CH15: EPILEPSY Flashcards

1
Q

how many percent of patients with absence are completely motionless during the attack (p. 336)

A

10%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

For absence, rarely seizures begin before 4 years of age or after puberty (p. 336)

A

TRUE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

Difference between childhood and adolescence absence seizure (p. 336)

A

Persistence into adulthood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

EEG finding in absence seizur (p. 336)

A

Generalized 3 per second spike and wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

EEG finding in atypical absence seizure (p. 337)

A

Long runs of slow spike and wave activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

EEG finding in Lennox- Gestaut syndrome (p. 337)

A

1-2 Jz spike and wave

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Lennox Gastaut preceded by this condition in early life (p. 337)

A

Hypsarrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Hypsarrhythmia+ mental development arrest + hypsarrhythmia (p. 337)

A

West syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

most common form of idiopathic generalized epilepsy in older children and young adults (p. 337)

A

Juvenile Myoclonic Epilepsy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

EEG findings in JME (p. 337)

A

4-6 Hz irregular polyspike activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

JME impairs intelligence (p. 337)

A

FALSE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Drug of choice for JME (p. 337)

A

Valproic Acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Drug of choice for JME, but child- bearing age (p. 337)

A

Levetiracetam, Lamotrigine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Drugs that exaggerate seizures in JME (p. 337)

A

Carbamazepine and Phenytoin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Olfactory hallucination localization (p.339)

A

Inferior and medial part, temporal lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Gustatory hallucination localization (p.339)

A

Insula and parietal operculum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Most frequent reported color during visual seizure (p. 339)

A

Red

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Auditory hallucination localization (p. 339)

A

Superior temporal convulsion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Vertiginous sensation localization (p. 339)

A

Superoposterior temporal region

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

pathologic findings of Infantile spasms (p. 343)

A

Cortical dysgenesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

common precipitant of Febrile seizure beacause of its tendency to cause high fever (p. 344)

A

Herpesvirus 6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

EEG findings in epilepsia partialis continue (p. 345)

A

repetitive slow- wave or sharp waves or spikes over the central areas of the contralateral hemisphere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

EPC- resistant or not to treatment? (p. 345)

A

RESISTANT TO TREATMENT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

EPC + progressive hemiparesis (p. 345)

A

Rasmussen Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Antibodies in Rasmussen encephalitis (p. 345)
Anti- GluR3
26
A single EEG tracing obtained during the interictal state is abnormal to some degree in what percentage of patients (p. 348)
30% to 50%
27
gross and microscopic CNS findings in brains of patients with epilepsy (p. 349)
NORMAL
28
loss of neurons in what part of the hippocampus in MTS (p. 349)
CA1
29
overall concordance of primary epilepsies (p. 349)
70% monozugotic, 30% dizygotic
30
problematic channel in AD nocturnal frontal lobe epilepsy (p. 350)
nicotinic acetalcholine receptor subinit
31
problematic channel in generalized epiilepsy with febrile seizures plus (p. 350)
neuronal sodium channel
32
problematic channel in benign familial neonatal convulsions (p. 350)
two different potassium channels
33
problemattic hcannel in JME and childhood absence (p. 350)
brain GABA
34
progressive myoclonic epilepsy, problematic cystatin B (p. 350)
Unverricht- Lundborg disease
35
progressive myoclonic epilepsy, tyrosine phophate B (p. 350)
Lafora body disease
36
sudden myoclonic jerk of the head and arms leading to flexion or extension of the body (p. 353)
Infantile spasms
37
bilateral slow waves and multifocal spikes in EEG (p. 354)
West syndrome
38
myoclonic focal seizures, loss of function mutation in SCN1A in most cases (p. 354)
Dravet Syndrome
39
most common lesions underlying status epilepticus in late adult life (p. 355)
Previous infarcts
40
seizure from advanced Alzheimers (p. 355)
10%
41
Most common metallic poison causing seizures: childhood (p. 356)
Lead
42
Most common metallic poison causing seizures: adulthood (p. 356)
Mercury
43
cephalosporin if excessive dosage can cause status epilepticus (p 356)
Cefipime
44
2 drugs induced unheralded single convulsion if administered too quicklu or in excessive doses (p. 356)
Lidocaine and Aminophylline
45
Anticonvulsant but causes myoclonic phenomena upon withdrawal (p. 356)
Propofol
46
Rate of seizures post stroke (p. 357)
3%
47
how many percent of women who became pregnant have no change in seizure frequency (p. 357)
2/3
48
Safe drugs in breast feeding (p. 357)
Carbamazepine, Phenytoin, VPA
49
Drugs increased in breast milk (p. 357)
Pb, Primidone, Ethosoxumide, Zonisamide, BZD
50
Vitamin K given at 8th month or before birth due to coagulopathy due to this AED (p. 357)
Phenobarbital
51
Most common teratogenic effect of AED (p. 357)
Cleft lip and palate
52
General risk of major copngenital effect with AED vs no AED (p. 357)
4-5% from 2-3%
53
shortened nose, philtrum or inner canthal distance (p. 357)
midface hypoplasia
54
decrease in IQ by 9 points (p. 358)
Valproate
55
highest risk and significant dose effect for an individual for fetal malformation (p. 358)
Polytherapy
56
AED for patient not having AED for a long time but had seizure during pregnancy (p. 358)
PHY LEV
57
induce hepatic enzymes, if on pills should be given higher doses (p. 358)
PHY, CBZ, TPR
58
dose of magnesium in patients with eclampsia (p. 358)
10gm IM, 5g IM q4
59
percent of patients controlled seizures on one drug (p. 359)
70%
60
drug that will not have linear kinetics once concentration exceeds 10mg/ml (p. 361)
PHY
61
drug inducing its own metabolism (p. 361)
CBZ
62
Antibiotic causes accumulation of PHY and Pb (p. 362)
Chloramphenicol
63
Antibiotic causes accumulation of CVZ (p. 362)
Erythromycin
64
Drugs causing breakthrough menstrual bleeding in women taking OCP (p. 362)
PHY, CBZ, Barbiturates
65
Aromatic drugs responsible for skin erruptions (p. 362)
PHY. CBZ, Pb, Primitone, LMT
66
Polymorphisms associated with increased risk of skin reactions (p. 362)
HLA B 1502
67
Relapse rate is lower in patients with absence and generalized- onset than in patients with focal seizures (p. 362)
TRUE
68
SE of PHY (p. 363)
gum hypertrophy, breast enlargement
69
Phenytoin hypersensitivity signs (p. 363)
Rash, fever, lymophadenopathy, eisinophilia, blood dyscrasia
70
PHY not given with this drugs because of undesirable reactions (p. 363)
Disulfiram, Chloramphenicol, Sulfamethizole, Cyclophosphamide, Warfarin
71
drug acting on glutamic acid decarboxylase and sodium channel (p. 365)
Valproate
72
drug inhibits GABA transaminase (p. 365)
Vigabatrin
73
drug inhibitor of GABA reuptake (p. 365)
Tiagabine
74
AED induces renal stones in 1.5% of population (p. 366)
Topiramate
75
AED, works on voltage- gated sodium channel, renally excreted, prolong PR interval, worsen heart failure (p. 366)
Lacosamide
76
Two frugs known to produce absence status (p. 366)
Valproate and Clonazepam
77
Drug of choice for infantile spasms (p. 366)
ACTH or Vigabatrin
78
Volatile anesthetic used in circumstances of SE (p. 368)
Isoflurane
79
Ketogenic diet is main treatment for children with what deficiency syndrome (p. 369)
GLUT 1 deficiency syndrome