Chapter 1 - Know Your Rules & Responsibilities Flashcards
(169 cards)
1
Q
What are the two primary functions of CASA as outlined in the Civil Aviation Act?
A
- Conduct safety regulation of civil air operations in Australian territory
- Regulate the operation of Australian aircraft outside Australian territory
2
Q
What does the Airspace Act 2007 provide for?
A
Regulations that give CASA the powers and functions to administer and regulate Australian-administered airspace
3
Q
What is the relationship between CAR and CASR?
A
CAR and CASR are secondary legislation made under the Civil Aviation Act and impose regulatory requirements
4
Q
What does the Manual of Standards (MOS) provide?
A
Detail of any standards referred to in the CASR
5
Q
What do Civil Aviation Orders (CAO) set out?
A
Detail of the standards referred to in the CAR
6
Q
What is included in the Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP)?
A
- AIP book
- En Route Supplement Australia (ERSA)
- Departure and approach procedures (DAP East and DAP West)
- AIP Supplement (SUP)
- Notice to Airmen (NOTAM)
- Aeronautical Information Circular (AIC)
- Terminal area chart (TAC)
- En route charts (ERC-H and ERC-L)
- Planning Chart Australia (PCA)
- World aeronautical charts (WACs)
- Visual navigation charts (VNC)
- Visual terminal charts (VTC)
- Designated Airspace Handbook (DAH)
7
Q
What is the purpose of supporting material in aviation legislation?
A
To clarify the legislation and assist in compliance without introducing new obligations
8
Q
What does an acceptable means of compliance and guidance material document (AMC/GM) provide?
A
Supporting information on a particular regulation
9
Q
What does an advisory circular (AC) provide?
A
Advice and guidance on complying with regulations
10
Q
What is a key responsibility regarding fitness to fly?
A
Determining your fitness to fly requires sound and honest judgement
11
Q
What does CASR Part 99 establish?
A
A regime for random drug and alcohol testing of all pilots in Australia
12
Q
What is the maximum permitted blood alcohol concentration (BAC) for pilots in Australia?
A
Less than 0.02 grams of alcohol in 210 litres of breath
13
Q
What are common warning signs of fatigue in pilots?
A
- Errors of judgment
- Forgetfulness
- Sleepiness or yawning
- Loss of appetite
- Aggressiveness or irritability
- Inaccurate flying
- Deviation from usual operating standards
14
Q
What should pilots do to manage risks from fatigue?
A
Decide not to operate an aircraft if feeling unfit due to fatigue
15
Q
What strategies can pilots adopt to manage fatigue before flying?
A
- Planning activities, meals, rest, and sleep
- Making use of permitted rest breaks
- Advising colleagues if feeling drowsy
- Giving feedback on overnight accommodation
- Eating appropriate meals
16
Q
What is the effect of alcohol on flying ability?
A
It affects concentration, coordination, and slows reaction times
17
Q
True or False: Over-the-counter medications are always safe for flying.
A
False
18
Q
Fill in the blank: The _______ is responsible for ensuring compliance with aviation regulations.
A
Civil Aviation Safety Authority (CASA)
19
Q
What is required to exercise any privilege of your pilot licence?
A
A current aviation medical certificate or an applicable exemption
This is outlined in CASR 61.405, 61.410.
20
Q
What does a Class 1 medical certificate allow a pilot to do?
A
Fly most commercial operations and conduct private and recreational flying operations
Refer to CASR 67.150 and CASR 61.415.
21
Q
What is the purpose of a Class 2 medical certificate?
A
It allows private and recreational flying operations, and certain commercial operations without passengers
See CASR 61.410.
22
Q
What are the operational restrictions of a Basic Class 2 medical certificate?
A
- Maximum of five passengers
- Piston engine aircraft
- Maximum take-off weight under 8,618 kg
- No operational ratings
- No flight activity endorsements
This is for private day VFR operations below 10,000 ft AMSL.
23
Q
Who can conduct a Basic Class 2 examination?
A
Any medical practitioner who does medical examinations for commercial motor vehicle drivers
The standard is the same as the commercial driver standard (Austroads).
24
Q
What does a Class 5 medical self declaration allow?
A
Exemption from holding a medical certificate for recreational pilot licence holders if they declare fitness and comply with requirements
More details at www.casa.gov.au.
25
What is a Recreational Aviation Medical Practitioners Certificate (RAMPC)?
A certificate valid for recreational pilot licence holders with specific conditions regarding aircraft weight, operations, and passenger limits
## Footnote
Conditions include flying only single engine piston aircraft under VFR below 10,000 ft.
26
What must you do if your medical condition changes?
You must inform CASA and not fly if your ability is impaired
## Footnote
This is mandated by CASR 67.265.
27
What is the age requirement for a student pilot to fly solo?
At least 15 years of age
## Footnote
As per CASR 61.113.
28
What must a student pilot hold to fly solo?
A Class 1 or Basic Class 2 medical certificate or a medical exemption
## Footnote
Refer to CASR 61.114.
29
What are the requirements for a recreational pilot licence applicant?
* At least 16 years of age
* Passed aeronautical knowledge exams
* Completed flight training
* Passed flight test
* At least 25 hours of flight time (20 dual, 5 solo)
## Footnote
Details in CASR 61.475.
30
What privileges does a recreational pilot licence provide?
Fly under VFR in private operations or flight training in specific aircraft types
## Footnote
Conditions include a maximum weight of 1,500 kg and powered by a single engine.
31
What is required for a private pilot licence holder to exercise their privileges?
A valid medical certificate and compliance with recency requirements
## Footnote
As outlined in CASR 61.395 and CASR 61.400.
32
What general competency requirements must be met for a pilot licence?
* Operating navigation and operating systems
* Conducting normal, abnormal, and emergency procedures
* Applying operating limitations
* Weight and balance requirements
* Aircraft performance data
## Footnote
Refer to CASR 61.385.
33
How often must a flight crew rating undergo a flight review?
Every 2 years
## Footnote
This applies to class ratings, aircraft type ratings, and glider pilot licences.
34
What does a private operation of an aircraft exclude?
* Operations under AOC authority
* Aerial work certificate operations
* Part 141 flight training
* Part 142 activities
* Adventure flights for limited category aircraft
* Specialized balloon operations for hire
## Footnote
For details, see the relevant regulations.
35
What is required before carrying passengers by day?
Three take-offs and landings in the previous 90 days
## Footnote
No prescribed requirements if not carrying passengers
36
What experience is needed to carry passengers at night?
Three take-offs and landings at night in the previous 90 days
37
What are the requirements for flying at night without passengers?
At least one night take-off and one night landing within the previous 6 months in an aircraft of the same category
38
What qualifies as recent experience for carrying passengers by day?
Passing a relevant flight check, review, or test within the last 90 days, including at least one take-off and landing
39
What must a pilot retain in their personal logbook?
Full name, date of birth, and details of each flight conducted in an aircraft or flight simulator
40
What details must be recorded for each flight in the logbook?
* Date the flight began
* Aircraft type
* Single or multi-engine
* Nationality and registration
* Take-off and landing points
* Flight time in various capacities
* Day or night flight
* Instrument flight time
* Instrument approaches performed
41
How long must a pilot retain their logbook?
At least 7 years after the last entry
42
What must logbook entries not be?
False or misleading
43
What documents may CASA direct you to produce for inspection?
* Pilot licence
* Aviation medical certificates
* Photo identification
44
What is the requirement for carrying documents in electronic form?
Documents required to be carried on a flight may be carried as electronic copies
45
What documents must be carried for each flight crew member?
* Medical certificate
* Flight crew licence
* Current passport or photographic ID
46
What is the exception for carrying documents during aerobatic manoeuvres?
Documents do not need to be carried if they present a risk to the aircraft or its occupants
47
What must be carried for flights that begin or end outside Australian territory?
* Aircraft's certificate of airworthiness and registration
* Journey log
* List of passengers
* Manifest and declaration of cargo
* Copy of radio licence
* Any relevant approvals or authorisations
48
What is a Community Service Flight (CSF)?
Involves transporting individuals for non-emergency medical treatment without charge and coordinated for charitable purposes
49
What are the licence requirements for a pilot conducting a CSF?
Must hold a Private Pilot Licence (PPL), Commercial Pilot Licence (CPL), or Airline Transport Pilot Licence (ATPL)
50
What are the aeronautical experience and medical requirements for conducting a CSF?
* 400 hours total experience
* 250 hours as pilot in command (unless holding CPL or ATPL)
* Current Class 1 or Class 2 medical certificate
* One landing in the same aircraft class in the past 30 days
* 25 hours experience in multi-engine aircraft (if applicable)
51
What experience is required on the aircraft type for IFR and VFR CSF?
* IFR – 20 hours on the aircraft type
* VFR – 10 hours on the aircraft type
52
What type of aircraft is permitted for CSF?
* VH-registered aeroplane or helicopter
* Not amateur built
* Limited category or experimental certificate
* No longer than 100 hours or 12 months since last maintenance inspection
53
What are the passenger requirements for a CSF?
* No more than 5 passengers
* Passengers must be patients or accompanying persons providing support
54
What flight notification is required for a CSF?
Full flight notification (IFR or VFR) or SARTIME (VFR) must be noted
55
What is the requirement regarding the operation of an aircraft to avoid hazards?
You must not operate an aircraft in a manner that creates a hazard to another aircraft, person or property.
## Footnote
Refer to CASR 91.055 for more details.
56
What does CASR 61.385 require of pilots before flying?
Pilots must be competent and conversant with aircraft equipment, systems, limitations, and performance.
## Footnote
Refresher training is advised if necessary.
57
What are mercy flights in aviation?
Mercy flights may require pilots to not follow aviation safety rules in response to emergencies, and such breaches must be reported to CASA.
## Footnote
More information can be found at www.casa.gov.au.
58
What does CASR 91.520 state about crew member fitness for duty?
Crew members must not perform safety-related duties if they are unfit or likely to be unfit.
## Footnote
This includes being under the influence of alcohol or drugs.
59
What is the permitted level of alcohol for crew members according to CASR?
The permitted level of alcohol is less than 0.02 grams of alcohol in 210 litres of breath.
60
What is the responsibility of operators regarding crew member fitness?
Operators must not assign crew members to duty if they have reasonable grounds to believe they are unfit.
61
What must a crew member not do regarding alcohol consumption?
A crew member must not consume alcohol while onboard the aircraft.
62
What factors can affect a pilot's fitness to fly?
Illness, medication, illicit drugs, alcohol, stress, fatigue, lack of food, and dehydration.
## Footnote
Refer to Fatigue management PEG for more information.
63
What is the authority of the pilot in command according to CASR 91.215?
The pilot in command has final authority over the operation of the aircraft and the maintenance of discipline onboard.
64
When does a flight begin and end by definition?
A flight begins when an aircraft first moves under its own power for take-off and ends when it comes to rest after being airborne.
65
What must pilots ensure regarding the aircraft flight manual (AFM)?
Pilots must operate the aircraft in accordance with the AFM and ensure all activities related to the flight meet its requirements.
66
What actions can a pilot or operator take for safety according to CASR 91.220?
They can direct a person to do or not do something, remove a person or object, restrain a person, or detain a person or object until authority is obtained.
67
What behavior is prohibited under CASR 91.525?
Behaving in an offensive or disorderly manner that could endanger the safety of the aircraft or persons onboard.
68
What are the limitations regarding training flights according to CASR 91.725?
Training flights are associated with elevated risks, and the regulations prevent the carriage of passengers under most circumstances.
69
What are the requirements for simulating flight instrument failures?
Only specific instruments can be simulated for training, including an attitude indicator, gyro compass, airspeed indicator, and altimeter.
70
What are the requirements for seating and carriage of persons on aircraft?
At least one qualified pilot must occupy a pilot seat with their seatbelt fastened at all times during flight.
71
What does CASR 91.560 state regarding the restraint of infants and children?
Passengers responsible for children or infants must ensure they are restrained according to prescribed standards.
72
What is prohibited regarding cargo carriage according to CASR 91.600?
Cargo must not be carried in a way that could damage essential aircraft equipment or obstruct emergency exits.
73
What are the conditions for carrying cargo on unoccupied seats?
Cargo over 77 kg cannot be carried on an unoccupied seat unless allowed by the seat manufacturer.
74
What must be in place for cargo loading instructions according to CASR 91.615?
A placard with instructions for the carriage of cargo must be in place.
75
What must a person obtain to bring an animal onto an aircraft?
Permission from the pilot
## Footnote
All reasonable steps must be taken to ensure carrying the animal will not adversely affect aviation safety.
76
Under what condition can a person bring an animal onto an aircraft without the pilot's permission?
With the permission of the air transport or aerial work operator
## Footnote
The operator and the pilot must ensure the animal's carriage does not affect aviation safety.
77
Can the carriage of an assistance animal be refused?
Yes, if it may adversely affect aviation safety
## Footnote
This is despite the Disability Discrimination Act 1992.
78
What is the responsibility of a person when carrying an animal on an aircraft?
Ensuring the safety of the flight
## Footnote
This applies to all types of aircraft.
79
What must not be blocked or impeded by an animal on an aircraft?
Access to or egress through an emergency exit
80
What should a large animal be secured to prevent?
Damage or affecting the balance of the aircraft in flight
81
What are some considerations when giving permission for an animal's carriage?
Type of animal, how it is carried, reaction to noise, nuisance to passengers, distraction to crew, containment of excrement
## Footnote
Each factor must be assessed to ensure safety.
82
What document should provide instructions for carrying animals?
Air operator’s certificate (AOC) holder’s operations manual
83
What must passengers do to carry firearms on specific aircraft?
Seek guidance from the airline or operator
84
Can firearms be discharged on an aircraft?
No, unless permitted by specific aviation laws
85
What is prohibited on Australian domestic air transport flights?
Smoking at any time
86
What must be ensured regarding oil on an aircraft?
Enough oil must be carried to complete the flight safely
87
What must the pilot and operator ensure regarding fuel?
Aircraft is not fuelled with contaminated, degraded, or inappropriate fuel
88
What should be checked for fuel contamination?
Take a sample from each drain point into a clear container
89
What should be done if water contamination is found in fuel?
Continue to drain until a clear uncontaminated sample is obtained
90
What should be done in case of a fuel spillage greater than 2 m in diameter?
Evacuate the area and notify the aerodrome rescue and firefighting service
91
How many fire extinguishers must be available during aircraft fuelling?
At least 2 fire extinguishers
92
What must be ensured during the fuelling of an aircraft?
The aircraft and fuelling equipment must be electrically bonded
93
What is prohibited within 15 m of a critical fuelling point?
Operating equipment or electronic devices
94
When can low-risk electronic devices be operated inside a turbine-engine aircraft during fuelling?
With permission, and cabin doors within 3 m of a critical fuelling point closed
95
What must the pilot ensure when fuelling an aircraft with highly volatile fuel?
No person, other than a crew member, is onboard, boarding, or disembarking
96
What is considered highly volatile fuel in aviation?
AVGAS or MOGAS fuel
97
What must a person not do when parking an aircraft?
Create a hazard to the movement of other aircraft
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91.420
98
Who is allowed to start the engine of an aeroplane on the ground?
Only a pilot, a person qualified to taxi under CASR Part 64, or a person operating the aeroplane for maintenance or maintenance training
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91.425 and MOS 18.01
99
What must be done when hand starting the engine using the propeller?
Secure the aeroplane from moving and no other person may be onboard
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91.425
100
Under what conditions can another person be onboard when starting the engine?
If they are in a pilot seat to assist, have been instructed, and their competence has been assessed by a qualified person
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91.425
101
Who may taxi an aircraft?
Only a person who is qualified
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91.415
102
What must a person taxiing or towing an aircraft give way to?
* A landing aircraft
* An aircraft on its final approach to land
* An aircraft taking off or preparing to take off
* An aircraft on the right if both are on a converging course
* An aircraft approaching head-on
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91.365
103
What is a movement area?
Any part of an aerodrome used for the take-off, landing, and taxiing of aircraft including manoeuvring areas and aprons
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91.365
104
Who may operate a rotorcraft on the ground?
Only a qualified pilot, unless prescribed otherwise by the MOS
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91.430
105
What must an aircraft operating by day or night be fitted with?
Anti-collision lights as required by the aircraft type design
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91 MOS 26.22
106
When must anti-collision lights be displayed for turbine-engine aircraft?
From immediately before the engines are started until the engines are shut down at the end of the flight
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91 MOS 26.22
107
What is the minimum height rule for flying an aeroplane over populous areas?
Must not fly below 1,000 ft above the highest feature or obstacle within a horizontal radius of 600 m
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91.265 and MOS 12.01
108
What is the minimum height rule for flying a helicopter over populous areas?
Must not fly below 1,000 ft above the highest feature or obstacle within a horizontal radius of 300 m
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91.265
109
What are some exceptions to the minimum height rules for flying over populous areas?
* Taking off or landing
* Engaging in a missed approach
* Practicing emergency procedures at an aerodrome without passengers onboard
* Circuit training at an aerodrome
* Carrying out air display activities with approval
* For rotorcraft: hovering, air transiting, air taxiing, or ground taxiing at an aerodrome
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91.265
110
What is the minimum height rule when flying over areas that are not populous?
Must not fly below 500 ft above the highest feature or obstacle within a horizontal radius of 300 m
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91.267
111
What must a pilot have to hold a low-level rating?
At least a private pilot licence
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 61Q, 61.1040, 61.1050, 61.1075
112
What must be conducted before flying any low-level operation?
A risk assessment of the proposed area
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 61.1040
113
How many low-level endorsements are there?
Nine
## Footnote
Endorsements include aeroplane, helicopter, powered lift, gyroplane, aerial-mustering aeroplane, aerial-mustering helicopter, aerial-mustering gyroplane, sling operations, and winch and rappelling operations.
114
What is required for recent experience in low flying?
* Flown at least 2 hours of low-level operations in the last six months
* Assessed as competent by a flight instructor within the last six months
* Successfully completed a check or review in low-level operations
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 61.1055
115
What is an aerobatic flight manoeuvre characterized by?
* Bank angles greater than 60°
* Pitch angles greater than 45° or otherwise abnormal for the aircraft type
* Abrupt changes of speed, direction, angle of bank, or angle of pitch
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91.185
116
What must be ensured before engaging in aerobatic manoeuvres?
* Loose objects are secured
* Hatches and doors are fastened
* Seat belts or harnesses are secured
* Checked for other aircraft in the vicinity
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91.185
117
What is required to fly in formation?
Prearrangement of the flight with the other pilots
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91.205
118
What must pilots hold to fly in formation at night or in IMC?
An approval
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91.205
119
What must not be created when operating an aircraft?
A hazard to another aircraft, person, or property
## Footnote
Refers to CASR 91.055
120
What is required to fly an aircraft in formation at night or in IMC?
Pilots must hold an approval and a flight activity endorsement
## Footnote
See CASR 61.380 and Flight activity endorsement table (61.1145)
121
What constitutes formation flight?
Two or more aircraft flown in close proximity or operating as a single aircraft regarding navigation, position reporting, and control
## Footnote
Includes manoeuvring for separation and during join up
122
What is the maximum indicated airspeed below 10,000 ft AMSL in Class C airspace under VFR?
250 knots (kt) unless authorized by ATC
## Footnote
No limiting speed if a higher speed is required operationally
123
What is the speed limit for aircraft at or below 2,500 ft above aerodrome elevation in Class D airspace?
200 knots (kt)
## Footnote
Applies to both IFR and VFR flights
124
What must a pilot do if they cannot comply with an ATC speed instruction?
Advise ATC
## Footnote
Must also inform if unable to meet arrival or departure speed constraints
125
What should a pilot do if they become aware of a hazard to air navigation?
Report the hazard to ATS and the aerodrome operator if applicable
## Footnote
No need to report if the hazard is already known
126
What is the basic rule for collision avoidance during flight?
Maintain vigilance to see and avoid other aircraft
## Footnote
Refer to AC 91-10 and AC 91-14 for limitations
127
What is the right-of-way rule when an aircraft is in an emergency and compelled to land?
All aircraft must give way to the aircraft compelled to land
128
When two heavier-than-air aircraft are on approach to land, who must give way?
The higher aircraft must give way to the lower aircraft, except in final stages of approach
129
In what circumstance must the overtaking aircraft give way?
The overtaking aircraft must give way to the aircraft being overtaken
130
What must both aircraft do when approaching head-on?
Each aircraft must alter heading to the right
131
What action must an aircraft that has the right of way take if there is a collision risk?
Maintain the same heading and speed until the risk is resolved
132
What are the requirements for an aircraft operating on water?
Must comply with International Regulations for Preventing Collisions at Sea, 1972
## Footnote
Except where inconsistent with CASR 91.355
133
What maintenance tasks can a pilot with a Part 61 RPL and PPL perform?
Conduct daily inspections and perform maintenance for a Class B aircraft
## Footnote
Subject to conditions in CAR 1988 Schedule 8
134
What must be done before a flight regarding inoperative equipment?
Apply an inoperative placard to any inoperative item of equipment
## Footnote
Required items must comply with regulations
135
What equipment is required for day VFR flight in an aeroplane?
Must be fitted with equipment for measuring and displaying flight information including:
* Indicated airspeed
* Magnetic heading
* Time
* Pressure altitude
## Footnote
Additional requirements apply for specific operations
136
What equipment is required for night VFR flight in an aeroplane?
Must be fitted with an approved GNSS or ADF/VOR, and display accurate flight information
## Footnote
Equipment must comply with specific standards
137
What is the purpose of a daily inspection for an aircraft?
To ensure the aircraft is airworthy and fit to fly, and its equipment is serviceable
## Footnote
Must be performed before the first flight of each day
138
What is required for a direct-reading magnetic compass?
A direct-reading magnetic compass, or both a remote indicating compass and a standby direct reading magnetic compass
## Footnote
These requirements ensure accurate navigation.
139
What must the time display equipment show?
Accurate time in hours, minutes, and seconds
## Footnote
It must be fitted to the aircraft or accessible to the pilot.
140
What information must be displayed regarding turn and slip?
Turn-and-slip information, unless a second independent source of attitude information is available
## Footnote
In that case, only slip information is required.
141
What must the equipment indicate about gyroscopic instruments?
Whether the power supply to the gyroscopic instruments is working satisfactorily
## Footnote
This is crucial for the reliability of flight instruments.
142
What color light indicates authorization to take off at an aerodrome?
Green
## Footnote
The pilot must ensure no collision risk exists.
143
What does a red light signal indicate on the ground at an aerodrome?
Stop
## Footnote
The pilot must assess the situation before proceeding.
144
What does a green flashing light from an aerodrome indicate in flight?
Authorized to land if the pilot is satisfied that no collision risk exists
## Footnote
Safety assessment is essential before landing.
145
What type of VASIS systems are approved for use in Australia?
T-VASIS and precision approach path indicator (PAPI)
## Footnote
Both systems provide visual guidance for safe landings.
146
What is the minimum obstacle clearance height for VASIS?
At least 11 m above a 1.9° slope
## Footnote
This is critical for ensuring safe approaches.
147
What does the T-VASIS cross-bar indicate?
On-slope, with deviations appearing as one, two, or three lights above or below the cross-bar
## Footnote
This helps pilots gauge their approach angle.
148
What is the function of the PAPI light boxes?
Provide a visual guide for approach slope with red and white light transitions
## Footnote
The transition helps pilots adjust their descent path.
149
What could abnormal T-VASIS indications indicate?
Erroneous fly-down or fly-up signals due to ground fog or mist
## Footnote
Pilots should exercise caution in such conditions.
150
What does a white flashing light signal at an aerodrome?
Aerodrome unsafe
## Footnote
This indicates that landing should not occur.
151
What does a red flashing light indicate during taxiing?
Give way to other aircraft and continue circling
## Footnote
This is part of maintaining safety on the ground.
152
What is a displaced threshold in aviation?
A runway threshold that is shifted from its original position, indicated by NOTAMS and ATIS.
153
What does TODA stand for?
Take-off distance available.
154
What does LDA stand for?
Landing distance available.
155
What is the role of the Australian Transport Safety Bureau (ATSB)?
An independent Commonwealth Government statutory agency managing aviation safety investigations.
156
Under which act is the ATSB established?
Transport Safety Investigation Act 2003 (TSI Act).
157
What types of matters must pilots report to the ATSB?
Immediately reportable matters (IRMs) and routinely reportable matters (RRMs).
158
What are immediately reportable matters (IRMs)?
Accidents and serious incidents affecting aircraft safety.
159
Give an example of an IRM.
A death or serious injury caused by contact with an aircraft.
160
What are routinely reportable matters (RRMs)?
Occurrences that could affect safety but are not serious.
161
What is the reporting time frame for RRMs?
Within 72 hours of becoming aware of them.
162
Fill in the blank: An unexpected close proximity of aircraft in flight is known as an _______.
airprox.
163
What is the immediate reporting requirement for IRMs?
Immediate reporting by telephone and a follow-up written report within 72 hours.
164
What must be included in a report to the ATSB?
Aircraft make, model, registration, names of the owner and operator, pilot in command, date and time, location, and nature of occurrence.
165
What is REPCON?
A confidential reporting scheme for aviation safety concerns.
166
What is the primary goal of maintaining confidentiality in REPCON?
To alleviate the risk of retribution.
167
Give an example of what should be reported under REPCON.
An incident that affects an aircraft's safe operation.
168
What should be done if an employee's fatigue contributes to safety concerns?
Report it under REPCON.
169
True or False: A pilot is required to report an occurrence if they believe another responsible person has already reported it.
False.
