Ch. 3 pt 1 Flashcards

(47 cards)

1
Q

What is the central idea to Development biology?

A

differential gene expression

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2
Q

What are the 3 major ideas of differential gene expression?

A

1) every cell contains a complete genome (genomic equivalence)
2) only some of the genome is expressed in a given cell type (differential gene expression)
3) unused genes are retained within a cell

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3
Q

What are the 4 levels of regulating gene expression?

A

1) differential gene transcription
2) mRNA splicing
3) selective mRNA translation
4) differential protein modification

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4
Q

What is an example of genomic equivalence?

A

Dolly the sheep

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5
Q

When was dolly the sheep cloned?

A

1997

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6
Q

What cells were removed from the two sheep in the dolly cloning experiment?

A

1) enucleated oocyte
2) mammary gland cell in G1

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7
Q

In the cloning experiment, the oocytes were prepared and maintained while in _______

A

meiosis metaphase II

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8
Q

_______: DNA and protein mixture that makes up our chromosomal DNA

A

chromatin

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9
Q

What are the 2 types of chromatin?

A

1) heterochromatin: regions that are tightly packed
2) euchromatin: regions that are loosely packed

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10
Q

_______: major protein component of chromatin

A

histones
- about half the weight

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11
Q

_______: basic unit of chromosome structure made of 8 histones
What is it made up of?

A

nucleosome
- made up of H2A, H2B, H3, H4

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12
Q

How many times does DNA wrap around a histone?

A

2 (140 bp)

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13
Q

60 bp “linker” between nucleosomes bound by _______ stabilizes solenoid structure of chromatin in chromosomes

A

Histone H1

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14
Q

_______ add methyl groups to tails of H3. Can either allow or prevent transcription

A

histone methyltransferases
- H3K4, K48, K79 activate
- H3K9, K27 repress

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15
Q

What two proteins aid to the addition and subtraction of acetyl groups to H3 and H4 histones

A

1) histone acetyltransferase
- addition
2) histone deacetylases
- subtraction

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16
Q

Histone _______ destabilize nucleosomes, allowing transcription

A

acetyltransferases

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17
Q

Histone _______ stabilize nucleosomes, preventing transcription

A

deacetylases

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18
Q

RNA Pol II binds to _______ to initiate transcription, which is rich in cytosine and guanine (_______)

A

promotor
CpG islands

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19
Q

TATA-binding protein (TBP), and other _______ are attracted to CpG-rich sites creating a “saddle” that can recruit RNA pol II

A

basal transcription factors

20
Q

Enhancers and silencers (can be upstream or downstream) bind to ________ and can only affect ____-linked promotors

A

Transcription Factors
cis

21
Q

What are the 2 ways that transcription factors activate gene transcription?

A

1) bind cofactors (such as acetyltransferases etc.)
2) form bridges (loops)

22
Q

A bridging structure is found in any genes that involves a large (30+) protein complex called the _______

23
Q

following chromatin remodeling and basal transcription factor binding, the mediator binds along with _______, _______, and _______ to form the pre-initiation complex

A

basal TF, cohesin, and RNA pol II

24
Q

What are the two possible outcomes from bridge formation of preinitiation complex in transcription

A

1) transcription elongation
2) transcription pause

25
transcription elongation stimulated by _______, with coincident 5' capping and phosphorylation and phosphorylation of RNA Pol II
transcription elongation complex (TEC)
26
Transcription pause caused by _______ preventing TEC association
NELF (repressive transcription factor)
27
Enhancer sequences are the same in all cells, however the combination of _______ available for binding differs between cell types
transcription factors
28
What are the 5 categories of transcription factors?
1) Homeodomain 2) helix-loop-helix 3) basic leucine zipper (bZip) 4) Zinc-finger 5) Sry-Sox
29
_______: can penetrate repressed chromatin and bind to enhancers
pioneer transcription factors
30
an example of a pioneer transcription factor is _______, which recruits MyoD/E12 to help transcribe genes for muscle development
PBX
31
_______: a series of successive "switches" must be executed in order to complete the differential of a given cell type
gene regulatory network - first input is egg cytoplasm
32
Recent advances in _______ has suggested that variations in promoters can be grouped into two main classes
ChIP-seq
33
What does ChIP-seq stand for?
chromatin immunoprecipitation sequencing
34
_______ regulate synthesis of transcription factors and other regulator proteins used in constructing the organism
High CpG-content promotors
35
The default state for High CpG-content promotors is (on/off)
on
36
HCP's must be actively repressed by _______
histone methylation
37
_______ regulate genes typical of mature organs/cells
Low CpG-content promotors
38
The default state for Low CpG-content promotors is (on/off)
off
39
LCP's must be activated by _______ and _______
TF binding and switching methylation
40
Promotors of inactive genes become methylated on cytosine residues producing _______. These stabilize nucleosomes structure and prevents transcription factors from binding
5-methylcytosine
41
What are the two ways that DNA methylation can inhibit transcription?
1) blocks transcription factors from binding 2) bind MeCP2 which recruits deacetylases or methyltransferases
42
Methylated cytosines can bind _______, which then recruits histone deacetylases and histone methyltransferases
MeCP2
43
Methylated cytosines of DNA affect chromatin structure in a way that can be transmitted through cell cycles and even from _______ to _______
parent to child
44
_______ methylates previously un-methylated surrounding DNA
DNA methyltransferase 3 (Dnmt3)
45
_______ recognizes methyl-cytosines on one strand of newly synthesized DNA and methylates the newly formed strand opposite it
DNA methyltransferase 1 (Dnmt1)
46
In some of the genes the sex of the parent does matter. _______ patterns are not identical resulting in different patterns of gene activation/inactivation in each genome
DNA methylation
47
DMR stands for?
differentially methylated region