMR vaccine should be administered at what age
A
12 months
4
Q
What method of evaluation is used to detect microcephaly
A
measurement of the head circumference
5
Q
Tetanus is part of which immunization
A
DTap
6
Q
Which is a helpful approach to adolescent patients
A
the medical assistant should recognize the importance of personal appearance to adolescents
7
Q
The varicella vaccine is usually administer to children in which age group
A
12-18 months
8
Q
Studies have shown that a child who is obese between the ages of ____ has an 80% chance of becoming an obese adult
A
10 and 13
9
Q
The Hib vaccine prevents
A
meningitis
10
Q
One of the primary causes of childhood injuries is ____
A
motor vehicles accidents; drowning, burns
11
Q
The _____ starts the follicular phase of the menstrual cycle
A
pituitary gland
12
Q
During implantation, the zygote functions as an endocrine gland by secreting which hormone
A
hCG
13
Q
According to the American Cancer Society, what is the risk of a woman developing breast cancer
A
1 in 8
14
Q
What position is used for a pelvic examination
A
lithotomy
15
Q
When testing for candidiasis, a drop of what solution is added to the slide
A
Potassium hydroxide
16
Q
During a pelvic examination, what occurs after the provider has collected the specimen for a Pap test
A
bimanual examination
17
Q
A maturation index can assist in the diagnosis and treatment of which condition
A
infertility issues, amenorrhea, menopause
18
Q
What method of contraception either kills sperm of prevents them from entering the cervical os
A
barrier methods
19
Q
What procedure uses a microscope with a light source and magnifying lens
A
colposcopy
20
Q
What term refers to the number of pregnancies that have gone to the age of viability
A
Para
21
Q
The most common disorder of the endocrine system is
A
diabetes mellitus
22
Q
The relative frequency of deaths in a specif population in the definition for
A
mortality
23
Q
Indications that a patient may be a victim of elder abuse may include
A
recurrent injuries caused by accident; poor general appearance and hygiene; bruising, dehydration, and pressure injuries
24
Q
Which taste buds decline as a person ages
A
sweet and salty
25
hearing loss associated with normal aging is
presbycusis
26
a condition that makes it difficult to focus in a detail on objects close at hand is
presbyopia
27
Which medical condition does not interfere with sleep
otosclerosis
28
The formation of amyloid plaques in the brain would be found in a patient with which disease or disorder
Alzheimer's disease
29
Risk factors for cognitive decline include
hypertension, diabetes mellitus, sedentary lifestyle
30
The primary cause of hip fractures is
osteoporosis
31
What is a type of nonverbal communication
Body language
32
What is a type of verbal communication
Written message, oral communication, email
33
Hunger, pain, anger, and tiredness are considered which type of barrier to communication
Internal distractions
34
What is a way to overcome environmental distractions
provide privacy for patients
35
What is a maladaptive coping mechanism
Drug and alcohol use
36
Erickson's theory places a 4-year-old child in which development stage
Initiative versus guilt
37
According to Kubler-Ross, when a person feels sadness, fear, and uncertainty, they are in which stage of grief
Depression
38
Which level of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs includes protection from the elements, security and stability
Safety needs
39
Which level of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs includes knowledge, curiosity, understanding, and exploration
Cognitive needs
40
A person is using which defense mechanism when they revert to an old, immature behavior to express their feelings
Regression
41
Which is a type of alternative dispute resolution where the final decision is legally binding
Arbitration
42
Which varies by state and indicates the length of time legal action can be taken after an event has occurred
Statute of limitations
43
Which is a negligent act classification that means the person failed to act when s/he had a legal duty to act
Nonfeasance
44
Which type of defense involves the defendant admitting wrongdoing and the defense attorney introduces facts that support the defendant's conduct
Affirmative defense
45
Which is not one of the "Ds" of negligence
Deposition
46
Which is a legal document ordering a person to bring the plaintiff's health record to court
Subpoena duces tecum
47
Which is a physician or advances-practice professional temporarily contracted to provide healthcare services when a facility has a vacancy, vacation, or a leave of absence
Locum tenens
48
A person younger than the age of adulthood who demonstrates the maturity to make a personal healthcare decision and can give informed consent for treatment is called a(n)
Mature minor
49
Which means "let me master answer;" thus, the employer/provider is legally responsible for the wrongful actions or lack of actions of the employees if done within the scope of employment
Respondeat superior
50
_____ consent is inferred based on signs or conduct of the patient, whereas ____ consent is given either by the spoken or written word
implied -- expressed
51
Which state law provides legal protection for those assisting an injured person during an emergency
Good Samaritan Act
52
Which act makes organ donation easier
Uniform Anatomical Gift Act
53
Which act requires most healthcare institutions to inform patients of their rights to make decisions and the facility's policies about advance directives
Patient Self-Determination Act
54
Which HIPAA standard requires healthcare facilities, insurance companies, and other to protect patient information that electronically store and transmitted
Standard 3 related to the Security Rule
55
Individually identifiable health information stored or transmitted by covered entities or business associates is the definition of which term
PHI Personal Health Information
56
Under HIPAA, healthcare providers, health (insurance) plans, and claims clearinghouses must transmit PHI electro9nically. What are these entities called under HIPAA?
Covered entities
57
Under HIPAA, which is a reason for releasing or disclosing patient information
Permission
58
Which psychotherapy notes are held at a higher level of confidentiality
What the patient said during the session and the provider's analysis of the statements and the situation
59
Which question is illegal during and interview
"When did you move to the United States?"
60
Which act expanded the meaning and interpretation of the definition of disability and included people with cancer, diabetes, attention-deficit/hyperactivity disorder, learning disabilities, and epilepsy
ADAAA
61
Which term means "rules of conduct that differentiate between acceptable and unacceptable behavior"?
Ethics
62
Which term means "internal principles that distinguish between right and wrong"?
Morals
63
_____ are codes of conduct stated by an employer of professional association
Professional ethics
64
Which term means "to do no harm"
Nonmaleficence
65
What is the process of creating a genetically identical biological entity
Cloning
66
Which Kubler-Ross state of grief and dying involves the person refusing to accept the fact
Denial
67
Which advance directive provides instructions about life-sustaining medical treatment to be administered or withheld when the patient has a terminal condition
Living will m
68
Which advance directive allows a competent adult to appoint a person (called a proxy or agent) to make healthcare decision in the event the patient is unable to do so
Medical durable power of attorney
69
Which is the type of euthanasia where the patient consents to the action
Voluntary
70
Which act provides uniformity is organ and tissue donation across the nation
Uniform Anatomical Gift Act
71
What is one kilobyte equivalent to
1024 bytes
72
Which software protects computers against viruses
Anti-malware software
73
What is a physical safeguard that is used over monitors to prevent other from seeing the information
Privacy filters
74
Which is a type of software that allows the user to enter demographic information, schedule appointments, maintain list of insurance payers, perform billing tasks, and generate reports
PMS Practice Management Software
75
What is an electronic version of a patient's paper record
EMR Electronic Medical Record
76
What are records of computer activity used to monitor user's action within software, including addition, deletions, and viewing of electronic records
Audit trails
77
What is malicious software designed to damage or disrupt a system (e.g., a virus)
Malware
78
What means potential threats to the computer system security are identified, the likelihood of such occurrence is determined, and additional safeguard are implemented
Security risk analysis
79
What makes a strong password
Consisting or eight or more characters; a random combination of upper-and lowercase letters numbers, and symbols
80
Which is the computer memory used for loading and running programs
RAM Random Access Memory
81
Which is a word or group of words that describes a noun or pronoun
adjective
82
Which needs to be capitalized
The first letter of the first word in a sentence or question; the first letter of proper nouns; the pronoun "I"
83
When should a comma be used
Before a coordinator (and, but, yet, nor, for, or, so) that links two main clauses; to separate items in a list of three or more things; after certain works (e.g., yes, no) at the start of a sentence
84
What punctuation is used at the end of the salutation in a professional letter
Colon
85
What includes the initials of the person who composed the letter
Reference notation
86
Which type of business letter format has the sender's and inside addresses and paragraphs left-justifies and the date, closing, and signature block starts at the center point
Modified block
87
Which is the most common mail service used for envelopes weighing up to 13 ounces, and provides delivery in 3 days or less
First-Class Mail
88
Which optional mail service is used to protect expensive items, a mailing receipt is provided, and upon request, an electronic verification of delivery or delivery attempt can be sent
Registered Mail
89
Dr. James Smith composed a letter and Cathy Black keyed the letter. What is the correct format for the notation in the letter
JS/cb JS:cb
90
Which is not a header in a memo
DEPARTMENT
91
Information that is obtained by questioning the patient or taken from a form is called _____
Subjective
92
How would you properly index the name "Amanda M. Stiles-Duncan" for filing
Stilesduncan Amanda M.
93
Who is the legal owner of the information stored in a patient's record
The provider or agency where services were provided
94
Which is not objective information
family history
95
Many healthcare facilities now use voice recognition software for transcription. The system can be used to dictate which types of reports
Progress notes, letter, emails
96
Perhaps the most essential action for the medical assistant working with patient and using an electronic record is to
make frequent eye contact with patient and smile
97
Which EHR system backup requires the least amount of hardware
online backup system
98
The concise amount of symptoms in the patient's own words is the _____
Chief complaint
99
To completely remove all traces of an entry in a health record is ______
obliteration
100
The process of electronic data entry of a provider's instructions for the treatment of patients is called ___
computerized physician/provider order entry
101
Which are components of the cardiovascular system
Blood, vessels, heart
102
What is the anatomic location of the heart
In the thoracic cavity, slightly left of the mid-line
103
What is the function of the cardiovascular system
Brings oxygen to the cells and carries carbon dioxide away from the cells; brings nutrients, water, and other substances (e.g., salts and hormones) to the cells; carries waster products (e.g., metabolic waste) away from the cells to be excreted
104
The pulmonary veins bring oxygenated blood back to the ____
left atrium
105
Which arteries bring oxygenated blood to the heart tissue
Coronary arteries
106
In unborn babies, which structure shifts most of the blood from the umbilical veins to the inferior vena cava, bypassing the immature liver
Doctus venosus
107
Which conduction system structure is considered the pacemaker of the heart
Sinoatrial (SA) node
108
What factor influences blood pressure
Blood volume, ventricular contraction strength, resistance to blood flow
109
Which treatment procedure is used to destroy abnormal tissue that causes arrhythmias
Cardiac ablation
110
Which CLIA-waived test is used for anticoagulant therapy and heart disease
Prothrombin test
111
Which a re components of the respiratory system
Nasal cavity, trachea, lungs
112
What is the anatomic location of the lungs and trachea
Thoracic cavity
113
What is the function of the respiratory system
Maintain the acid-base balance in the body, exchange oxygen from the atmosphere for carbon dioxide waste
114
Which test is a CLIA-waved test
Rapid strep A test
115
What medication is considered a quick-relief asthma medication
Albuterol
116
Which is surgical removal of the entire lung?
Pneumonectomy
117
Which disease caused by a bacterial infection of the respiratory tract is also called whooping cough?
Pertussis
118
Which are characteristics of an infant's respiratory system
Airway collapses if the neck is overextended, trachea is shorter and softer than in adults, airway is narrow
119
What is the maximum volume of air that can be as forcefully and rapidly exhaled as possible after taking in a full inhalation
FVC Forces Vital Capacity
120
What is true regarding oxygen delivery
A nasal cannula has a flow range between 1 and 6 L/min; the soft nasal cannula prongs must curve downwards when placed in the nose; a mask has a flow range of 5-10 L/min
121
____ is a deflection fr0om the baseline
Wave
122
What ECG wave or segment reflects atrial depolarization
P wave
123
What ECG wave or segment is a negative deflection and represents interventricular septal depolarization
Q wave
124
What ECG wave or segment represents ventricular repolarization
T wave
125
____ is signal distortion or unwanted, erratic movement of the stylus caused by outside interference
Artifact
126
If AC interference artifact appears, what should the medical assistant do?
Separate the lead wires so they do not overlap
127
____ is when the ventricles quiver uncontrollably. The patient has no pulse, and is not breathing
Ventricular fibrillation
128
____ results in the absence of a heartbeat
Asystole
129
Which test involves radioactive substance injected into a vein and a gamma camera used to take images of the blood flow; shows the blood flow into the heart muscle during rest and activity?
Nuclear stress test
130
Which device is surgically implanted under the skin in the upper chest and continuously records the ECG for 2-3 years?
Implantable loop recorder
131
Which best describes the primary goal of "screening" telephone calls?
Determining whether the calls are emergencies
132
Active listening involves
Giving the same attention to a person on the telephone as would be given to a person face to face; concentrating on the conversation at hand; discovering vital information
133
The medical assistant should be extremely careful when using a speakerphone because
confidentiality can be violated
134
Which term would be considered jargon?
Encephalalgia
135
The medical assistant may help an angry called calm down by
speaking in a lower tome of voice
136
If your office is in New York and you need to contact a supplier in Seattle, which New York time would be the earliest that you should call to place an order, assuming that the supplier opens at 8 am?
11 am
137
Which types of calls should be limited in the professional setting?
personal
138
Enunciation is
articulation of clear sounds
139
Which is not required when a telephone message is taken
The caller's account number
140
When placing callers on hold, how often should you check back to make sure the caller still wants to remain on hold?
no longer than 1 minute
141
Which term means an unreal sensory perception that occurs with no external cause
Hallucination
142
Which term describes the rate of disease in a population
Morbidly
143
Which term means an unshakable belief in something untrue
Delusion
144
Brontophobia is the fear of
thuder
145
Drugs of abuse include
Cocaine, heroin, prescription opioids
146
Which is not a symptom of depression
Mania
147
ADHD is often treated with what type of medications
Stimulants, Antidepressants, mood stabilizers
148
Which anxiety disorder is described as a persistent difficulty getting rid of personal possessions
HD hoarding disorder
149
Amnesia is defined as
Memory loss
150
Which behavior health professional is a trained medical doctor with 4 years of residency
Psychiatrist
151
The central nervous system contains which structure
Brain and spinal cord
152
Which subsystem is part of the autonomic nervous system
Parasympathetic nervous system
153
The nervous system works in partnership with which other system to help the body maintain hemostasis
Endocrine system
154
Which structure of a nerve cell carries impulses away from the cell body
Axon
155
A chemical that helps a nerve cell communicate with another nerve cell or muscle is
A neurotransmitter
156
The pons is located in the
Brainstem
157
Which could be a sign or symptom of a cerebrovascular accident
Numbness of the face, leg, or arm; difficulty speaking; loss of balance or coordination
158
Alzheimer's disease is most commonly diagnosed I which age group
After age 60
159
Which term is defined as a fold or convolution on the surface of the cerebral hemisphere
Gyri
160
Which condition can be detected before birth
Spina bifida
161
Which is used to measure a handgrip strength
Dynamometer
162
Which provides stability and protection, while allowing the joint to function
Splint
163
Which should be used to help support a casted arm
Sling
164
Which of the following are characteristics of fiberglass casts
Colorful and lightweight; durable and porous; can be penetrated by x-rays
165
___ is a serious condition that involves increased pressure, usually in the muscles; it leads to compromised blood flow and muscle and nerve damage
Compartment syndrome
166
____ is a dry, crackling sound or sensation
Crepitation
167
A walker used by patients who can only grasp the walker with one hand
Hemi-walker
168
Which is not a dry cold application
Ice bag
169
Fix axillary crutches so they are ____ below the armpit
1 to 1 1/2 inches
170
When fitting a cane, what statement is correct
The top of the cane should be near the crease in the wrist
171
What is an opening task for the administrative medical assistant?
Update the voice mail message
172
What should be disinfected in the healthcare facility
Exam table, writing table, computer keyboard
173
How often do crash carts and other emergency supplies need to be inventoried
Every month
174
What is not found on a routine maintenance log
Store name where the machine was purchased
175
What is the purpose of routine maintenance of administrative and clinical equipment
Prevent injury to the patients; prevent costly damage to the equipment; prevent injury to staff members
176
What is not a principle of proper body mechanics
When reaching for an object, stand on tiptoes
177
What is the correct way to operate most fire extinguishers
Pulls the pin, aim the nozzle, squeeze the handle, and sweep the nozzle from side to side
178
What is a critical element of an emergency response plan
Evacuation policy and procedure; methods to report emergencies; critical shutdown procedures
179
Which is a dry chemical fire extinguisher that is used on fires related to electrical sources
Class C
180
Which is not a symptom of stress
low blood pressure
181
Beneficial microorganisms that are responsible for breaking down organic matter are called
saprophyte
182
What color is a gram-positive bacteria
purple
183
A disease-causing organism or agent is the definition of which term
pathogen
184
What is a substance that inhibits the growth of microorganisms on living tissue
antimicrobial
185
If a bacterium is rod-shaped, it is described as
bacilli
186
If an organism is able to live and thrive in the presence of oxygen, it is
an aerobe
187
Tiny pathogenic bacteria that are transmitted by blood-sucki9ng insects are called
rickettsia
188
Scarlet fever, rheumatic fever, and glomerulonephritis are all possible complications of an infection with what bacteria
Streptococcus pyogenes
189
The causative agent for Lyme disease is
Borrelia burgdorferi
190
HIV is a
viral infection; blood-borne pathogen; condition that is treated with ARV medications
191
For which postoperative condition should the patient call the provider's office
Redness around the operative site; fever or swelling; increasing or severe pain
192
The LEEP excisional procedure is considered
electrosurgery
193
Which statement is not true about informed consent for surgery
the patient must provide his or her own witness for the signature
194
Which endoscope is rigid
laparoscope
195
Which wound passes through to a body organ or cavity
penetrating wound
196
In which phase of wound healing is fibrin most involved
first phase
197
Which bandage material is superior for covering round, narrow surfaces such as fingers or toes
seamless tubular gauze bandage
198
Which is a violation of sterile techniques
reaching over a sterile field
199
The purpose of a sterile fenestrated drape is
to provide a sterile area around the operative site
200
Cryosurgery involves
freezing temperatures
201
Choose the smallest diameter of suture strand
0
202
The recommended way to clean sharp instruments is to
use an ultrasonic cleaner
203
The jaws of which instrument are shorter and stronger that hemostat jaws
needleholder
204
Which is one of the strongest nonabsorbable sutures
dacron
205
____ is the complete destruction of microorganisms and spores. This technique is mandatory for any procedure that invades the body's skin or tissue, such as surgery
surgical asepsis
206
The recommended temperature for sterilization in a autoclave is
121°C
207
What is the complete destruction of pathogens and spores
sterilization
208
Which instrument would be damaged by the high temperature and steam under pressure of autoclaves and must be disinfected after each procedure
endoscope used in an endoscopy
209
Which gynecologic instrument is used to remove polys secretions, and bits of placental tissue
uterine curette
210
Which ophthalmologic and otolaryngologic instrument is used to remove foreign bodies or polyps
Hartmann "alligator" ear forceps
211
What are the two important factors in performing an effective hand wash
friction and running warm water
212
The process used to wash and remove blood and tissue from medical instruments is called
sanitization
213
The method that completely destroys microorganisms is
sterilization
214
Based on the chain of infection, what would be the most effective method of controlling the spread of conjunctivitis in a day care center
Sanitize hands thoroughly after each contact with a symptomatic child
215
Inflammation mediators that are released at the site of cellular damage perform which function
increase blood flow to the site; increase the permeability of blood vessel walls
216
Relapse and remission are seen frequently in what types of infections
latent infections
217
Viral infections
are treated with a focus on palliative care
218
The immune system response called humoral immunity is
production of antibodies in response to a foreign substance in the body
219
Rosa is responsible for training a new employee in medical aseptic handwashing. Which should Rosa emphasize
using an adequate amount of soap and rubbing in a circular motion around all fingers
220
Thee key to reducing the prevalence of antibiotic resistance is to
use an antibiotic that is specific to the pathogen
221
What is a buzzing, ringing, or whistling in the ear(s), occurring without an external stimulus
tinnitus
222
Which is part of the anterior surface of the eye
macula lutea
223
The colored portion of the eye is called the
iris
224
What is the term used for a drooping upper eyelid
blepharoptosis
225
Which structures are located in the middle ear
malleus, incus, stapes
226
The organ of Corti is located in the
coachlea
227
Which could be a sign or symptom of glaucoma
mild headaches; impaired adaptation to the dark; loss of peripheral vision, often called tunnel vision
228
Macular degeneration is most commonly diagnosed after age
55
229
What is the term for age-related hearing loss
presbycusis
230
Which condition could be diagnosed in an older adult patient
macular degeneration; glaucoma; presbycusis
231
Which is not part of the sternum
clavicle
232
