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Basic Human Pathology > Ch 17: Gastrointestinal System > Flashcards

Ch 17: Gastrointestinal System Flashcards

1
Q

what is an omphalocele

A

defect of the anterior abdominal wall
sack shows mostly liver and has the umbilical cord inserting into it

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2
Q

what is gastroschisis

A

congenital paraumbilical defect of the anterior abdominal wall
bowel herniates outwards

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3
Q

what is the outermost layer of the esophagus

A

adventita - no serosa

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4
Q

what is esophageal atresia

A

two ends of the esophagus don’t connect

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5
Q

what is an esophageal fistula

A

esophagus connects to the trachea

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6
Q

is aquired or congenital esophageal stenosis more common

A

aquired

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7
Q

what is zenker diverticulum

A

outpouching of esophagus immediately above the upper esophageal sphincter

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8
Q

what is achalasia

A

swallowing disorder

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9
Q

what are the three things that make up achalasia (swallowing disorder)

A

incomplete lower esophageal sphincter relaxation
increased LES tone
aperistalsis

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10
Q

what is the primary cause of achalasia

A

neuron failure in the distal esophagus

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11
Q

what is the secondary cause of achalasia

A

chagas disease (trypanosoma cruzi infection)

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12
Q

what is ectopia

A

inlet patches of gastric mucosa in the proximal esophagus

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13
Q

what are schatzki rings

A

circumfrential bands of mucosa in the esophagus

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14
Q

what are the three complications of esophagitis

A

lacerations
mucosal injury
infections

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15
Q

what are mallory-weiss tears

A

longitudinal linear lacerations in the EGJ caused by puking or coughing

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16
Q

punched out ulcers of the esophagus are a characteristic of which infection

A

herpes simplex virus (HSV)

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17
Q

shallow ulcers of the esophagus are a characteristic of which infection

A

cytomegalovirus (CMV)

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18
Q

gray plaques/pseudomembrane are a characteristic of which infection

A

candidiasis

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19
Q

what is black esophagus

A

complication of multiple, large necrotizing ulcers
can be associated with HSV

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20
Q

what is eosinophilic esophagitis

A

eosinophilic esophageal inflammation associated with food allergies
presents with stacked, circular rings or a “feline esophagus”

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21
Q

feline esophagus is a characteristic of which condition

A

eosinophilic esophagitis

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22
Q

what is a hiatal hernia

A

protrusion of stomach into thorax
can be sliding or paraesophageal

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23
Q

what are cameron lesions

A

gastric erosions or ulcers in the diaphgram near site of hiatal hernia

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24
Q

what is Barrett esophagus

A

chronic splashing of acid into the esophagus
leads to change of esophagus mucosa to gastric mucosa
can become pre-cancerous and then cancerous

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25
Q

what is the characteristic color of Barrett esophagus

A

salmon

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26
Q

what is the change of tissue in Barrett Esophagus

A

esophagus goes from stratified squamous epithelium to columnar epithelium

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27
Q

what typically causes adenocarcinoma and where is it most prominant in the esophagus

A

usually caused by barrett esophagus
found in the distal 1/3rd of the esophagus

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28
Q

where is SCC of the esophagus most commonly located

A

proximal esophagus - mostly middle third

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29
Q

what is plummer-vinson syndrome (PVS)

A

associated with SCC
characterized dysphagia, anemia, and esophageal webbing

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30
Q

what are the two most common risk factors of SCC of the esophagus

A

alcohol and tobacco use

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31
Q

what is the most common benign tumor of the esophagus

A

leiomyoma

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32
Q

what is gastritis

A

mucosal injury in the presence of inflammatory cells

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33
Q

what is gastropathy

A

mucosal injury without inflammatory cells

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34
Q

what causes a stress ulcer and where are they most commonly found

A

shock
sepsis
severe trauma
mostly found in the stomach

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35
Q

what causes a curling ulcer and where are they most commonly found

A

severe burns
trauma
mostly found in the duodenum

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36
Q

what are Cushing ulcers and where are they most commonly found

A

found in those with intracranial (CNS) disease
found in the stomach, duodenum, and esophagus
commonly perforate

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37
Q

in which condition would you see coffee-ground hematemesis

A

long standing stress related mucosal diseases

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38
Q

what is the most common cause of chronic gastritis

A

helicobacter pylori

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39
Q

where is chronic gastritis most commonly seen

A

stomach antrum or duodenum

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40
Q

what does atrophic gastritis look like

A

loss of rugae

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41
Q

what does hypertrophic gastritis look like

A

heaped up rugae

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42
Q

what does erosive (hemorrhagic) gastritis look like

A

shallow ulcers, little to no rugae

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43
Q

what are the two effects of autoimmune gastritis

A

decrease in acid production from loss of parietal cells
decreased intrinsic factor and therefore a B12 deficiency

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44
Q

what is intestinalization

A

when glandular epithelium is replaced by mucus-secreting goblet cells

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45
Q

what are the three complications of chronic gastritis

A

peptic ulcer disease
mucosal atrophy and intestinal metaplasia
dysplasia

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46
Q

where are peptic ulcers usually found

A

duodenum

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47
Q

what are the two most common types of gastric polyp

A

inflammatory and hyperplastic polyps

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48
Q

what is familial adenomatous polyposis (PAP)

A

more than 100 fundic gland polyps

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49
Q

what is the most common type of stomach cancer

A

gastric adenocarcinoma

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50
Q

what are two causes of gastric adenocarcinoma

A

H. pylori
EBV

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51
Q

what is the main feature of the intestinal type of gastric adenocarcinoma

A

well defined lesions

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52
Q

what is the diffuse type of gastric adenocarcinoma

A

linitis plastica

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53
Q

which condition presents with a thickened gastric wall “leather bottle”

A

linitis plastica (diffuse type gastric adenocarcinoma)

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54
Q

what is MALT

A

mucosal associated lymphoid tissue

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55
Q

what is the most common type of gastric lymphoma

A

marginal zone B-cell lymphoma

56
Q

neuroendocrine carcinoid tumors can be associated with which syndrome

A

Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

57
Q

what is Zollinger-Ellison syndrome

A

gastrinomas from the pancreas or duodenum that secrete gastrin

58
Q

which tumors pop up under the mucosa and are white/yellow on cut section

A

neuroendocrine carcinoid tumors

59
Q

what is the most common mesenchymal tumor of the abdomen

A

gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)

60
Q

where do most gastrointestinal stromal tumors (GIST) occur

A

stomach

61
Q

which marker is used to test for a gastrointestinal stromal tumor (GIST)

A

KIT (CD117)

62
Q

what is a type of nerve sheath tumor

A

schwannomas

63
Q

what is a type of nerve tumors that resemble glomus bodies in the nail beds

A

glomus tumor

64
Q

what is the most frequent cranial birth injury leading to hemorrhage of the scalp

A

cephalohematoma

65
Q

which structures holding up the connection between the duodenum and jejunum

A

ligament of treitz

66
Q

where are peyer’s patches most commonly found

A

ileum

67
Q

what do brunners glands do

A

found in the duodenum and produce alkaline secretions to proctect the small intestine

68
Q

what are the two ways to orient yourself to the cecum

A

1st - find appendix
2nd - find ICV

69
Q

what is the mesorectal envelope

A

area of rectum/anus that is retroperitoneal and becomes a margin once removed

70
Q

what is the most common congenital defect/anomaly of the GI tract

A

mekels diverticulum

71
Q

what are the three parts to the rule of 2’s for mekels diverticulum

A

2% of population
2 ft from ileocecal valve in adults
2 in long in adults

72
Q

what is a mekels diverticulum made of

A

pancreas or gastric mucosa

73
Q

who, male or females, is more at risk for developing appendicitis

A

males

74
Q

what is the most common cause of appendicitis

A

fecalith

75
Q

what is the most common tumor of the appendix

A

carcinoid at tip of appendix

76
Q

what causes a mucocele of the appendix

A

epithelial perforation due to mucin accumulation

77
Q

what does LAMN stand for

A

low grade appendiceal mucinous neoplasm

78
Q

what is pseudomyxoma peritonei

A

rupture or extension from a mucinous appendiceal neoplasm with numerous gelatinous globules of mucin

79
Q

where is the most common location to have an obstruction of the GI tract

A

small intestine

80
Q

what is intussusception

A

when a segment of the intestine telescopes into the distal segment

81
Q

what is the most frequent cause of intestinal obstruction worldwide

A

hernias

82
Q

what three factors determine the severity of ischemic bowel disease

A

severity of vascular compromise
amount of time obstructed
vessels affected

83
Q

what are the 4 most common watershed zones (areas particularly susceptible to ischemia)

A

superior and inferior mesenteric artery (affects transverse and left colon)
inferior mesenteric and hypogastric artery (affects sigmoid)

84
Q

what is dysentery

A

painful, small amounts of bloody diarrhea containing contaminated food/water

85
Q

how does cystic fibrosis affect a newborns GI tract

A

leads to meconium ileum (thick meconium adherent to the wall of the small bowel)

86
Q

what is the main characteristic of cells affected by celiac disease

A

villous atrophy

87
Q

dermatitis herpetiformis is seen in which condition

A

celicac disease

88
Q

what is abetalipoproteinemia

A

recessive disease where you can’t secrete triglyceride rich lipoproteins
leads to fat build up within the cells

89
Q

spur cells are seen in which condition

A

abetalipoproteinemia

90
Q

what are the two types of microscopic colitis

A

collagenous colitis
lymphocytic colitis

91
Q

what is the main feature of collagenous colitis

A

dense subepithelial collagen layer

92
Q

what is the main feature of lymphocytic colitis

A

lots of T lymphocytes

93
Q

which disease is common in those who receive transplants

A

graft-versus-host disease (GVHD)

94
Q

what is the main cause of pseudomembranous colitis

A

c. difficile

95
Q

how is pesudomembranous colitis treated

A

fecal transplant

96
Q

what is the most common cause of severe childhood diarrhea

A

rotavirus

97
Q

what is irritable bowel syndrome

A

chronic, relapsing abdominal pain, bloating, and change in bowel habits

98
Q

what is inflammatory bowel disease

A

chronic condition that leads to inappropriate mucosal immune activation
two types: Crohn disease and ulcerative colitis

99
Q

what are four characteristics of Crohn disease

A

transmural (entire thickness)
skip lesions
cobblestone appearance
creeping fat

100
Q

what are two characteristics of ulcerative colitis

A

limited to colon and rectum
mucosa and submucosal involvement

101
Q

which, ulcerative colitis or crohn disease, is more likely to become malignant

A

ulcerative colitis

102
Q

what is the word for a single out pouching in diverticulosis

A

diverticulum

103
Q

what is the word for multiple out pouching in diverticulosis

A

diverticula

104
Q

who is most at risk for diverticulosis

A

those over the age of 60

105
Q

what is diverticulosis and where are they typically found

A

out pouchings of the mucosal wall in the colon, typically on the mesenteric side of the sigmoid colon

106
Q

what is a hamartomatous polyp

A

disorganized, tumor-like growth made of the same cell of the area
can occur in any area of the wall

107
Q

what are juvenile polyps

A

a type of hamartomatous polyp of rectum in children

108
Q

what is juvenile polyposis syndrome

A

a juvenile polyp that has become malignant

109
Q

what is peutz-jeghers syndrome

A

dominant disorder that is characterized by both epithelial hamartomatous polyps and mucocutaenous hyperpigmentation

110
Q

are hyperplastic polyps typically malignant?

A

no

111
Q

what is a colon adenoma

A

polyp with epithelial dysplasia
most common and clinically important in developing neoplasia
raspberry appearance
size determines risk for malignancy (>4cm)

112
Q

what are the three types of colon adenoma structures

A

tubular
tubulovillous
villous

113
Q

hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer (HNPCC) or Lynch syndrome increases your risk for cancer where

A

colorectal
endometrial
ovarian

114
Q

what is the most common malignancy of the GI tract

A

colon adenocarcinoma

115
Q

where is the most common place for an adenocarcinoma of the colon

A

large bowel

116
Q

what is microsatellite instability

A

a proposed genetic cause of colon adenocarcinoma

117
Q

what are the two main pathways involved in colon cancer

A

APC catenin mutation pathway
micro satellite instability pathway

118
Q

tumors most commonly found in the distal colon and rectum can have which key feature

A

napkin ring obstruction

119
Q

which type of tumors are common in the right colon

A

exophytic tumors

120
Q

what are the three main important colon cancer prognostic factors

A

depth of invasion (most important)
lymph node metastasis
distant metastasis to lung or liver

121
Q

what is the peritoneal reflection

A

line of demarkation between the sigmoid (peritoneal) and the rectum/anus (retroperitoneal)

122
Q

what is the dentate/pectinate line

A

divides the anal canal into upper and lower parts

123
Q

where will you find SCC in the distal large colon

A

anus

124
Q

what type of cancer would you find in the rectum

A

adenocarcinoma

125
Q

what are the two broad categories pathologists use to stage cancers of the GI tract

A

endocrine and gastrointestinal

126
Q

what is most important when staging appendix neuroendocrine tumors

A

size then invasion

127
Q

what is most important when staging colon neuroendocrine tumors

A

size then invasion

128
Q

what is most important when staging duodenum and ampulla neuroendocrine tumors

A

size then invasion

129
Q

what is most important when staging jejunum and ileum neuroendocrine tumors

A

invasion

130
Q

what is most important when staging stomach neuroendocrine tumors

A

invasion

131
Q

what is most important when staging anal gastrointestinal tumors

A

size then invasion

132
Q

what is most important when staging appendix gastrointestinal tumors

A

perforation and mucin

133
Q

what is most important when staging colon and rectum gastrointestinal tumors

A

invasion

134
Q

what is most important when staging esophagus gastrointestinal tumors

A

invasion - especially of the adventitia

135
Q

what is most important when staging gastrointestinal stromal tumors

A

size

136
Q

what is most important when staging small intestine gastrointestinal tumors

A

invasion

137
Q

what is most important when staging stomach gastrointestinal tumors

A

invasion

Basic Human Pathology (18 decks)

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