Ch 6: Diseases of the Immune System Flashcards

(63 cards)

1
Q

what is innate (natural) immunity

A

intrinsic mechanisms that are poised to react immediately and are the first line of defense against microbes and damaged cells
include inflammation and antiviral defense

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is adaptive (aquired) immunity

A

mechanisms that are stimulated by exposure to microbes and other foreign substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

define immunity

A

your body’s reaction against cancers, tissue transplants, and self antigens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the 6 main cell types involved in innate immunity

A

epithelial
monocytes
neutrophils
plasma proteins
dendritic cells
innate lymphoid cells - natural killer cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

explain the inflammation portion of innate immunity

A

cytokines and complement proteins trigger vascular and cellular componenets of inflammation
leukocytes destroy microbes as well as ingest and eliminate damaged cells
helps to repair damaged tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

explain the antiviral defense portion of innate immunity

A

type 1 interferons act on infected cells and activate enzymes that degrade viral nucleic acids and inhibit viral replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are the two main cell types of adaptive immunity

A

T lymphocytes and B lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what are the three types of T lymphocytes

A

helper T
killer (cytotoxic) T
regulatory T

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what do helper T lymphocytes do

A

stimulate B lymphocytes to make antibodies and activate other leukocytes to destroy microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are the two primary lymphoid organs

A

thymus and bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the 3 types of secondary lymphoid organs

A

nodes
spleen
mucosal and cutaneous (tonsils and adenoids)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

thymus (6-25yrs)

A

25g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

thymus (26-35yrs)

A

20g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

thymus (36-65yrs)

A

16 g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

thymus (65+ yrs)

A

6g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what color is most lymphoid tissue under the microscope and why

A

very purple because lots of lymphocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

spleen (16-20yrs)

A

150-200g (170g)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

spleen (20-65yrs)

A

155g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

spleen (80+yrs)

A

100g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is a splenuculus

A

accessory spleen
ususally 1-2cm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

where are peyer’s patches found

A

in the GI tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the four main types of immunologic disorders

A

hypersensitivity
autoimmune
immunologic deficiency syndrome
amyloidosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

define atopy

A

tendency to develop immediate hypersensitivity reactions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what three things that hypersensitivity reactions can be caused by

A

exogenous and endogenous antigens
susceptible genes
imbalance between effector mechanisms of immune responses and control mechanisms that serve to normally limit response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
what is immediate (type 1) hypersensitivity
rapid reaction occuring in minutes anfter antigen binds IgE antibody is produced vasoactive amines (histamine) and other mediators from mast cells are released recruitment of inflammatory cells leads to vascular dilation, edema, smooth muscle contractions, and inflammation ex. anaphylaxis, allergies, and asthma
26
what is antibody-mediated (type 2) hypersensitivity and what are two examples
production of IgG and IgM which bind to antigen on target cell cell is phagocytosed, inflammed, or its functions disturbed ex. autoimmune hemolytic anemia and Goodpasture syndrome
27
what is immune complex mediated (type 3) hypersensitivity - give three examples
deposition of antigen-antibody complexes leads to fever, inflammation, tissue damage, lymph node enlargement, and necrotizing vasculitis (fibrinoid necrosis) ex. system lupus, serum sickness, and glomerulonephritis
28
what is cell-mediated (type 4) hypersensitivity and give four examples
cell-mediated hypersensitivity activated T lymphocytes release cytokines which cause inflammation destruction by cytotoxic T cells also can cause inflammation ex. contact dermatitis, multiple sclerosis, type 1 diabetes, and TB
29
what is autoimmune hemolytic anemia
an example of a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction immune system mistakes red blood cells as unwanted substance your body produces antibodies that destroy red blood cells which leads to anemia
30
what is Goodpasture syndrome and what are the two things it presents with
an example of a type 2 hypersensitivity reaction antibodies against collagen in the glomeruli and alveolar basement membrane presents with: hematuria (blood in urine) and hemoptysis (coughing up of blood)
31
what is anti-glomerular basement membrane antibody (ABMA)
antibody in Goodpasture Syndrome
32
what is crescentic glomerulonephritis
seen in Goodpasture syndrome crescent shape collection of collagen in bowman's capsule of glomeruli of the kidneys
33
what are the three phases of immune complex mediated (type 3) hypersensitivity
formation of immune complex deposition of the immune complexes in various tissues inflammatory reaction dispered through the body
34
what is an Arthus reaction
an example of a type of immune complex mediated (type 3) hypersensitivity localized area of tissue necrosis resulting from acute immune complex vasculitis
35
what is an example of delayed-type hypersensitivity
type 4 hypersensitivity tuberculin reaction from injection of purifed protein derivative made of a protein-containing antigen of the tubercle bacillus
36
what percentage of the population has an autoimmune disease
5-10%
37
why are women of childbearing age more likely to get an autoimmune disease
estrogen may reduce apoptosis of self-reactive B cells
38
what is systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE) and what does it present with
a type of autoimmune disorder that affects 1 in 500 antigen-antibody complexes damage multiple tissues get production of autoantibodies half have renal involvement - diffuse lupus nephritis can have libman-sacks endocarditis presents with: malar butterfly rash, alopecia, synovitis, and discoid rash
39
what is diffuse lupus nephritis
occurs in 50% of patients with systemic lupus erythematosus glomeruli show proliferation of endothelial, mesangial, and epithelial cells that fill Bowmann's space shows wire loop on light microscopy
40
what is Libman-Sacks (murantic or verrucous) endocarditis
a form of nonbacterial thrombotic endocarditis (NBTE) sterile vegetations on cardiac valves due to endothelial injury seen in those with systemic lupus erythematosus
41
what is Sjogren Disease
chronic disease due to lymphocytic infiltration and fibrosis of the lacrimal and salivary glands leads to: keratoconjunctivtis sicca (dry eyes) and xerostomia (dry moth)
42
what is systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)
disease of excessive dense collagen deposition in the dermis possible result of autoimmunity widespready damage to small blood vessels progressive interstital and perivascular fibrosis in skin and multiple organs such as the GI tract (EGJ specficially) Raynaud's disease is a symptom of this disease
43
what is the Raynaud Phenomenom
numbness and tingling of the fingers and toes caused by episodic vasoconstriction of arteries and arterioles characteristic of systemic sclerosis (scleroderma)
44
what happens in hyperacute rejection of the kidney
immediate cyanotic, mottled, and anuric kidney arteries have fibrinoid necrosis in lumen kidney eventually undergoes outright necrosis
45
what is rejection
the process in which T lymphocytes and antibodies are produced against graft antigens react against and destroy tissue three types: hyperacute, acute, and chronic
46
what happens in acute rejection of the kidney
days or weeks cytotoxic T-cells start destroying graft cells helper T-cells release cytokines which produce inflammation that damages grade cells shows up with wavy basement membranes in the tubules
47
what happens in chronic rejection of the kidney
months or years interstitial fibrosis and gradual narrowing of the graft blood vessels
48
what are primary immunodeficiencies
inherited defects in the early innate immune response typically affect leukocyte functions or the complement system all lead to increased vulnerability to infections
49
what are the two main types of secondary immunodeficiencies (aquired)
HIV and amyloidosis
50
what is DiGeorge Syndrome (Thymic Hypoplasia) and what is it caused by
a type of primary immunodeficiency T-cell deficiency that results from failure of development of the thymus usually caused by a small germline deletion that maps to chromsome 22q11
51
what is Wiskott-Aldrich Syndrome (WASp protein)
a type of primary immunodeficiency X-linked disease in the WAS protein leads to increase susceptibility to infections and anemia
52
what does WASp do
it's a key actin cytoskeleton regulator that coordinates the assembly of actin filaments in response to cell signaling event
53
what is selective IgA deficiency
**most common type of primary immunodeficiency** impaired differentiation of naive B lymphocytes to IgA-producing plasma cells leads to weakened mucosal defenses and infections in the respiratory, GI, and urogenital tracts
54
what is acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
immunosupressions that leads to infections and cancers second leading cause of dead in US men
55
what are the three ways in which you can get HIV
sexual transmission (most common) parenteral transmission (blood transfusions) mother-to-infant (vaginal birth or ingestion of breast milk)
56
what is human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
human retrovirus from the lentivirus family infects memory and activated T cells loss of memory cell has ripple effects on every componenet of immune system
57
what is candidiasis
most common fungal infection in patients with AIDS
58
what is Kaposi sarcoma
most common neoplasm in patients with AIDS proliferation of spindle-shaped cells with intervening blood filled channels
59
90% of patients demonstrate some form of neurologic involvement (usually progressive encephalopathy) at autopsy when they have which disease
HIV
60
what disease has the highest risk after a needlestick
Hepatitis C virus (HCV)
61
what is amyloidosis
type of secondary immunodeficiency inherited and inflammatory disorders in which extracellular deposits of fibrillar proteins (amyloid) cause tissue damage amyloidosis condition caused by abnormal folding of proteins
62
which stain tests for amyloidosis
congo red
63
what is sago spleen
uniform enlargement of white pulp in spleen due to amyloid deposits multiple tiny pearl like appearance of spleen